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  • Question 1 - Which of the following two cerebral veins join up to form the great...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following two cerebral veins join up to form the great cerebral vein, otherwise also known as the great vein of Galen?

      Your Answer: Superficial cerebral veins

      Correct Answer: Internal cerebral veins

      Explanation:

      The great vein of Galen or great cerebral vein, is formed by the union of the internal cerebral veins and the basal veins of Rosenthal. This vein curves upwards and backwards along the border of the splenium of the corpus callosum and eventually drains into the inferior sagittal sinus and straight sinus at its anterior extremity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      48
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old smoker presents with painless haematuria, urinary frequency and urgency. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old smoker presents with painless haematuria, urinary frequency and urgency. He is diagnosed with bladder cancer. Which is the most likely type?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      90% of bladder cancers are transitional cell carcinomas derived from the bladder urothelium. Risk factors include industrial chemicals, smoking and infection. Schistosomiasis and bladder stones predispose to the squamous cell variety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 70-year old man who is suspected to have a perforated colonic diverticulum...

    Correct

    • A 70-year old man who is suspected to have a perforated colonic diverticulum is explored in theatre through a midline incision. This incision will be through the:

      Your Answer: Linea alba

      Explanation:

      The linea alba is the point where this incision was made. It is a tendinous raphe in the midline of the abdomen extending between the xiphoid process and the symphysis pubis. It is placed between the medial borders of the recti and is formed by the blending of the aponeuroses of the external and internal obliques and transversi.

      The linea aspera is a vertical ridge on the posterior surface of the femur.

      The arcuate line is the inferior border of the posterior rectus sheath behind the rectus abdominis muscle.

      The semilunar line is the lateral margin of the rectus abdominis.

      The iliopectineal line is a line on the pelvic bones formed by the arcuate line of the ilium and the pectineal line of the pubis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The midgut loop, also called the primary intestinal loop in a developing embryo,...

    Incorrect

    • The midgut loop, also called the primary intestinal loop in a developing embryo, is formed when the midgut bends around which of the following arteries?

      Your Answer: Splenic

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric

      Explanation:

      In a developing foetus, the midgut develops to form most of the intestines. During this development process, the midgut usually bends around the superior mesenteric artery and forms what is referred to as the midgut loop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) has less side effects than heparin and is...

    Incorrect

    • Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) has less side effects than heparin and is used in the prophylaxis and treatment of venous and arterial thrombotic disorders. Which of the following is LMWHs mechanism of action?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of antithrombin III

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of factor Xa

      Explanation:

      Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is a anticoagulant that differs from normal heparin in that it has only short chains of polysaccharide. LMWH inhibits thrombin formation by converting antithrombin from a slow to a rapid inactivator of coagulation factor Xa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The operating surgeon notices a structure lying alongside a herniated mass whilst repairing...

    Incorrect

    • The operating surgeon notices a structure lying alongside a herniated mass whilst repairing an indirect inguinal hernia in a female patient. Which structure could this be?

      Your Answer: Inferior epigastric artery

      Correct Answer: Round ligament of the uterus

      Explanation:

      The main structure traversing the inguinal canal in women is the round ligament. In men, it is the spermatic cord.

      The iliohypogastric nerve innervates the abdominal wall and runs between the transversus abdominis and internal oblique muscles before piercing the internal oblique at the anterior superior iliac spine to run between the internal and external obliques.

      The inferior epigastric artery is between the peritoneum and the transversus abdominis creating the lateral umbilical fold.

      The ovarian artery and the ovarian vein are branches from the descending aorta and inferior vena cava that supply the ovary in the pelvic cavity.

      The pectineal ligament is a thick fascial layer over the pectineal line of the pubis. It doesn’t traverse the canal.

      The broad ligament if found on the lateral sides of the uterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Following an accident, a man was unable to extend the wrist and metacarpophalangeal...

    Correct

    • Following an accident, a man was unable to extend the wrist and metacarpophalangeal joints, despite sensation being intact. Which nerve was likely damaged?

      Your Answer: Posterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      The posterior interosseous nerve which causes, what is known as the posterior interosseous nerve syndrome. The nerve is compressed before it bifurcates to form the medial and lateral branches. The compression is beyond the origin of the branches to the radial wrist extensors and the radial sensory nerve. The result of such a case is paralysis of the digital extensors and the extensor carpi ulnaris, resulting in dorsoradial deviation of the wrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is the cause of flattened (notched) T waves on...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the cause of flattened (notched) T waves on electrocardiogram (ECG)?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      The T-wave is formed due to ventricular repolarisation. Normally, it is seen as a positive wave. It can be normally inverted (negative) in V1 (occasionally in V2-3 in African-Americans/Afro-Caribbeans). Hyperacute T-waves are the earliest ECG change of acute myocardial infarction. ECG findings of hyperkalaemia include high, tent-shaped T-waves, a small P-wave and a wide QRS complex. Hypokalaemia results in flattened (notched) T-waves, U-waves, ST-segment depression and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A new-born was found to have an undeveloped spiral septum in the heart....

    Incorrect

    • A new-born was found to have an undeveloped spiral septum in the heart. This is characteristic of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Overriding aorta

      Correct Answer: Persistent truncus arteriosus

      Explanation:

      Persistent truncus arteriosus is a congenital heart disease that occurs when the primitive truncus does not divide into the pulmonary artery and aorta, resulting in a single arterial trunk. The spiral septum is created by fusion of a truncal septum and the aorticopulmonary spiral septum. Incomplete development of these septa results in incomplete separation of the common tube of the truncus arteriosus and the aorticopulmonary trunk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A tumour growing in the posterior mediastinum is found in a 40-year-old man...

    Correct

    • A tumour growing in the posterior mediastinum is found in a 40-year-old man who presented to the out patient clinic with chest pain. Such a tumour is likely to compress the following structure:

      Your Answer: Oesophagus

      Explanation:

      The boundaries of the posterior mediastinum are: the superiorly through the sternal angle and T4/5, inferiorly, the diaphragm, anteriorly, by the middle mediastinal structures and posteriorly by the spinal cord. Structures in the posterior mediastinum include the descending thoracic aorta, the azygos system, oesophagus, thoracic duct and lymph nodes. The great vessels and structures at the root of the lung are part of the middle mediastinum. The oesophagus is the only structure in the posterior mediastinum among the choices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      46
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 62-year-old woman presented to the doctor complaining of spine pain, fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presented to the doctor complaining of spine pain, fatigue and oliguria. She is diagnosed with chronic renal failure. Dipstick testing shows no protein, glucose, nitrite or ketones but a semi-quantitative sulphosalicylic acid test for urine protein is positive. Which of the following is the most probable cause of chronic renal failure in this patient.

      Your Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis

      Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Dipstick results are negative because the proteins found in the urine of this patient are not albumin but Bence Jones proteins. A Bence Jones protein is a monoclonal globulin protein commonly detected in patients affected by multiple myeloma. Multiple myeloma is a malignancy of plasma cells characterised by the production of monoclonal immunoglobulin. Symptoms include bone pain, bone fractures, bleeding, neurologic symptoms, fatigue, frequent infections and weight loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      91
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - In which of the following compartments of the femoral sheath is the femoral...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following compartments of the femoral sheath is the femoral artery located?

      Your Answer: Medial compartment

      Correct Answer: Lateral compartment

      Explanation:

      The femoral sheath also known as the crural sheath is made up of three compartments; lateral, intermediate and the medial. The femoral artery is contained in the lateral compartment of the femoral sheath while the femoral vein is in the intermediate compartment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A patient at the time of her second delivery opted for a bilateral...

    Correct

    • A patient at the time of her second delivery opted for a bilateral pudendal nerve block. In order to inject the anaesthetic agent near the pudendal nerve a anaesthetic consultant had to insert a finger into the vagina and press laterally to palpate which landmark?

      Your Answer: Ischial spine

      Explanation:

      The ischial spine is always palpated through the walls of the vagina when performing a transvaginal pudendal nerve block and can easily be palpated on the lateral wall of the vagina.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 27-year-old female was admitted due to severe dehydration. The patient also complained...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female was admitted due to severe dehydration. The patient also complained of chest tightness, thus an ECG was requested. The ECG strip showed an isoelectric ST segment, upright T wave, with prominent U waves. What is the most likely electrolyte abnormality responsible for these ECG tracing?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      U waves are prominent if it is >1-2mm or 25% of the height of the T wave. Abnormally prominent U waves are characteristically seen in severe hypokalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - From which branchial (pharyngeal) pouch does the inferior parathyroid gland arise? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which branchial (pharyngeal) pouch does the inferior parathyroid gland arise?

      Your Answer: 4th

      Correct Answer: 3rd

      Explanation:

      The following structures arise from each branchial pouch:

      1st pouch – eustachian tube, middle ear, mastoid, and inner layer of the tympanic membrane

      2nd pouch – middle ear, palatine tonsils

      3rd pouch – inferior parathyroid glands, thymus

      4th pouch – superior parathyroid glands, ultimobranchial body which forms the parafollicular C-cells of the thyroid gland, musculature and cartilage of larynx (along with the sixth pharyngeal pouch)

      5th pouch – rudimentary structure

      6th pouch – along with the fourth pouch, contributes to the formation of the musculature and cartilage of the larynx.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Endocrine; Embryology
      35.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Causes of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap include: ...

    Correct

    • Causes of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap include:

      Your Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Excess acid intake and excess bicarbonate loss as in diarrhoea, are causes of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap. The other conditions all result in an increased anion gap.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A biopsy taken from the respiratory passage of a 37 year old male,...

    Correct

    • A biopsy taken from the respiratory passage of a 37 year old male, chronic smoker will mostly likely show which cellular adaptation?

      Your Answer: Stratified squamous metaplasia

      Explanation:

      Metaplasia is a change in the cell type caused in part due to an extrinsic stress on the organ. It involves a change in the surface epithelium from one cell type to the another, most commonly squamous to columnar. This is a reversible process, and removal of the stress should theoretically reverse the surface epithelium back to normal morphology. Respiratory tract metaplasia is a classic example, in which the normal pseudostratified columnar epithelium is replaced by stratified squamous epithelium to better cope with the stress. Under continuous stress metaplasia can progress to dysplasia which is a disordered growth of cells eventually leading to the development of carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Respiratory
      • Pathology
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 26-year-old female sought consultation due to excessive vaginal discharge. Vaginal smear showed...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female sought consultation due to excessive vaginal discharge. Vaginal smear showed numerous bacilli under the microscope. The organism was non-pathogenic. What is the most likely organism:

      Your Answer: Lactobacillus species

      Explanation:

      Lactobacillus is a Gram-positive facultative bacteria. It is commonly present in the vagina and the gastrointestinal tract. Colonization of Lactobacillus is usually benign and it makes up a small portion of the gastrointestinal flora.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The pterygoid plexus receives tributaries from which of the following veins? ...

    Incorrect

    • The pterygoid plexus receives tributaries from which of the following veins?

      Your Answer: Superficial temporal vein

      Correct Answer: Maxillary vein

      Explanation:

      The pterygoid plexus of veins is the main venous component associated with the infratemporal fossa. It receives tributaries corresponding to the branches of the internal maxillary artery. This plexus communicates freely with the anterior facial vein; it also communicates with the cavernous sinus, by branches through the foramen of Vesalius, foramen ovale and foramen lacerum. The (internal) maxillary vein is a short trunk which accompanies the first part of the (internal) maxillary artery. It is formed by a confluence of the veins of the pterygoid plexus and passes backward between the sphenomandibular ligament and the neck of the mandible and unites with the temporal vein to form the posterior facial vein. It carries blood away from the infratemporal fossa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - When one is silently counting, what part of his brain will show increased...

    Correct

    • When one is silently counting, what part of his brain will show increased regional cerebral blood flow (rCBF)?

      Your Answer: Supplementary motor area

      Explanation:

      Regional cerebral blood flow (rCBF) increases in the superior speech cortex (supplementary motor area) during periods of silent counting, whereas speaking aloud will do so in the motor cortex and medial temporal lobe, along with the superior speech cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - During a surgical procedure involving the carotid artery, which nerve in the cervical...

    Incorrect

    • During a surgical procedure involving the carotid artery, which nerve in the cervical plexus of nerves that is embedded in the carotid sheath is most susceptible to injury?

      Your Answer: Spinal accessory nerve

      Correct Answer: Ansa cervicalis

      Explanation:

      The ansa cervicalis is a loop of nerves that are part of the cervical plexus. They lie superficial to the internal jugular vein in the carotid triangle. Branches from the ansa cervicalis innervate the sternohyoid, sternothyroid and the inferior belly of the omohyoid. The superior root of the ansa cervicalis is formed by a branch of spinal nerve C1. These nerve fibres travel in the hypoglossal nerve before leaving to form the superior root. The superior root goes around the occipital artery and then descends embedded in the carotid sheath. It sends a branch off to the superior belly of the omohyoid muscle and is then joined by the inferior root. The inferior root is formed by fibres from spinal nerves C2 and C3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      36.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - An old man was diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma with axillary lymph node...

    Correct

    • An old man was diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma with axillary lymph node metastasis. The doctor said he will excise the tumour and remove all axillary lymph nodes lateral to the edge of the pectoralis minor muscle. One of the following axillary lymph nodes won't be removed by this procedure. Which is it?

      Your Answer: Apical

      Explanation:

      The apical lymph node group won’t be removed which include 20 to 30 lymph nodes.

      Axillary lymph nodes are grouped according to location. The lateral group, the anterior to pectoral group, the posterior or subscapular group, the central group, and the medial or apical group. The lateral, pectoral, and subscapular groups are found lateral to the pectoralis minor muscle. The central group is situated directly under that muscle. Thus, if all lymph nodes lateral to the medial edge of the pectoralis minor muscle are removed, all the above four groups will be removed. The apical group won’t be removed which is situated medial to the medial edge of the pectoralis minor muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A sexually active 21 year old man presents with the history of dysuria...

    Correct

    • A sexually active 21 year old man presents with the history of dysuria for the past 3 days. Urine culture confirmed Neisseria gonorrhoeae and smear showed abundant neutrophils. Which of the following mediators is responsible for causing diapedesis of the neutrophils to reach the site of infection?

      Your Answer: Complement C5a

      Explanation:

      C5a is part of the complement cascade and is released frim the complement C5. It acts as a chemotactic factor for neutrophils. Other chemotactic mediators are TNF, leukotrienes and bacterial products.

      Bradykinin is associated with the production of pain and vasodilation.

      Hageman factor is a clotting factor.

      Histamine causes vasodilation.

      C3B causes opsonisation.

      IL-6 and IL-12 are inflammatory mediators causing B cell maturation and mediating inflammation and prostaglandins are involved with pain, increasing cell permeability and vasodilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Urology
      • Pathology
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old woman complains of generalised swelling and particularly puffiness around the eyes...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman complains of generalised swelling and particularly puffiness around the eyes which is worst in the morning. Laboratory studies showed:

      Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) = 30 mg/dl

      Creatinine = 2. 8 mg/dl

      Albumin = 2. 0 mg/dl

      Alanine transaminase (ALT) = 25 U/l

      Bilirubin = 1 mg/dl

      Urine analysis shows 3+ albumin and no cells.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic syndrome is a disorder in which the glomeruli have been damaged, characterized by:

      – Proteinuria (>3.5 g per 1.73 m2 body surface area per day, or > 40 mg per square meter body surface area per hour in children)

      – Hypoalbuminemia (< 2,5 g/dl) – Hyperlipidaemia, and oedema (generalized anasarca).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      67
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A chest x ray of a patient reveals loculated fluid in the right...

    Correct

    • A chest x ray of a patient reveals loculated fluid in the right chest, which can be easily aspirated if the needle is inserted through the body wall just above the 9th rib in the midaxillary line. Where is this fluid located?

      Your Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes the diaphragmatic pleura. At the midclavicular line, this is found between ribs 6 and 8; at the paravertebral lines, between ribs 10 and 12 and between ribs 8 and 10 at the midaxillary line.

      The cardiac notch: is an indentation of the heart on the left lung, located on the anterior surface of the lung.

      Cupola: part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib.

      Oblique pericardial sinus: part of the pericardial sac located posterior to the heart behind the left atrium.

      Costomediastinal recess: a reflection of the pleura from the costal surface to the mediastinal surface, is on the anterior surface of the chest.

      The inferior mediastinum: is the space in the chest occupied by the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Multiple, non-tender lymphadenopathy with biopsy showing several crowded follicles of small, monomorphic lymphocytes...

    Correct

    • Multiple, non-tender lymphadenopathy with biopsy showing several crowded follicles of small, monomorphic lymphocytes and the absence of Reed-Sternberg cells is seen in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Poorly differentiated lymphocytic lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Malignant lymphoma usually causes non-tender lymphadenopathy, unlike the tender lymphadenopathy caused by infections (including infectious mononucleosis caused by Epstein-Barr virus). Also, the lymphoid hyperplasia seen in infectious mononucleosis is benign and polyclonal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis with fibrinoid necrosis, petechial haemorrhages, microinfarcts in the kidneys and elevated...

    Correct

    • Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis with fibrinoid necrosis, petechial haemorrhages, microinfarcts in the kidneys and elevated plasma renin are common findings in which of the following patients?

      Your Answer: A 45-year-old woman with scleroderma

      Explanation:

      Scleroderma, also known as systemic sclerosis, is a chronic disease of the connective tissue. Involvement of the kidneys occurs in patients with diffuse scleroderma, causing rapid onset of high blood pressure with hyperreninemia, thrombotic microangiopathy, and progressive renal failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      41.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A Monospot test in a 17-year old boy presenting with fever, multiple palpable...

    Correct

    • A Monospot test in a 17-year old boy presenting with fever, multiple palpable lymph nodes and mild icterus was positive. His blood investigation is likely to show which of the following?

      Your Answer: Atypical lymphocytosis

      Explanation:

      Epstein-Barr virus is the causative agent for infectious mononucleosis leading to presence of atypical lymphocytes in blood. Usually symptomatic in older children and adults, the incubation period is 30-50 days. Symptoms include fatigue, followed by fever, adenopathy and pharyngitis. Fatigue can last for months and is maximum in first few weeks. Fever spikes in the afternoon or early evening, with temperature around 39.5 – 40.5 °C. The ‘typhoidal’ form where fatigue and fever predominate has a low onset and resolution. Pharyngitis resemble that due to streptococcus and can be severe and painful. Lymphadenopathy is bilaterally symmetrical and can involve any nodes, specially the cervical ones. Mild splenomegaly is seen in 50% cases, usually in 2-3rd week. Mild tender hepatomegaly can occur. Less common manifestations include maculopapular eruptions, jaundice, periorbital oedema and palatal enanthema. Diagnostic tests include full blood count and a heterophil antibody test. Morphologically abnormal lymphocytes account for 80% cells and are heterogenous, unlike leukaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A teacher had varicosities in the region of the small saphenous vein. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A teacher had varicosities in the region of the small saphenous vein. Which of the following is true about that vein?

      Your Answer: Is in close relation with the sural nerve in the upper two-thirds of the leg

      Correct Answer: Has nine to twelve valves

      Explanation:

      It is known that the small saphenous vein has nine to twelve valves along its course. This vein begins as a direct continuation of the lateral marginal vein posterior to the lateral malleolus. It is superficially situated but closer to its termination, perforates the deep fascia in the lower part of the popliteal fossa to end in the popliteal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 50 year old male point was diagnosed with tennis elbow that became...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 year old male point was diagnosed with tennis elbow that became worse after he started playing basket ball over the last three months. He was admitted to the orthopaedic ward to have elbow braces fitted. What type of synovial joint is the elbow joint?

      Your Answer: Bicondylar

      Correct Answer: Hinge

      Explanation:

      The elbow joint is one of the many synovial joints in the body. This joint is an example of the hinge joint as the humerus is received into the semilunar notch of the ulna and the capitulum of the humerus articulates with the fovea on the head of the radius, together acting as a hinge in one plane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (6/15) 40%
Head & Neck (0/3) 0%
Neoplasia (0/1) 0%
Pathology (7/11) 64%
Abdomen (1/3) 33%
Haematology (2/3) 67%
Upper Limb (2/3) 67%
Cardiovascular (1/2) 50%
Physiology (4/4) 100%
Thorax (2/2) 100%
Renal (2/3) 67%
Lower Limb (0/2) 0%
Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (2/2) 100%
Endocrine; Embryology (0/1) 0%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Inflammation & Immunology; Urology (1/1) 100%
Passmed