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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is a true statement about invasive arterial pressure monitoring?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a true statement about invasive arterial pressure monitoring?

      Your Answer: Increased resonance elevates the systolic and lower the diastolic pressures

      Explanation:

      The arterial cannula inserted should have parallel walls in order to reduce the risk of interruption of blood flow to distal limbs.

      It is essential that the monitor used to display the arterial pressure waves has a frequency capacity of 0.5-40Hz. This is because the pressure waves are a combination of different sine waves of varying frequencies and amplitudes.

      The diameter of the catheter is directly proportional to the natural frequency which is the frequency at which the system responsible for monitoring the waves resonates and amplifies the signals. This should be at least ten fold in comparison to the fundamental frequency. The diameter of the catheter is also inversely proportional to the square root of the system compliance, the tubing length and the fluid density within the system.

      The presence of an air bubble, a clot or an easily malleable diaphragm and tube can result in wave damping. Increased damping will cause a reduction in the systolic pressure, and an increase in diastolic pressure. The maximum damping value of an appropriate monitoring system would be 0.64.

      A rigid, non-malleable diaphragm and tubing can cause a resonance within the system. This resonance will result in an increase in the systolic pressure and a reduction in the diastolic pressure

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      110.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old man presents to hospital complaining of dysphagia. He is scheduled for...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents to hospital complaining of dysphagia. He is scheduled for a rigid oesophagoscopy.

      On examination, He is noted to have severe osteoarthritis in his cervical spine resulting in limited rotation and flexion-extension. He has no other neurological signs or symptoms.

      He is given anaesthesia for the procedure, which is complicated by a difficult intubation (Cormack-Lehane 3), but was eventually achieved using a gum elastic bougie.

      After recovering from anaesthesia, he is examined and found to have severe motor weakness of upper limbs, and mild motor weakness of lower limbs, bladder dysfunction and sensory loss of varying degrees below the level of C5.

      What incomplete spinal cord lesion is most likely to be responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Central cord syndrome

      Explanation:

      Central cord syndrome is the most commonly occurring type of partial spinal cord lesion. It is more likely to occur in older patients with cervical spondylosis and a hyperextension injury. The injury to the spinal cord occurs in the grey matter causing the following symptoms:

      Disproportionally higher motor function weakness in the upper limbs than in lower limbs
      Dysfunction of the bladder
      Degrees of sensory loss below the level of the lesion

      An anterior spinal artery infarction will interrupt the corticospinal tract resulting in paralysis of motor function, loss of pain and temperature sensation, all occurring below the level of the injury.

      Brown-Sequard syndrome occurs as a result of the hemisection of the spinal cord. Its symptoms include ipsilateral upper motor neurone paralysis and loss of proprioception, with contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation.

      Spinal cord infarctions rarely occur in the posterior spinal artery.

      Cauda equina syndrome occurs as a result of compression of the lumbosacral spinal nerve roots below the level of the conus medullaris. Injury to these nerves will cause partial or complete loss of movement and sensation in this distribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      200.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You have always been curious about the effects of statins. While going through...

    Correct

    • You have always been curious about the effects of statins. While going through a study, something ticks you off and makes you think that they are way more common then the data suggests and are mostly under reported. In search of some concrete evidence, you decide to conduct a study of your own. While doing research, you come across a recent study that highlights the long term effects of statins.

      Which of the following types of study could that have been?

      Your Answer: Clinical trial, Phase 4

      Explanation:

      In general practice, majority of phase 3 trials and some of the trials conducted in phase 2 are randomized. Because phase 4 trials require a huge sample size, they are not randomized as much. The primal reason behind conducting phase 3 trials is to test the efficiency and safety in a significant sample population. At this point it is assumed that the drug is effective up to a certain extent.

      During a case-control study, subjects that exhibit outcomes of interest are compared with those who don’t show the expected outcome. The extent of exposure to a particular risk factor is then matched between cases and controls. If the exposure among cases surpasses controls, it becomes a risk factor for the outcome that is being studied.

      Pilot studies are conducted on a lower and much smaller level, to assess if a randomized controlled trial of the crucial components of a study will be plausible.

      Phase 4 trials are the ones that are conducted after its established that the drug is effective and is approved by the regulating authority for use. These trials are concerned with the side effects and potential risks associated with the long term usage of the drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      873.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Arterial pressure waveforms give an indication of the operation of the heart and...

    Correct

    • Arterial pressure waveforms give an indication of the operation of the heart and the patient's clinical state.

      Which of the following listed characteristics of arterial waveforms is most indicative of myocardial contractility?

      Your Answer: Slope of the upstroke of the curve.

      Explanation:

      Arterial pressure waveforms is an invasive form of monitoring cardiac parameters. It provides a lot of information on the performance of the heart from different sections, including:

      Cardiac measurements:

      Heart rate
      Systolic pressure
      Diastolic pressure
      Mean arterial pressure
      Pulse pressure
      Change in pulse amplitude corresponding to respiratory changes
      Slope of anacrotic limb associated with aortic stenosis

      From the shape of the arterial waveform displayed:

      Slope of anacrotic limb represents aortic valve and LVOT flow
      Indications of aortic stenosis (AS): Slurred wave, collapsing wave
      Rapid systolic decline in LVOTO
      Bisferiens wave in HOCM
      Low dicrotic notch in states with poor peripheral resistance
      Position and quality of dicrotic notch as a reflection of the damping coefficient

      For this question, the upstroke slope of the pressure wave is indicative of myocardial contractility and is mathematically represented as:

      dP/dt, which represents a change of pressure with regards to time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      581.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old man, has been scheduled for a splenectomy. For this procedure, he...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man, has been scheduled for a splenectomy. For this procedure, he requires a urethral catheter.

      Where does resistance first occur during the insertion of a catheter?

      Your Answer: Membranous urethra

      Explanation:

      The membranous urethra is the shortest part of the urethra and the least dilatable part of it.

      This is as a result of it being surrounded by the external urethral sphincter which is made up of striated muscle and controls voluntary urine flow from the bladder to the urethra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is true in the Kreb's cycle? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true in the Kreb's cycle?

      Your Answer: Alpha-ketoglutarate is a five carbon molecule

      Explanation:

      Krebs’ cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle) is a sequence of reactions to release stored energy through oxidation of acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA). Some of the products are carbon dioxide and hydrogen atoms.

      The sequence of reactions, known collectively as oxidative phosphorylation, only occurs in the mitochondria (not cytoplasm).

      The Krebs cycle can only take place when oxygen is present, though it does not require oxygen directly, because it relies on the by-products from the electron transport chain, which requires oxygen. It is therefore considered an aerobic process. It is the common pathway for the oxidation of carbohydrate, fat and some amino acids, required for the formation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

      Pyruvate enters the mitochondria and is converted into acetyl-CoA. Acetyl-CoA is then condensed with oxaloacetate, to form citrate which is a six carbon molecule. Citrate is subsequently converted into isocitrate, alpha-ketoglutarate, succinyl-CoA, succinate, fumarate, malate and finally oxaloacetate.

      The only five carbon molecule in the cycle is Alpha-ketoglutarate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A current flows through a simple electric circuit.

    Which of the following electrical component...

    Correct

    • A current flows through a simple electric circuit.

      Which of the following electrical component configurations has the greatest potential difference?

      Your Answer: Two 5 ohm resistors in series with a passing current of 10 ampere

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      123.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 20-year-old woman, presented to her GP after swallowing a tiny, sharp bone...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman, presented to her GP after swallowing a tiny, sharp bone and is referred to an ENT. She explains that the bone feels stuck in her throat. A laryngoscopy is performed and it shows the bone is lodged in the piriform recess.

      Name the nerve at highest risk of damage by the bone?

      Your Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The internal laryngeal nerve lies inferior to the piriform recess mucous membrane, placing it at high risk of irritation or damage by sharp foreign objects which become lodged in the recess.

      Any attempt to retrieve lodged foreign objects must be done careful as there is also a high risk of damage during this process.

      The other mentioned nerves are not at risk of being affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      249.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which measure of central tendency is most useful for a continuous, non-skewed data?...

    Correct

    • Which measure of central tendency is most useful for a continuous, non-skewed data?

      Your Answer: Mean

      Explanation:

      Mean, also known as the average, is the most common measure of central tendency. It is the sum of all observed values divided by the number of observation. It is not useful for skewed data, which has an abnormal distribution. It is useful, instead, for numerical data that have symmetric distribution. It reflects the contributions of each data in the group, and are sensitive to outliers.

      The median is the value that falls in the middle position when the observations are ranked in order from the smallest to the largest. If the number of observations is odd, the median is the middle number. If it is even, the median is the average of the two middle numbers. Unlike the mean, the median is useful on skewed data, and can be used for ordinal or numerical data if skewed.

      The mode is the value that occurs with the greatest frequency in a set of observations, and is utilized for bimodal distribution.

      The variance and the standard deviation are not measures of central tendency, but of dispersion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      230.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Your manager asks you to inform patients that are suffering from a chronic...

    Correct

    • Your manager asks you to inform patients that are suffering from a chronic pain about a trial that is going to be conducted in order to determine the efficacy of a novel analgesic. What phase is the trial currently in?

      Your Answer: Phase 2

      Explanation:

      Phase 0 trials assist the scientists in studying the behaviour of drugs in humans by micro dosing patients. They are used to speed up the developmental process. They have no measurable therapeutic effect and efficiency.

      Phase 1 is associated with assessing whether a drug is safe to use or not. The process is extensive and can take up to several months. It also involves healthy participants (less than 100) that are paid to take part in the study. The side effects upon increasing dosage are also addressed by the study. The effects the drug has on humans including how its absorbed, metabolized and excreted are studied. Approximately 70% of the drugs pass this phase.

      Phase 2 trials involve patients that are suffering from the disease under study and are associated with determining the efficiency and the optimum dosage of the drug.

      Phase 3 also assesses the efficacy but at a higher scale with larger population sample.

      Phase 4 trials are involved with the long term effects and side effects of the drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Radical prostatectomy is being performed on a 60-year-old man for carcinoma of the...

    Correct

    • Radical prostatectomy is being performed on a 60-year-old man for carcinoma of the prostate gland.

      What is the direct blood supply of the prostate?

      Your Answer: Inferior vesical artery

      Explanation:

      The prostate gland is primarily supplied by the inferior vesical artery, which branches off from the anterior division of the internal iliac artery. The inferior vesical artery supplies the base of the bladder, the distal ureters, and the prostate. The branches to the prostate communicate with the corresponding vessels of the opposite side.

      The inferior vesical artery branches into two main arteries:
      1. Urethral artery – supplies the transition zone and is the main arterial supply for the adenomas in BPH
      2. Capsular artery – supplies the glandular tissue

      The venous drainage of the prostate is from the prostatic venous plexus, which drains into the paravertebral veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You're summoned to the emergency room, where a 39-year-old man has been admitted...

    Correct

    • You're summoned to the emergency room, where a 39-year-old man has been admitted following a cardiac arrest. He was rescued from a river, but little else is known about him.

      CPR is being performed on the patient, who has been intubated. He's received three DC shocks and is still in VF. A rectal temperature of 29.5°C is taken with a low-reading thermometer.

      Which of the following statements about his resuscitation is correct?

      Your Answer: No further DC shocks and no drugs should be given until his core temperature is greater than 30°C

      Explanation:

      The guidelines for the management of cardiac arrest in hypothermic patients published by the UK Resuscitation Council differ slightly from the standard algorithm.

      In a patient with a core temperature of less than 30°C, do the following:

      If you’re on the shockable side of the algorithm (VF/VT), you should give three DC shocks.
      Further shocks are not recommended until the patient has been rewarmed to a temperature of more than 30°C because the rhythm is refractory and unlikely to change.
      There should be no drugs given because they will be ineffective.

      In a patient with a core temperature of 30°C to 35°C, do the following:

      DC shocks are used as usual.
      Because they are metabolised much more slowly, the time between drug doses should be doubled.

      Active rewarming and protection against hyperthermia should be given to the patient.

      Option e is false because there is insufficient information to determine whether resuscitation should be stopped.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      325.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The external laryngeal nerve is responsible for the innervation of which of the...

    Correct

    • The external laryngeal nerve is responsible for the innervation of which of the following muscles?

      Your Answer: Cricothyroid

      Explanation:

      The external laryngeal nerve arises from the superior laryngeal nerve and provides innervation to the cricothyroid muscle.

      The other muscles mentioned receive their innervations from the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - An elderly man complains of a vague lump near his stomach to his...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly man complains of a vague lump near his stomach to his physician. On examination, the lump is visible on coughing and is found within Hesselbach's triangle.

      Which of the following is true regarding the borders for this triangle?

      Your Answer: Inguinal ligament inferiorly, inferior epigastric vessels laterally, pubic tubercle medially

      Correct Answer: Inguinal ligament inferiorly, inferior epigastric vessels laterally, lateral border of rectus sheath medially

      Explanation:

      The inguinal triangle of Hesselbach is an important clinical landmark on the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. It has the following relations:
      Inferiorly – medial third of the inguinal ligament
      Medially – lower lateral border of the rectus abdominis
      Laterally – inferior epigastric vessels

      Direct inguinal hernia is when the bowel bulges directly through the abdominal wall. These hernias usually protrude through Hesselbach’s triangle

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 57-year old woman, presents to her general practitioner. She has a 2...

    Correct

    • A 57-year old woman, presents to her general practitioner. She has a 2 week history of a vaginal hysterectomy for which she was placed under general anaesthesia.

      On examination, she has notable weakness of dorsiflexion of her left foot and a high stepping gait.

      Which nerve was most likely injured during her surgery?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The common peroneal (fibular) nerve is a peripheral nerve in the lower limb. It arises of the L4-S2 nerve roots and has sensory and motor innervations:

      Sensory: Provides innervation of the lateral leg and foot dorsum.

      Motor: Provides innervation of the short head of the biceps femoris, as well as muscles of the anterior and lateral leg compartments.

      It is the most commonly damaged nerve in the lower extremity, as it is easily compressed by a plaster cast or injured when the fibula is fractured.

      Damage to the common peroneal nerve will result in loss of dorsiflexion at ankle (footdrop, as feet are permanently plantarflexed), with the accompanying high stepping gait.

      The saphenous and sural nerve only provide sensory innervation.

      The tibial nerve arises from the sciatic nerve (like the common peroneal), but it provides motor innervation to the posterior leg compartments and intrinsic foot muscles. Injury to the tibial nerve will cause loss of plantar flexion, toe flexion and weakened foot inversion.

      Extreme hip flexion into the lithotomy or Lloyd-Davies position can result in stretch damage to the neurones (sciatic and obturator nerves) or by applying direct pressure (femoral nerve compression).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      278.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia are exponential.

    What is the...

    Correct

    • Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia are exponential.

      What is the underlying mathematical principle of an exponential process?

      Your Answer: The rate of change of x is dependent on the magnitude of x

      Explanation:

      The magnitude of x determines the rate of change of x. First-order drug kinetics is a good example. Most drugs’ plasma levels are controlled by an exponential process. The rate of change in drug metabolism is proportional to the current plasma concentration (so-called non-linear kinetics).

      A tear-away function is just one type of exponential relationship (y = ex), in which e is Euler’s number, x is the power, and e is the base. Natural logarithms rely on Euler’s number.

      Euler’s number is a mathematical constant, not a mathematical principle. It’s referred to as an irrational number. This is a number that cannot be expressed as a simple fraction or a ratio.

      A line or curve that acts as the limit of another line or curve is known as an asymptote. A washout exponential curve, for example, where the value y represents the plasma concentration of a drug in a single compartment model against time on the x axis. This descending curve approaches but never touches the x axis. This curve is asymptotic to the x axis, which is the curve’s asymptote. An asymptote isn’t just a characteristic of exponential curves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which one is true with respect to the first rib? ...

    Correct

    • Which one is true with respect to the first rib?

      Your Answer: Scalenus anterior is inserted onto the scalene tubercle

      Explanation:

      Specific knowledge of the anatomical relationship is required to address this examination question.

      The first rib is small and thick and contains a single facet that articulates at the costovertebral joint. It consist of a head, neck and shaft but a discrete angle is deficit. Along the side the shaft is indented with a groove for the subclavian artery and the lower brachial plexus trunk. Front to the scalene tubercle is a space for the subclavian vein.

      The first rib has the scalenus front muscle joined to the scalene tubercle, isolating the subclavian vein (anteriorly) from the subclavian artery (posteriorly). This anatomical relationship is of major significance with respect to subclavian vein cannulation.

      The 1st rib has the following relationships:

      superior: lower trunk of the brachial plexus, subclavian vessels, clavicle.

      inferior: intercostal vessels and nerves

      posterior and inferior: pleura

      anterior: sympathetic trunk (over neck)

      superior intercostal artery, ventral T1 nerve root

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      76
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Regarding a drug whose elimination exhibits first-order kinetics, which of the following statements...

    Correct

    • Regarding a drug whose elimination exhibits first-order kinetics, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: The rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration

      Explanation:

      The elimination of phenytoin follows first order kinetics. Plasma concentrations determine the rate of elimination. The relationship between drug X plasma concentration and time is described by an exponential process in the following equation used to describe the rate of elimination:

      C = C0. e-kt

      C=drug concentration, C0= drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated), k = rate constant and t=time

      As enzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations are above the usual range, clearance of the medication becomes zero-order. The medication is metabolised at a constant pace, regardless of its plasma levels. Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are two more significant examples of medications that operate in this way.

      A plot of drug concentration with time is a washout exponential curve.

      A graph of concentration with time is a straight line i.e. Zero-order kinetics

      The amount eliminated per unit time is constant defines the point at which zero order kinetics commences.

      Elimination involves a rate-limiting reaction operating at its maximal velocity is incorrect.

      The half life of the drug is proportional to the drug concentration in the plasma corresponds to a definition of first-order kinetics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 20-year-old female presents to the emergency department. She complains of increased shortness...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old female presents to the emergency department. She complains of increased shortness of breath and wheezing over the last 48 hours. On examination, she is found to have tachycardia, tachypnoea, and oxygen saturation at 91% on air. She admits to a previous medical history of asthma, diagnosed 4 years ago. She requires further investigations for diagnosis.

      Which of the following is true about the assessment of a patient with symptomatic asthma?

      Your Answer: Oxygen saturations of 91% on air would be an indication for performing arterial blood gases

      Explanation:

      A patient presenting with symptomatic asthma should be assessed for severity to determine appropriate management options. Indications of acute severe asthma are:

      Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR): 33-50% best/predicted
      Respiratory rate: ≥25/min
      Heart rate: ≥110/min
      Inability to finish a complete sentence in a single breath.

      Oxygen saturation should be measured. Any measurement of an oxygen saturation of 92% or less, either on air or on oxygen, indicates severe, life threatening asthma, and requires an arterial blood gas (ABG) to detect normo- or hypercarbia.

      A chest x-ray would not be routine as it will not provide any relevant information. It is only required in specific cases, including:
      Diagnosis of a subcutaneous emphysema
      Indications of a unilateral pneumothorax
      Indications of a lobar collapse of consolidation
      Treatment-resistance life-threatening asthma
      If mechanical ventilation is indicated

      A peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) can provide relevant information to help distinguish between acute, moderate, severe and life threatening asthma. However, it is not necessary as other parameters exist that can also help make the same distinction.

      An ECG is indicated in this case as the patient has tachycardia and tachypnoea which are indicative of acute severe asthma. The ECG would indicate if arrhythmia is also present which would suggest life-threatening asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      174.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 47-year old man and known alcoholic suffered a fall that resulted to...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year old man and known alcoholic suffered a fall that resulted to a fracture on his right leg. Radiographic imaging showed a fractured tibial shaft. Following surgery, you were instructed to prescribe intravenous paracetamol as an analgesic.

      If the patient weighs 49 kg, which of the following would be the best regimen for the patient?

      Your Answer: 1 g with a maximum daily dose not exceeding 4 g

      Correct Answer: 15 mg/kg with a maximum daily dose of 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 3 g)

      Explanation:

      A stock dose of Intravenous paracetamol available in the market is 10mg/ml. There is a recommended dose of IV paracetamol according to the profile of the patient (age, co-morbidities, weight).

      Weight Recommended Dose Maximum per day
      ≤10 kg 7.5 mg/kg 30 mg/kg
      >10 kg to ≤33 kg 15 mg/kg 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 2 g)
      >33 kg to ≤50 kg 15 mg/kg 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 3 g)
      >50 kg with additional risk factors for hepatotoxicity 1g 3 g
      >50 kg with no additional risk factors for hepatotoxicity 1g 4 g

      Special precaution must be observed for patients with hepatocellular insufficiency. The maximum dose per day should not exceed 3g.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      471.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A log-dose response curve is plotted after drug A is given. The shape...

    Correct

    • A log-dose response curve is plotted after drug A is given. The shape of this curve is sigmoid, with a maximum response of 100%.

      The log-dose response curve of drug A shifts to the right with a maximum response of 100 percent when drug B is administered.

      What does this mean in terms of drug B?

      Your Answer: Drug B has affinity for the receptor but has no intrinsic efficacy

      Explanation:

      Drug A is a pure agonist for the receptor, with high intrinsic efficacy and affinity, according to the log-dose response curve.

      Drug B, on the other hand, works as a competitive antagonist. It binds to the receptor but has no inherent efficacy. Drug A’s efficacy will not change, but its potency will be reduced.

      A partial agonist is a drug with partial intrinsic efficacy and affinity for the receptor. Giving a partial agonist after a pure agonist will not increase receptor occupancy or decrease receptor activity, and thus will not affect drug A’s efficacy. The inverse agonist flumazenil can reverse all benzodiazepines.

      An inverse agonist is a drug that binds to the receptor but has the opposite pharmacological effect.

      A non-competitive antagonist is a drug that has affinity for a receptor but has different pharmacological effects and reduces the efficacy of an agonist for that receptor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      438.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 77-year-old woman is scheduled for day case cataract surgery under local anaesthesia....

    Correct

    • A 77-year-old woman is scheduled for day case cataract surgery under local anaesthesia. She has no cardiac or respiratory problems. Lisinopril is being used to treat her hypertension, which is under control.

      Which of the following preoperative investigations are the most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: No investigations

      Explanation:

      Because the patient has mild systemic disease, he is ASA 2 and the procedure will be performed under local anaesthesia.

      The following factors should be considered when requesting preoperative investigations:

      Indications derived from a preliminary clinical examination
      Whether or not a general anaesthetic will be used, the possibility of asymptomatic abnormalities, and the scope of the surgery.

      No special investigations are needed if the patient has no history of significant systemic disease and no abnormal findings on examination during the nurse-led assessment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      647.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following statements is the most correct about ketamine? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is the most correct about ketamine?

      Your Answer: The S (+) isomer is more potent that the R (-) isomer

      Explanation:

      Ketamine, a phencyclidine derivative, is an antagonist at the NMDA receptor. It causes depression of the CNS that is dose dependent and induces a dissociative anaesthetic state with profound analgesia and amnesia.

      Ketamine has a chiral centre usually presented as a racemic mixture with two optical isomers, S (+) and R (-) forms. These isomers are in equal proportions. The S (+) isomer is about three times more potent than the R (-) form. The S (+) form is less likely to cause emergence delirium and hallucinations.

      Ketamine is extensively metabolised by hepatic microsomal cytochrome P450 enzymes producing norketamine as its main metabolite. Norketamine has a one third to one fifth as potency as its parent compound.
      It increases the CMRO2, cerebral blood flow and potentially increase intracranial pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      869.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - An 80-year-old man will be operated on for an arterial bypass procedure to...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man will be operated on for an arterial bypass procedure to treat claudication and foot ulceration. The anterior tibial artery will be the target for distal arterial anastomosis.

      Which structure is NOT closely related to the anterior tibial artery?

      Your Answer: Interosseous membrane

      Correct Answer: Tibialis posterior

      Explanation:

      The anterior tibial artery originates from the distal border of the popliteus. In the posterior compartment, it passes between the heads of the tibialis posterior and the oval aperture of the interosseous membrane to reach the anterior compartment.

      On entry into the anterior compartment, it runs medially along the deep peroneal nerve.
      The upper third of the artery courses between the tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus muscles, while the middle third runs between the tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus muscles.

      At the ankle, the anterior tibial artery is located approximately midway between the malleoli. It continues on the dorsum of the foot, lateral to extensor hallucis longus, as the dorsalis pedis artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      135.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 49-year-old female has presented to her physician with complaints of a lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old female has presented to her physician with complaints of a lump in her groin area. The lump is painless and is more prominent in coughing.
      On examination, the lump's location is inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle. This points towards the diagnosis of femoral hernia, where part of her intestines has entered the femoral canal, causing a bulge in the femoral triangle. The femoral triangle is an anatomical region in the upper thigh.

      Name the structures found in the femoral triangle, laterally to medially.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein, empty space, lymphatics

      Explanation:

      The femoral triangle is a wedge-shaped area found within the superomedial aspect of the anterior thigh. It is a passageway for structures to leave and enter the anterior thigh.

      Superior: Inguinal ligament
      Medial: Adductor longus
      Lateral: Sartorius
      Floor: Iliopsoas, adductor longus and pectineus

      The contents include: (medial to lateral)
      Femoral vein
      Femoral artery-pulse palpated at the mid inguinal point
      Femoral nerve
      Deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes
      Lateral cutaneous nerve
      Great saphenous vein
      Femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 26 - A 60-year-old man, presents to the emergency department with crushing pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man, presents to the emergency department with crushing pain in the central chest area, which radiates to his left arm and jaw. He also reports feelings of nausea with no other symptoms. Elevation of the ST-segment is noted in multiple chest leads upon ECG, leading to a diagnosis of ST-elevation MI.

      What vessel gives rise to the coronary vessels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ascending aorta

      Explanation:

      The above mentioned patient presentation is one of an acute coronary syndrome.

      The elevations noted in the ST-segments of multiple heart leads on ECG is diagnostic of an ST-elevation myocardial infarction.

      The pulmonary artery branches to give rise to the right and left pulmonary arteries, which supply deoxygenated blood to the right and left lungs from the right ventricle.

      The pulmonary veins do not form any bifurcations, and therefore do not give rise to any vessels. They travel to the left atrium from the lungs, carrying oxygenated blood.

      The descending aorta continues from the aortic arch, and bifurcates to give off many branches, including the right and left common iliac arteries.

      The coronary sinus is formed from the combination of four coronary veins, receiving blood supply from the great, middle, small and posterior cardiac veins, and transporting this venous blood into the right atrium.

      The right and left aortic sinus give rise to the right and left coronary arteries, respectively. They branch of the ascending aorta, in the area just superior to the aortic valve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 27 - A 31-year old Caucasian female came into the emergency department due to difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year old Caucasian female came into the emergency department due to difficulty of breathing. History revealed exposure to room odorizes that are rich in alkyl nitrites. Upon physical examination, patient is tachypnoeic at 32 breaths per minute, desaturated at 88% while on a non-rebreather mask at 15 litres per minute oxygen. She was also noted to be cyanotic, however with clear breath sounds.

      Considering the history, what is the most probable cause of her difficulty of breathing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased affinity of bound oxygen to haemoglobin

      Explanation:

      Amyl nitrate is part of the treatment of cyanide poisoning. The short acting nitrate causes oxidation of Fe2+ in haemoglobin to Fe3+ in methaemoglobin. Methaemoglobin combines with cyanide (cyanmethemoglobin), which reacts with sodium thiosulfate to convert nontoxic thiocyanate and methaemoglobin.

      Methaemoglobin is formed when the iron in haemoglobin is converted from the reduced state (Fe2+) to the oxidized state (Fe3+). The oxidized form of haemoglobin (Fe3+) does not bind oxygen as readily as Fe2+, but has high affinity for cyanide. It also results to high affinity of bound oxygen to haemoglobin, thus leading to tissue hypoxia. Arterial oxygen tension is normal despite observations of cyanosis and dyspnoea. Methemoglobinemia can be treated with methylene blue and vitamin C.

      Carboxyhaemoglobin can be due to carbon monoxide poisoning. In such cases, patients experience headache and dizziness, but do not develop cyanosis.

      2,3-diphosphoglycerate causes a shift in the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, decreasing haemoglobin’s affinity to oxygen to facilitate unloading of oxygen to the tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old female is having her central venous pressure (CVP) measured. A long...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female is having her central venous pressure (CVP) measured. A long femoral line was inserted that passes from the common iliac vein into the inferior vena cava.

      At which level of vertebra does this occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L5

      Explanation:

      The inferior vena cava is formed by the union of the right and left common iliac veins. This occurs at the L5 vertebral level. The IVC courses along the right anterolateral side of the vertebral column and ascends through the central tendon of the diaphragm at the T8 vertebral level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following statement is true about Loop diuretics? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true about Loop diuretics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Are useful in the treatment of acute heart failure

      Explanation:

      Loop diuretics act by causing inhibition of Na+ K+ 2Cl– symporter present at the luminal membrane of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.

      Furosemide, torsemide, bumetanide, ethacrynic acid, furosemide, piretanide, tripamide, and mersalyl are the important members of this group

      The main use of loop diuretics is to remove the oedema fluid in renal, hepatic, or cardiac diseases. Thus they are useful in the treatment of acute heart failure. These can be administered i.v. for prompt relief of acute pulmonary oedema (due to vasodilatory action).

      Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia, hyponatremia, alkalosis, hyperglycaemia, hyperuricemia, and dyslipidaemia are seen with both thiazides as well as loop diuretics

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 30 - A 25-year old lady is in the operating room and has had general...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year old lady is in the operating room and has had general anaesthesia for a knee arthroscopy.

      Induction was done with fentanyl 1mcg/kg and propofol 2mg/kg. A supra-glottic airway was inserted and using and air oxygen mixture with 2.5% sevoflurane, her anaesthesia was maintained. The patient is allowed to spontaneously breathe using a Bain circuit, and the fresh gas flow is 9L/min. Over the next 30 minutes, the end-tidal Co2 rises from 4.5kPa to 8.4kPa, and the baseline reading on the capnograph is 0kPa.

      The most appropriate initial action is which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoventilation

      Explanation:

      The commonest and most likely cause of a gradual rise in end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) occurring during anaesthesia in a spontaneously breathing patient is hypoventilation. This occurs from the respiratory depressant effects of the opioid and sevoflurane.

      Malignant hyperthermia should be sought if the EtCO2 shows further progressive rise.

      Causes of rebreathing and a rise in the baseline of the capnograph can be caused by exhausted soda lime and inadequate fresh gas flow into the Bain circuit.

      A sudden rise in EtCO2 can be caused deflation of the tourniquet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Measurement (4/4) 100%
Pathophysiology (2/2) 100%
Statistical Methods (3/3) 100%
Anatomy (5/7) 71%
Physiology (2/2) 100%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (1/1) 100%
Basic Physics (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (3/4) 75%
Passmed