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  • Question 1 - Which of the following muscles winds around the pterygoid hamulus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles winds around the pterygoid hamulus?

      Your Answer: Hyoglossus

      Correct Answer: Tensor veli palatini

      Explanation:

      The tensor veli palatini tenses the soft palate and by doing so, assists the levator veli palatini in elevating the palate to occlude and prevent entry of food into the nasopharynx during swallowing. It arises by a flat lamella from the scaphoid fossa at the base of the medial pterygoid plate, from the spina angularis of the sphenoid and from the lateral wall of the cartilage of the auditory tube. Descending vertically between the medial pterygoid plate and the medial pterygoid muscle, it ends in a tendon which winds around the pterygoid hamulus, being retained in this situation by some of the fibres of origin of the medial pterygoid muscle. Between the tendon and the hamulus is a small bursa. The tendon then passes medialward and is inserted onto the palatine aponeurosis and the surface behind the transverse ridge on the horizontal part of the palatine bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 60-year old man with a left-sided indirect inguinal hernia underwent emergency surgery...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year old man with a left-sided indirect inguinal hernia underwent emergency surgery to relieve large bowel obstruction resulting from a segment of the bowel being strangulated in the hernial sac. The most likely intestinal segment involved is:

      Your Answer: Transverse colon

      Correct Answer: Sigmoid colon

      Explanation:

      The sigmoid colon is the most likely segment involved as it is mobile due to the presence of the sigmoid mesocolon. The descending colon, although on the left side, is a bit superior and is also retroperitoneal. The ascending colon and caecum are on the right side of the abdomen. The rectum is too inferior to enter the deep inguinal ring and the transverse colon is too superior to be involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The periphery of a haematoma is infiltrated by fibroblasts, collagen and new vasculature....

    Incorrect

    • The periphery of a haematoma is infiltrated by fibroblasts, collagen and new vasculature. This process is best described as?

      Your Answer: Embolization

      Correct Answer: Organisation of the haematoma

      Explanation:

      Formation of granulation tissue at the periphery of the hematoma is a normal process leading to resolution. This granulation tissue is composed of new capillaries, fibroblasts and collagen. Lysis of a blood clot can occur, but the actual process of this response is known as organization, wherein the scar tissue will become part of the vessels. This is followed by recanalization and embolization which can lead to eventual complications. Proliferation of a clot will occur due to an imbalance in the clotting and lysing systems. Thrombosis has nothing to do with the process described above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old man with no history of smoking complains of shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with no history of smoking complains of shortness of breath and persistent cough over the past 8 months. He reveals that in the 1960s he worked for several years as a boiler operator. Chest X-ray shows diffuse lung infiltrates. Which of the following is the most probable cause of these findings?

      Your Answer: Silicosis

      Correct Answer: Asbestosis

      Explanation:

      Asbestosis is a chronic lung disease which leads to long-term respiratory complications and is caused by the inhalation of asbestos fibres. Symptoms due to long exposure to asbestos usually appear 10 to 40 years after initial exposure and include shortness of breath, cough, weight loss, clubbing of the fingers and chest pain. Typical chest X-ray findings include diffuse lung infiltrates that cause the appearance of shaggy heart borders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - When a young boy falls on his outstretched hand, he fractures one of...

    Incorrect

    • When a young boy falls on his outstretched hand, he fractures one of the bones at his wrist joint. The doctors told his parents that the fractured bone has special importance as it is that bone that articulates with the distal end of the radius. Which one of the following is it?

      Your Answer: Pisiform

      Correct Answer: Scaphoid

      Explanation:

      It is the scaphoid bone that articulates with the radius at this level. It is located at the radial side of the wrist and is considered the largest bone in the proximal row of carpal bones. It articulates with the radius via its superior surface. This bone also articulates with trapezium and trapezoid bones via the inferior surface, capitate and lunate medially.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following muscles are involved in abduction of the wrist? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles are involved in abduction of the wrist?

      Your Answer: Extensor indices and supinator

      Correct Answer: Extensor carpi radialis brevis and flexor carpi radialis

      Explanation:

      The muscle of the wrist that cause abduction of the wrist otherwise also know as radial flexion of the wrist are the following:

      -Abductor Pollicis Longus

      -Flexor Carpi Radialis

      -Extensor Carpi Radialis Longus

      -Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 45-year old gentleman presents with diarrhoea for two weeks. He has no...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year old gentleman presents with diarrhoea for two weeks. He has no history of fever and the diarrhoea stops on fasting. Which is the most likely type of diarrhoea that he is suffering from?

      Your Answer: Inflammatory

      Correct Answer: Osmotic

      Explanation:

      The different types of diarrhoea are:

      1. Secretory diarrhoea – Due to increased secretion or decreased absorption. There is minimal to no structural damage in this type. The most common cause is cholera toxin which stimulates secretion of anions (especially chloride), with sodium and water.

      2. Osmotic diarrhoea – Due to increased osmotic load, there is water loss. This occurs in cases of maldigestion syndromes, such as coeliac or pancreatic disease.

      3. Motility-related diarrhoea – Occurs in cases of abnormal gastrointestinal motility. Due to increased motility, there is poor absorption and this leads to diarrhoea. This is seen post-vagotomy or in diabetic neuropathy.

      4. Inflammatory diarrhoea – Due to damage to the mucosa or brush border, there is a loss of protein-rich fluids and poor absorption. Features of all the above three types can be seen in this type. Aetiology includes bacterial, viral, parasitic infections or autoimmune problems including inflammatory bowel disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following statements regarding the femoral artery is CORRECT? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements regarding the femoral artery is CORRECT?

      Your Answer: It has the femoral nerve lying lateral to it

      Explanation:

      The femoral artery begins immediately behind the inguinal ligament, midway between the anterior superior spine of the ilium and the symphysis pubis. The first 4 cm of the vessel is enclosed, together with the femoral vein, in a fibrous sheath (the femoral sheath). The femoral nerve lies lateral to this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Driving pressure is considered to be a strong predictor of mortality in patients...

    Incorrect

    • Driving pressure is considered to be a strong predictor of mortality in patients with ARDS. What is the normal mean intravascular driving pressure for the respiratory circulation?

      Your Answer: 250 mmHg

      Correct Answer: 10 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Driving pressure is the difference between inflow and outflow pressure. For the pulmonary circulation, this is the difference between pulmonary arterial (pa) and left atrial pressure (pLA). Normally, mean driving pressure is about 10 mmHg, computed by subtracting pLA (5 mmHg) from pA (15 mmHg). This is in contrast to a mean driving pressure of nearly 100 mmHg in the systemic circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The superior ulnar collateral artery is a direct branch of this artery: ...

    Incorrect

    • The superior ulnar collateral artery is a direct branch of this artery:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brachial

      Explanation:

      The brachial artery gives rise to a small branch at the middle of the arm, which is the superior collateral artery. It descends accompanied by the ulnar nerve and anastomoses with the posterior ulnar recurrent and inferior ulnar collateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Abdomen (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (5/5) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (1/1) 100%
Pathology (2/2) 100%
Respiratory (2/2) 100%
Upper Limb (3/3) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Physiology (2/2) 100%
Lower Limb (1/1) 100%
Passmed