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Question 1
Incorrect
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A middle-aged male presented in the OPD with scrotal swelling that is cystic in nature and painless. It is located on the posterior part of the testis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hydrocele
Correct Answer: Epididymal Cyst
Explanation:Epididymal cysts present as a swelling is behind the testis and are non-tender/painless in nature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Men's Health
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Question 2
Correct
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A 49-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. She also complains of loss of appetite for the past four months. Her admission CXR shows right-sided pleural effusion. An underlying malignancy is suspected and a series of tumour markers are requested, the results of which are:
CA 19-9: 36 IU/mL (<40)
CA 125: 654 IU/ml (<30)
CA 15-3: 9 IU/ml (<40)
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Ovarian fibroma
Explanation:The patient has Meigs syndrome. Meigs syndrome is defined as a triad of benign ovarian tumour with ascites and pleural effusion that resolves after resection of the tumour. Ovarian fibromas constitute the majority of the benign tumours seen in Meigs syndrome.
Tumour markers can be divided into:
1. Monoclonal antibodies
CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
CA 15-3: Breast cancer2. Tumour specific antigens
Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer3. Enzymes
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Neuron specific enolase (NSE)4. Hormones
Calcitonin
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a three-year history of type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic for review. He is currently managed with metformin 1 g BD and feels that his home blood glucose monitoring has deteriorated over the past few months. There is a history of hypertension and dyslipidemia for which he takes Ramipril 10 mg daily and atorvastatin 20 mg.
On examination, his BP is 155/82 mmHg, his pulse is 71 and regular. His chest is clear. His BMI is 32.
Investigations show:
Haemoglobin 12.9 g/dl (13.5 - 17.7)
White cell count 5.0 x109/l (4 - 11)
Platelets 180 x109/l (150 - 400)
Sodium 140 mmol/l (135 - 146)
Potassium 5.0 mmol/l (3.5 - 5)
Creatinine 123 mmol/l (79 - 118)
HbA1c 8.0% (<7.0)
He would like to start sitagliptin.
Which of the following adverse effects would you warn him about?Your Answer: Significant hypoglycaemia
Correct Answer: Pancreatitis
Explanation:Sitagliptin-induced pancreatitis can occur at any time after the initiation of therapy, even after several years. Patients taking sitagliptin who present with signs and symptoms of mild or severe pancreatitis should immediately discontinue sitagliptin and use an alternate medication regimen for control of type 2 diabetes.
In response to pancreatitis reported in post-marketing surveillance through the Adverse Event Reporting System (AERS), the FDA has issued revised prescribing information for sitagliptin stating that cases of acute pancreatitis have been reported with use, to monitor closely for signs and symptoms of pancreatitis, and to use sitagliptin with caution in patients with a history of pancreatitis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old man visits the clinic because he has been experiencing increasing breathlessness for the past five months while doing daily tasks. His exercise tolerance is now limited to 75 metres while on a flat surface and walking up the stairs makes him breathless. He sleeps on four pillows and has swollen ankles in the morning. He occasionally coughs up phlegm.
Past Medical history of importance:
36 pack year smoking history
Hypertension
Ischaemic heart disease
Coronary artery stenting done 10 months ago
Pulmonary function testing revealed:
FEV1 0.90 L (1.80 - 3.02 predicted)
FVC 1.87 L (2.16 - 3.58 predicted)
Diffusion capacity 3.0 mmol/min/kPa (5.91 - 9.65 predicted)
Total lung capacity 4.50 L (4.25 - 6.22 predicted)
Residual volume 2.70 L (1.46 - 2.48 predicted)
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Which condition does he have?Your Answer: Left ventricular failure
Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Explanation:Whilst asthma and COPD are different diseases they cause similar symptoms, which can present a challenge in identifying which of the two diseases a patient is suffering from. COPD causes chronic symptoms and narrowed airways which do not respond to treatment to open them up. In the case of asthma the constriction of the airways through inflammation tends to come and go and treatment to reduce inflammation and to open up the airways usually works well.
COPD is more likely than asthma to cause a chronic cough with phlegm and is rare before the age of 35 whilst asthma is common in under-35s. Disturbed sleep caused by breathlessness and wheeze is more likely in cases of asthma, as is a history of allergies, eczema and hay fever. Differentiating between COPD and asthma requires a history of both symptoms and spirometry. The spirometry history should include post bronchodilator measurements, the degree of reversibility and, ideally, home monitoring which gives a history of diurnal variation.
Airflow Obstruction: Both asthma and COPD are characterised by airflow obstruction. Airflow obstruction is defined as a reduced FEV1 and a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio, such that FEV1 is less than 80% of that predicted, and FEV1/FVC is less than 0.7.
These episodes are usually associated with widespread, but variable, airflow obstruction within the lung that is often reversible either spontaneously or with treatment.
COPD: COPD is a chronic, slowly progressive disorder characterised by airflow obstruction (reduced FEV1 and FEV1/VC ratio) that does not change markedly over several months. The airflow obstruction is not fully reversible.
Spirometry COPD Asthma
VC Reduced Nearly normal
FEV1 Reduced Reduced in attack
FVC (or FEV6) Reduced Nearly normal
FEV1 Ratio
(of VC/FVC/FEV6) Reduced in attackThis man has a low FEV1 and FVC. His diffusions capacity is also low despite having a normal total lung capacity. These values confirm a diagnosis of COPD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 5
Correct
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A 78-year-old male presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath that has developed gradually over the last 4 days. His symptoms include fever and cough productive of greenish sputum. Past history is notable for COPD for which he was once admitted to the ICU, 2 years back. He now takes nebulizers (ipratropium bromide) at home. The patient previously suffered from myocardial infarction 7 years ago. He also has Diabetes Mellitus type II controlled by lifestyle modification.
On examination, the following vitals are obtained.
BP : 159/92 mmHg
Pulse: 91/min (regular)
Temp: Febrile
On auscultation, there are scattered ronchi bilaterally and right sided basal crackles. Cardiovascular and abdominal examinations are unremarkable.
Lab findings are given below:
pH 7.31
pa(O2) 7.6 kPa
pa(CO2) 6.3 kPa
Bicarbonate 30 mmol/l
Sodium 136 mmol/l
Potassium 3.7 mmol/l
Urea 7.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 111 μmol/l
Haemoglobin 11.3 g/dl
Platelets 233 x 109 /l
Mean cell volume (MCV) 83 fl
White blood cells (WBC) 15.2 x 109 /l.
CXR shows an opacity obscuring the right heart border.
Which of the following interventions should be started immediately while managing this patient?Your Answer: Salbutamol and ipratropium bromide nebulisers
Explanation:Acute exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are immediately treated with inhaled beta2 agonists and inhaled anticholinergics, followed by antibiotics (if indicated) and systemic corticosteroids. Methylxanthine therapy may be considered in patients who do not respond to other bronchodilators.
High flow oxygen would worsen his symptoms. Usually titrated oxygen (88 to 92 %) is given in such patients to avoid the risk of hyperoxic hypercarbia in which increasing oxygen saturation in a chronic carbon dioxide retainer can inadvertently lead to respiratory acidosis and death. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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An 82-year-old male woke up experiencing incoherent speech - he is also finding it difficult to find the right words to explain his thoughts. Doctors have examined him, and everything else appears to be normal. They have also found that his comprehension is good. From the list of options, choose the anatomical site which in this instance, is most likely affected.
Your Answer: Broca's Area
Explanation:The combination of good comprehension but poor speech quality in this patient is consistent with damage to the Broca’s area. The Wernicke’s area is responsible for the understanding of speech, and so is not consistent with this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 7
Correct
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A 60-year-old man with type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic with his wife. He is limping and his wife noticed that his ankle was abnormally-shaped after he stepped out of the shower.
Examination of his right ankle reveals a painless warm swollen joint.
There is crepitus and what appears to be palpable bone debris. X-ray reveals gross joint destruction and apparent dislocation. Joint aspiration fluid shows no microbes.
Investigations:
His CRP and white count are of normal values.
Historical review of HB A1c reveals that it has rarely been below 9%.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Charcot's ankle
Explanation:Charcot arthropathy is a progressive condition of the musculoskeletal system that is characterized by joint dislocations, pathologic fractures, and debilitating deformities. It results in progressive destruction of bone and soft tissues at weight-bearing joints. In its most severe form, it may cause significant disruption of the bony architecture.
Charcot arthropathy can occur at any joint; however, it occurs most commonly in the lower extremity, at the foot and ankle. Diabetes is now considered to be the most common aetiology of Charcot arthropathy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man arrives at the clinic with a history of cough and intermittent haemoptysis for the last 3 months. He has a 50 pack year smoking history and is currently waiting for bronchoscopy to assess a left lower lobe collapse. The patient also has a marked muscle weakness and wasting of proximal muscles of his shoulders and pelvic girdle. His wife states that lately he has been unable to eat solids. Which of the following statements would be true regarding this scenario?
Your Answer: He almost certainly has adenocarcinoma of the lung
Correct Answer: He may have a photosensitive facial rash
Explanation:The patient has presented with signs of small cell lung cancer. The associated proximal muscle weakness is most probably due to dermatomyositis which occurs as a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with lung carcinoma. In most cases, the first symptom is a distinctive skin rash on the face, eyelids, chest, nail cuticle areas, knuckles, knees or elbows. The rash is patchy and usually a bluish-purple colour. Corticosteroids are helpful in the management of the cutaneous changes and muscle weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man has been admitted with dehydration following an attack of gastritis. His initial blood results revealed raised calcium and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). He has a history of hypertension, angina, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and diabetes.
His most recent results have arrived on the ward, showing:
Hb: 13.8 g/dL
WCC: 7.7 x 10^9/L
Plts: 212 x 10^9/L
Na+: 138 mmol/L
K+: 4.7 mmol/L
Ca+2: 2.4 mmol/L
Urea: 7.2 mmol/L
Creatinine: 104 mmol/L
Albumin: 38 g/L
IgG: 24 g/L (6.0-13.0)
IgA: 2.1 g/L (0.8-3.0)
IgM: 1.3 g/L (0.4-2.5)
Trace amounts of Bence Jones protein have also been detected in the urine. CXR shows normal heart and mediastinal contours, clear lungs bilaterally, osteopenia of the bony skeleton with no lytic lesions.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Multiple myeloma
Correct Answer: Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 20-year-old gentleman presents with drop foot following a sports injury.
On examination there is weakness of ankle dorsiflexion and eversion, and weakness of extension of the big toe. He has some sensory loss restricted to the dorsum of his foot surrounding the base of his big toe. Other examination is within normal limits.
Where is the most likely site of the lesion?Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve at the head of the fibula
Explanation:Peroneal nerve injury is also known as foot drop. The common peroneal nerve supplies the ankle and toe extensor muscle groups as well as sensation over the dorsum of the foot; thus, there is also loss of sensation in these cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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