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  • Question 1 - A 34-year-old woman with pelvic inflammatory disease is administered ceftriaxone. The subclass of...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman with pelvic inflammatory disease is administered ceftriaxone. The subclass of antibiotics that ceftriaxone belongs to is:

      Your Answer: Third-generation cephalosporins

      Explanation:

      Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic. It has a broad spectrum of activity against Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. Its indications include middle ear infections, endocarditis, meningitis, pneumonia, bone and joint infections, intra-abdominal infections, skin infections, urinary tract infections, gonorrhoea, and pelvic inflammatory disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 45-year old male, who was a chronic smoker presented to the clinic...

    Correct

    • A 45-year old male, who was a chronic smoker presented to the clinic with backache and dry, incessant cough. On examination, he was found to have raised blood pressure, purplish striae on his abdomen, truncal obesity and tenderness over the lower thoracic spine. These findings are suggestive of which condition?

      Your Answer: Small-cell anaplastic (oat cell) carcinoma

      Explanation:

      The symptoms suggest Cushing syndrome due to increased glucocorticoid levels. One cause of Cushing syndrome is ectopic production of adrenocorticotrophic hormone from oat cell carcinoma. As oat cell carcinoma is known to be highly metastatic, the tenderness in lower back could represent metastatic involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      111.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Calculate the total peripheral resistance for a patient with a blood pressure of...

    Incorrect

    • Calculate the total peripheral resistance for a patient with a blood pressure of 130/70 mm HG and cardiac output of 5 litres / min?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 18 mmHg × min/l

      Explanation:

      Total peripheral resistance = Mean arterial pressure/Cardiac output. And the mean arterial pressure = Diastolic pressure + 1/3 (Systolic pressure – Diastolic pressure), i.e., 70 + 1/3 (130-70) = 90 mmHg. Therefore, total peripheral resistance = 90 mmHg/5 l per min = 18 mmHg × min/l.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - During routine laboratory tests, a 66-year-old man is found to be suffering from...

    Incorrect

    • During routine laboratory tests, a 66-year-old man is found to be suffering from hypercholesterolaemia and is prescribed atorvastatin. What is the mechanism of action of atorvastatin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits cholesterol synthesis

      Explanation:

      Atorvastatin is a member of the drug class of statins, used for lowering cholesterol. The mode of action of statins is inhibition of 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase. This enzyme is needed by the body to make cholesterol. The primary uses of atorvastatin is for the treatment of dyslipidaemia and the prevention of cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which muscle is responsible for directing the gaze downward when the eye is...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle is responsible for directing the gaze downward when the eye is abducted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior rectus muscle

      Explanation:

      The inferior rectus muscle is a muscle in the orbit. As with most of the muscles of the orbit, it is innervated by the inferior division of oculomotor nerve (Cranial Nerve III). It depresses, adducts, and helps laterally rotate the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A patient who underwent emergency appendicectomy complains of having numbness (paraesthesia) of the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who underwent emergency appendicectomy complains of having numbness (paraesthesia) of the skin at the pubic region. Which nerve was most likely injured in the operation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iliohypogastric

      Explanation:

      The iliohypogastric nerve comes from L1 and emerges from the upper part of the lateral border of the psoas major. It then crosses obliquely in front of the quadratus lumborum to the iliac crest where it perforates the posterior part of transversus abdominis and divides between that muscle and the internal oblique into a lateral and an anterior cutaneous branch. This provides sensory innervation to the skin of the lower abdominal wall, upper hip and upper thigh.

      The genitofemoral nerve also comes from the lumbar plexus that innervates the skin of the anterior scrotum or labia majora and upper medial thigh.

      The subcostal nerve is the ventral primary ramus of T12 providing sensory innervation to the anterolateral abdominal wall in an area superior to the pubic region.

      A spinal nerve owing to their deep location would not have been injured in the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 36-year old gentleman with a history of cough for 4 weeks came...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year old gentleman with a history of cough for 4 weeks came to the hospital. Examination revealed multiple lymphadenopathy with splenomegaly. Investigations revealed haemoglobin 11 g/dl, haematocrit 32.4%, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 93 fl, white blood cell count 63 × 109/l, and platelet count 39 × 109/l; along with characteristic Auer rods on peripheral blood smear. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute myelogenous leukaemia (AML)

      Explanation:

      AML, or acute myeloid leukaemia is the commonest acute leukaemia affecting adults. increasing in incidence with age. It is a malignancy of the myeloid line of white blood cells. It results in rapid proliferation of abnormal cells, which accumulate in the marrow. Interference with normal cell production leads to a drop in red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets. This causes symptoms such as tiredness, shortness of breath, tendency to bleed or bruise easily and recurrent infections. AML is known to progress quickly and can lead to death in weeks and months if not treated. Leukemic blasts of AML show presence of Auer rods. These are clumps of azurophilic granular material that form needles in the cytoplasm. Composed of fused lysosomes, these contain peroxidase, lysosomal enzymes and crystalline inclusions. Auer rods are classically present in myeloid blasts of M1, M2, M3 and M4 acute leukaemia. They also help to distinguish the preleukemia myelodysplastic syndromes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which one of the following muscles is innervated by the facial nerve? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following muscles is innervated by the facial nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buccinator

      Explanation:

      Buccinator is a muscle of facial expression and is therefore innervated by the facial nerve. The lateral pterygoid, masseter, anterior belly of digastric and temporalis are all muscles of mastication and therefore innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck; Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Endometrial hyperplasia is most likely to be associated with which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Endometrial hyperplasia is most likely to be associated with which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fibrothecoma

      Explanation:

      A benign tumour arising from the ovarian stroma, fibrothecoma are bilateral in 10% cases. The thecoma component of the tumour can produce oestrogen leading to endometrial hyperplasia. The thecoma is rich in lipid content and is responsible for the yellowish appearance of the tumour. Meig’s syndrome is the presence of fibrothecoma with a right-sided hydrothorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25 year-old female medical student presents with fever, lack of appetite, rashes,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year-old female medical student presents with fever, lack of appetite, rashes, sore throat and lymphadenopathy. Peripheral smear shows atypical lymphocytes. Which is the most likely organism responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epstein–Barr virus

      Explanation:

      Epstein-Barr virus is in the herpes family of viruses and most people will become infected with EBV sometime during their lives. EBV commonly causes infectious mononucleosis, or mono, a contagious viral illness that initially attacks the lymph nodes in the neck and throat. When these tissues become less effective in fighting infection, sore throats, swelling of the nodes and fever may result.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathology (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
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