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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old female presents with complaints of retrosternal chest pain and dysphagia (which...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female presents with complaints of retrosternal chest pain and dysphagia (which is intermittent and unpredictable in nature). When she swallows, food very suddenly 'sticks' in her chest. She is able to clear it when she drinks water, and then can finish the meal without any further incidence. A barium meal shows she has a corkscrew oesophagus. What is the most likely type of dysphagia here?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal spasm

      Explanation:

      All of the symptoms observed in this patient are typical of uncoordinated irregular oesophageal peristalsis – this is characteristic of oesophageal spasm. The cork-screw oesophagus is also diagnostic of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old man presented with difficulty in breathing. On examination he was severely...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presented with difficulty in breathing. On examination he was severely dyspnoeic and tachycardic. What is the clinical sign that would favour the diagnosis of cardiac tamponade over constrictive pericarditis?

      Your Answer: Raised JVP

      Correct Answer: Pulsus paradoxus

      Explanation:

      Pulsus paradoxus is defined as the exaggerated fall in systolic blood pressure during inspiration by greater than 10 mmHg. Cardiac tamponade is the classic cause of pulsus paradoxus. Kussmaul’s sign (a rise in the jugular venous pressure on inspiration) is mostly seen in constrictive pericarditis. Hypotension, muffled heart sounds and raised JVP can be seen in both conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 54-year-old plumber presents with general deterioration. He drinks approximately 25 units of...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old plumber presents with general deterioration. He drinks approximately 25 units of alcohol each week and is a smoker of five cigarettes daily. Examination reveals that he is jaundiced, has numerous spider naevi on his chest and he has a temperature of 37.2°C. Abdominal examination reveals hepatosplenomegaly.

      Investigations reveal:
      Bilirubin 100 micromol/L (1-22)
      Alkaline phosphatase 310 iu/l (45 - 105)
      ALT 198 iu/l (5 - 35)
      AST 158 iu/l (1 - 31)
      Albumin 25 g/L (37 - 49)

      Hepatitis B virus surface antigen positive
      Hepatitis B virus e antigen negative
      Hepatitis B virus DNA awaited

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic hepatitis B infection

      Explanation:

      The clinical scenario describes a man in liver failure. Given the serological results, he is most likely to have a chronic hepatitis B infection. In chronic hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, +anti-HBc, (-)IgM antiHBc, and (-) anti-HBs. In acute hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, +anti-HBc, +IgM anti-HBc, and negative anti-HBs. in immunity due to natural infection, you have negative HBsAg, +anti-HBc, and + anti-HBs. In immunity due to vaccination, you have negative HBsAg, negative anti-HBc, and positive anti-HBs. While he could have a superimposed hepatitis D infection on top of hepatitis B, there is no mention of hepatitis D serology, make this an incorrect answer. The other choices do not involve hepatitis serologies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary System
      40.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 66-year-old gentleman is seen in the Emergency Department complaining of muscle weakness...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old gentleman is seen in the Emergency Department complaining of muscle weakness and lethargy. Admission bloods show the following:


      Na+ 138 mmol/l
      K+ 6.6 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate 15 mmol/l
      Urea 9.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 µmol/l

      An ECG is done which shows no acute changes.

      What is the most appropriate initial treatment to lower the serum potassium level?

      Your Answer: Insulin/dextrose infusion

      Explanation:

      Insulin/dextrose infusion will increase the activity of the sodium-potassium pump in the cells, which will in turn decrease serum potassium levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 57-year-old, alcoholic male was admitted to the medical ward for an ascitic...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old, alcoholic male was admitted to the medical ward for an ascitic tap. The ascitic fluid was found to be yellow in colour. Which of the following had most likely lead to this observation?

      Your Answer: Decompensated cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      Uncomplicated cirrhotic ascites is usually translucent. If the patient is deeply jaundiced, the fluid might appear yellow/brown.
      Turbidity or cloudiness of the ascites fluid suggests that infection is present and further diagnostic testing should be performed.
      Pink or bloody fluid is most often caused by mild trauma, with subcutaneous blood contaminating the sample.
      Bloody ascites is also associated with hepatocellular carcinoma or any malignancy-associated ascites.
      Milky-appearing fluid usually has an elevated triglyceride concentration. Such fluid, commonly referred to as chylous ascites, can be related to thoracic duct injury or obstruction or lymphoma, but it is often related primarily to cirrhosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary System
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old male presented with mild ascites due to alcoholic cirrhosis. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male presented with mild ascites due to alcoholic cirrhosis. Which of the following abnormalities is most likely present?

      Your Answer: Increased vascular resistance

      Correct Answer: Reduced urinary sodium excretion

      Explanation:

      Patients with cirrhosis are mostly hyponatraemic due to increased water retention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - High titre of which of the following antibodies is not considered diagnostic for...

    Incorrect

    • High titre of which of the following antibodies is not considered diagnostic for the mentioned disease?

      Your Answer: Anti-Sm antibodies in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid factor in rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of RA is mainly based on clinical features (e.g., morning stiffness, symmetrical joint swelling) and laboratory tests (e.g., anti-CCP). Rheumatoid factor is not very specific for this disease and hence has low reliability. X-ray findings (e.g., soft tissue swelling or joint space narrowing) occur late in the disease and are therefore not typically used for diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A woman presents with pallor and jaundice. History reveals she has been taking...

    Incorrect

    • A woman presents with pallor and jaundice. History reveals she has been taking medication to treat her acne. Which of the following medication has she been taking?

      Your Answer: Tetracycline

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Oral erythromycin is used to treat acne, and has been known to cause various degrees of hepatotoxicity in many patients. It is believed to cause liver lesions leading to hampered bile formation and cholestasis. This presents as jaundice due to the increased movement of bile into the blood instead of into the duodenum. All the other drugs mentioned here are not known to cause such hepatotoxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary System
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is correct regarding post-menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT) according...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correct regarding post-menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT) according to randomised clinical studies ?

      Your Answer: Causes regression of coronary plaques

      Correct Answer: Increases plasma triglycerides

      Explanation:

      Oestrogen therapy reduces plasma levels of LDL cholesterol and increases levels of HDL cholesterol. It can improve endothelial vascular function, however, it also has adverse physiological effects, including increasing the plasma levels of triglycerides (small dense LDL particles). Therefore, although HRT may have direct beneficial effects on cardiovascular outcomes, these effects may be reduced or balanced by the adverse physiological effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old male patient with schizophrenia complained of chest pain and palpitations. His...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male patient with schizophrenia complained of chest pain and palpitations. His ECG revealed torsades de pointes ventricular tachycardia. He was on thioridazine for schizophrenia. What is the most appropriate management for his presentation?

      Your Answer: IV magnesium

      Explanation:

      Thioridazine has a quinidine-like action on the heart and is known to cause cardiac arrhythmias including prolonged PR and QT intervals and widening of QRS complexes. Intravenous magnesium sulphate is regarded as the treatment of choice for this arrhythmia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      11.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal System (0/2) 0%
Cardiovascular System (1/2) 50%
Hepatobiliary System (2/3) 67%
Renal System (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal System (0/1) 0%
Endocrine System & Metabolism (0/1) 0%
Passmed