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  • Question 1 - A 85-year-old male with a history of hypertension presented with a couple of...

    Correct

    • A 85-year-old male with a history of hypertension presented with a couple of pre-syncopal episodes. He describes these episodes as him having felt as if he was going to faint and he has had to sit down. There were no precipitating factors, associated chest pain or palpitations. He doesn't have chest pain, shortness of breath on exertion, orthopnoea or paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea. On examination he looked well. Blood pressure was 140/80 mmHg and pulse rate was 78 bpm which was irregular. His lungs were clear and heart sounds were normal. ECG showed sinus rhythm with occasional ventricular ectopic beats. Which of the following is an indication for permanent pacemaker implantation?

      Your Answer: Second-degree block associated with symptoms

      Explanation:

      Indications for permanent pacemaker implantation

      -Sinus node dysfunction
      -Acquired Atrioventricular(AV) block (Complete third-degree AV block with or without symptoms, Symptomatic second degree AV block, Mobitz type I and II, Exercise-induced second or third degree AV block in the absence of myocardial infarction, Mobitz II with widened QRS complex)
      -Chronic bifascicular block
      -After acute phase of myocardial infarction
      -Neurocardiogenic syncope and hypersensitive carotid sinus syndrome
      -Post cardiac transplantation
      -Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
      -Pacing to detect and terminate tachycardia
      -Cardiac resynchronization therapy in patients with severe systolic heart failure
      -Patients with congenital heart disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      122.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the oncologist clinic for further investigations. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the oncologist clinic for further investigations. She has experienced fever, sometimes glandular and night sweats. Clinical examination reveals lymphadenopathy and a biopsy is performed. The biopsy reveals the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, confirming what was suspected to be a Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which cell surface marker is associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: CD21

      Correct Answer: CD15

      Explanation:

      The CD15 antigen, also known as Lewis (hapten)X, serves as an immuno-phenotypic marker for Reed-Sternberg cells and its expression has diagnostic, but also prognostic significance in Hodgkin Lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes comes to the...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic for review. His HbA1c is elevated at 64 mmol/mol despite taking 1g of metformin BD. On examination, his blood pressure is 142/88 mmHg, his pulse is 82 beats per minute and regular. His BMI is 33 kg/m². A decision is made to start him on dapagliflozin. Which of the following would you expect on starting therapy?

      Your Answer: Increased total cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Dapagliflozin works by inhibiting sodium glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) and blocking resorption of glucose in the kidney, leading to an increase in urinary glucose excretion and lowering of both plasma glucose levels and body weight.
      All studies with SGLT2 inhibitors have found significant reductions in BP, with greater reductions seen in systolic (1.66 to 6.9mmHg) than diastolic (0.88 to 3.5mmHg) BP.
      While some trials have shown no change in lipid parameters, others have shown a modest but statistically significant increase in both HDL and LDL cholesterol with no effect on triglycerides or the LDL/HDL ratio.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      2761.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old female presents with complaints of retrosternal chest pain and dysphagia (which...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old female presents with complaints of retrosternal chest pain and dysphagia (which is intermittent and unpredictable in nature). When she swallows, food very suddenly 'sticks' in her chest. She is able to clear it when she drinks water, and then can finish the meal without any further incidence. A barium meal shows she has a corkscrew oesophagus. What is the most likely type of dysphagia here?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal spasm

      Explanation:

      All of the symptoms observed in this patient are typical of uncoordinated irregular oesophageal peristalsis – this is characteristic of oesophageal spasm. The cork-screw oesophagus is also diagnostic of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      93.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A team of physicians presented their audit of fluid management for dengue haemorrhagic...

    Incorrect

    • A team of physicians presented their audit of fluid management for dengue haemorrhagic fever one year ago. A number of recommendations were made at that time and changes were implemented. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step that this team should take?

      Your Answer: Data analysis

      Correct Answer: Re-audit

      Explanation:

      Clinical audit is defined as a quality improvement process that seeks to improve patient care and outcomes through systematic review of care against explicit criteria and the implementation of change. To see whether the recommendations have been implemented, a re-audit has to be performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethical & Legal
      39.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which one of the following types of thyroid cancer is associated with the...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following types of thyroid cancer is associated with the RET oncogene?

      Your Answer: Anaplastic

      Correct Answer: Medullary

      Explanation:

      RET (rearranged during transfection) is a receptor tyrosine kinase involved in the development of neural crest derived cell lineages, kidney, and male germ cells. Different human cancers, including papillary and medullary thyroid carcinomas, lung adenocarcinomas, and myeloproliferative disorders display gain-of-function mutations in RET.
      In over 90% of cases, MEN2 syndromes are due to germline missense mutations of the RET gene.
      Multiple endocrine neoplasias type 2 (MEN2) is an inherited disorder characterized by the development of medullary thyroid cancer (MTC), parathyroid tumours, and pheochromocytoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A patient is told to consult a pathologist regarding the stone that was...

    Correct

    • A patient is told to consult a pathologist regarding the stone that was found in his urine. The pathologist describes the stone as laminated, with areas of black staining. Urinalysis indicates hypercalciuria. Which is the most likely type of renal calculus?

      Your Answer: Calcium oxylate

      Explanation:

      Hypercalciuria is the most common cause of kidney stone disease. It is an identifiable cause and can be primary (or idiopathic) or secondary. Secondary hypercalciuria might be due to hyperparathyroidism (2-3%), high levels of vitamin D, Cushing’s syndrome, sarcoidosis or milk-alkali syndrome. Hypercalciuria can also be idiopathic and is considered the commonest metabolic abnormality in people with stone disease. Factors favouring stone formation are: abnormal urine constituents, infection and stasis. In these cases, investigations fail to reveal any calcium metabolism disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      1223.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old man presents with hypertension and decreased serum potassium levels. Which hormone...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man presents with hypertension and decreased serum potassium levels. Which hormone should be tested in addition in order to establish the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aldosterone

      Explanation:

      High blood pressure and a low level of potassium in the blood indicates hyperaldosteronism. Therefore, aldosterone should be tested immediately to establish the diagnosis. Hyperaldosteronism, is a medical condition wherein too much aldosterone is produced by the adrenal glands, which can lead to lowered levels of potassium in the blood (hypokalaemia) and increased hydrogen ion excretion (alkalosis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      162.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old male presented with unbalances and vomiting for 1 week. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male presented with unbalances and vomiting for 1 week. Which of the following is the best investigations that can be performed to arrive at a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lumbar puncture

      Correct Answer: MRI of Cerebellum

      Explanation:

      Lesions in cerebellum and pontine region should be excluded. So the most appropriate investigation is MRI of cerebellum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      97.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient presents with occasionally severe retrosternal chest pain and dysphagia for both...

    Correct

    • A patient presents with occasionally severe retrosternal chest pain and dysphagia for both solids and liquids. What would be the best management option if the barium swallow showed a dilated oesophagus which tapers to a fine distal end?

      Your Answer: Dilatation of the LES

      Explanation:

      Dysphagia for both solids and liquids indicates either obstruction or impaired oesophageal peristalsis which is usually due to neuromuscular causes such as achalasia. Achalasia is the failure of smooth muscle fibres to relax, which can cause the lower oesophageal sphincter to remain closed. The lower part of the oesophagus is more narrow than normal and presents as a birds beak appearance on barium swallow. If dysphagia was present only on solid food consumption, a benign or malignant tumour must be suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      544
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 74-year-old man with longstanding Waldenstrƶm's macroglobulinemia presents to the rheumatology clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old man with longstanding Waldenstrƶm's macroglobulinemia presents to the rheumatology clinic with joint pain and generalised weakness. Which of the following would be most indicative of type I cryoglobulinemia?

      Your Answer: Low C4 levels

      Correct Answer: Raynaud's phenomenon

      Explanation:

      Cryoglobulins are proteins that precipitate from an individual’s serum or plasma at temperatures lower than 37°C. They can be a mixture of immunoglobulin (Ig) and complement components or immunoglobulins alone. These cryoglobulins deposit in medium and large-sized blood vessels throughout the body, causing endothelial injury and end-organ damage known as cryoglobulinemia.

      Cryoglobulinemia can be divided into three main types, depending on which kind of antibody your body produces.

      Type I cryoglobulinemiaĀ is frequently associated with an underlying health condition, such as cancer of your blood orĀ immune system.

      Type II cryoglobulinemiaĀ andĀ type III cryoglobulinemiaĀ are often seen in people with long-term (chronic) inflammatory conditions, such asĀ autoimmune diseases. Type II cryoglobulinemia is very common in people withĀ hepatitis C virusĀ (HCV). Another name for types II and III cryoglobulinemia is mixed cryoglobulinemia.

      People with cryoglobulinemia may or may not experience symptoms. When symptoms are present, they most commonly include a particular rash, usually over the lower legs as well as fatigue and joint pain.

      Other cryoglobulinemia symptoms may include:

      • Change in the color of your hands and/or feet with cold temperatures, calledĀ Raynaud’s phenomenon.
      • Weight loss.
      • High blood pressure
      • Swelling (edema) of ankles and legs.
      • Skin ulcersĀ andĀ gangrene.
      • Enlarged liverĀ (hepatomegaly) orĀ enlarged spleenĀ (splenomegaly).

      Raynaud’s syndrome causes spasms in small blood vessels in your fingers and toes. This limits blood flow and leads to symptoms like skin color changes, cold skin and a pins and needles sensation. Common triggers of Raynaud’s attacks include cold weather and stress. Many people have mild symptoms that they can manage through lifestyle changes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 48-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder presents with acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder presents with acute confusion. In-transit to hospital he had a generalized seizure which terminated spontaneously after around 30 seconds. On arrival to the emergency department, his GCS is 14/15 and he is noted to have a coarse tremor. Suspecting a diagnosis of lithium toxicity, intravenous access is obtained, a blood sample was drawn for investigations and a saline infusion is started. The blood investigations revealed:

      Lithium level: 4.2 mmol/l
      Na+: 136 mmol/l
      K+: 4.6 mmol/l
      Urea: 8.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine: 99 µmol/l
      Bicarbonate: 18 mmol/l

      What is the most appropriate management for the patient?

      Your Answer: Intravenous bicarbonate

      Correct Answer: Arrange haemodialysis

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      358.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 49-year-old female presents to the clinic complaining of pain in her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old female presents to the clinic complaining of pain in her left elbow that is localized to the left lateral epicondyle. She has spent the weekend painting her house. A diagnosis of lateral epicondylitis is suspected. The pain would characteristically worsen on which of the following movements?

      Your Answer: Pronation of the forearm with the elbow flexed

      Correct Answer: Resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended

      Explanation:

      Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is an overuse injury of the hand and finger extensor tendons that originate in the lateral humeral epicondyle that occurs following repeated or excessive pronation/supination and extension of the wrist (e.g., in racquet sports). Clinical features include pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle and along extensor muscles, thickening of the tendons. The examiner holds the patient’s hand with the thumb placed over the lateral epicondyle – The patient makes a fist, supinates the forearm, deviates radially, and extends the fist against the examiner’s resistance which results in pain over the lateral epicondyle. Conservative treatment includes rest, physiotherapy and orthotic braces. If this fails corticosteroids and lidocaine injections are employed. Surgery is indicated in patients with persistent symptoms despite 6 months of conservative treatment. Excision of abnormal tendon tissue; longitudinal incisions (tenotomies) in scarred and fibrotic areas to promote healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old athlete presented with a 7-month history of difficulty gripping things. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old athlete presented with a 7-month history of difficulty gripping things. He complained of finding it particularly difficult in cold weather. He remembered his father having similar problems. Upon examination, he had a bilateral ptosis with weakness of the facial muscles. He also had difficulty opening his eyes quickly. Limb examination revealed distal weakness in both hands with difficulty opening and closing both hands quickly. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyositis

      Correct Answer: Myotonic dystrophy

      Explanation:

      Myotonic dystrophy is the most likely diagnosis here.
      It is a multisystem disorder causing cognitive impairment, cataracts, cardiac problems and testicular atrophy, as well as affecting the muscles. Patients have muscle weakness, normally worse distally, and/or myotonia (which is worse in cold weather).
      On examination, patients may also have frontal balding, a myopathic facies, bilateral ptosis, an ophthalmoplegia and wasting of facial muscles and other limb muscles. Myotonic dystrophy is associated with diabetes mellitus and pituitary dysfunction.
      Diagnosis is normally based on clinical features with a characteristic electromyogram (EMG) of myotonic discharges. Creatine kinase is generally normal and muscle biopsy is non-specific.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      719.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 40-year-old female presented in the OPD with a 4-day history of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old female presented in the OPD with a 4-day history of severe episodes of dizziness. She reports that her room starts spinning and then she tends to fall. She also complains of deafness, tinnitus, and a sensation of clogging in the ear. What condition do you think this patient is suffering from?

      Your Answer: Vestibular neuronitis

      Correct Answer: Meniere's disease

      Explanation:

      The patient presents with the classic symptoms of Meniere’s disease. This is a condition in which the amount of endolymph in the internal ear increases because of an increase in endolymph production, a reduction of endolymph drainage, or as a result of an infection. Hearing and balance tests should be done for the proper analysis of the patient’s condition and to rule out other conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is most likely linked to male infertility in cystic...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is most likely linked to male infertility in cystic fibrosis?

      Your Answer: Failure of development of the vas deferens

      Explanation:

      The vas deferens is a long tube that connects the epididymis to the ejaculatory ducts. It acts as a canal through which mature sperm may pass through the penis during ejaculation.

      Most men with CF (97-98 percent) are infertile because of a blockage or absence of the vas deferens, known as congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens (CBAVD). The sperm never makes it into the semen, making it impossible for them to reach and fertilize an egg through intercourse. The absence of sperm in the semen can also contribute to men with CF having thinner ejaculate and lower semen volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 32-year-old man presents with progressive central abdominal pain and vomiting associated with...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents with progressive central abdominal pain and vomiting associated with significant weight loss (five stone in 3 months).He gives a history of binge drinking and depression, and smokes twenty cigarettes per day. Because eating provokes abdominal pain and vomiting, he has eaten virtually nothing for a month. CT scanning of his abdomen showed a normal pancreas but dilated loops of small bowel with a possible terminal ileal stricture. His albumin level was 20 and C-reactive protein level was 50. Which statement is NOT true?

      Your Answer: Infliximab should be prescribed as soon as possible

      Explanation:

      Stricturing is associated with Crohn’s disease, and elevated CRP supports this diagnosis in this patient, as well. Infliximab should not yet be started. Acute treatment is steroids (of a flare) however this man needs surgery. Although surgery should be avoided if at all possible in Crohn’s disease, and minimal surgery should occur (resecting as little as possible, given possible need for future resections), including possible stricturoplasty instead of resection. Chronic pancreatitis is unlikely given it would not cause stricture. Patients undergoing surgery should always have informed consent, which always includes risk of a stoma for any bowel surgery. Given the amount of weight he has lost he is at significant risk for refeeding syndrome, which can cause hypokalaemia, hypophosphatemia and hypomagnesemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 3-year-old boy has been brought to the hospital by his mother with...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old boy has been brought to the hospital by his mother with pallor, lethargy and abdominal enlargement. His mother said she only noticed these symptoms two weeks ago but further questioning reveals that they have been progressively worsening over a longer period of time. The boy was born naturally following an uncomplicated pregnancy. Past and family histories are not significant and the family hasn't been on any vacations recently. However, the mother mentions a metabolic disorder present in the family history but couldn't remember the exact name. Clinical examination reveals generalised pallor, abdominal enlargement, massive splenomegaly and hepatomegaly. The spleen is firm but not tender and there is no icterus or lymphadenopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gaucher's disease

      Explanation:

      Gaucher’s disease is characterized by hepatosplenomegaly, cytopenia, sometimes severe bone involvement and, in certain forms, neurological impairment. The variability in the clinical presentations of GD may be explained by the continuum of phenotypes. However, three major phenotypic presentations can usually be distinguished. Type-1 GD is usually named non-neuronopathic GD; type-2 and type-3 are termed neuronopathic-GD. Gaucher disease (GD, ORPHA355) is a rare, autosomal recessive genetic disorder. It is caused by a deficiency of the lysosomal enzyme, glucocerebrosidase, which leads to an accumulation of its substrate, glucosylceramide, in macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      40.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 42-year-old previously well woman presented with acute severe central chest pain for...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old previously well woman presented with acute severe central chest pain for the past 2 hours. She has a family history of premature coronary artery disease. Her husband passed away recently due to prostate cancer. On examination her blood pressure was 130/80 mmHg and pulse rate was 80 bpm. Her ECG showed ST segment elevation and her troponin was slightly elevated. Emergency angiogram revealed slight wall irregularities with no luminal obstruction. Cardiovascular MR showed an apical ballooning of the myocardium resembling an octopus pot. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the ST segment elevation?

      Your Answer: Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Causes for ST segment elevation other than myocardial infarction
      Natural variants
      -Early repolarization
      -Left ventricular hypertrophy and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
      -Left bundle branch block
      Artefacts
      -Leads mispositioning
      -Electrical cardioversion
      Cardiovascular diseases
      -Pericarditis/ Myocarditis
      -Aortic dissection
      -Prinzmetal’s angina
      -Takotsubo Cardiomyopathy
      -Brugada Syndrome and arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy/dysplasia
      Pulmonary diseases
      -Pulmonary thromboembolism
      -Pneumothorax
      -Atelectasis and pulmonary metastases
      Gastrointestinal diseases
      -Acute pancreatitis
      -Acute cholecystitis
      Other conditions
      -Hyperkalaemia
      -Drug induced ST segment elevation (e.g. – clozapine)
      -Haemorrhagic cerebrovascular disease

      Coronary artery disease and myocardial infarction can be excluded with a negative angiogram and a slightly elevated troponin. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy can be excluded with cardiovascular MR findings. Left ventricular aneurysm usually occurs following a myocardial infarction, but there is no positive history for that. The characteristic findings on cardiovascular MR confirms the diagnosis of Takotsubo cardiomyopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      53.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 72-year-old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension for 15 years, presented with gradual onset difficulty in breathing on exertion and bilateral ankle swelling for the past 3 months. On examination he had mild ankle oedema. His JVP was not elevated. His heart sounds were normal but he had bibasal crepitations on auscultation. Which of the following clinical signs has the greatest sensitivity in detecting heart failure in this patient?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary crackles

      Correct Answer: Third heart sound

      Explanation:

      The presence of a third heart sound is the most sensitive indicator of heart failure. AllĀ of the other signs can be found in heart failure with varying degrees.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      100.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular System (3/4) 75%
Haematology & Oncology (0/2) 0%
Endocrine System & Metabolism (1/2) 50%
Gastrointestinal System (4/4) 100%
Ethical & Legal (0/1) 0%
Renal System (1/1) 100%
Nervous System (0/3) 0%
Fluids & Electrolytes (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal System (0/1) 0%
Respiratory System (1/1) 100%
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