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  • Question 1 - A 34 year-old gentleman presented with 3 months history of abdominal pain, intermittent...

    Correct

    • A 34 year-old gentleman presented with 3 months history of abdominal pain, intermittent diarrhoea, melena and loss of weight. The most likely diagnosis will be?

      Your Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease

      Explanation:

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is characterized by abdominal and pelvic pain, intermittent diarrhoea, loss of weight and tenesmus. Irritable bowel disease is associated either with diarrhoea or constipation and occurs in stressful conditions for the individual. A UTI is characterised by dysuria, fever and lumbar pain. Adenomyosis is characterised by heavy menstrual bleeding and chronic pelvic pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old patient was diagnosed with hepatocellular carcinoma. Tramadol was prescribed to treat...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old patient was diagnosed with hepatocellular carcinoma. Tramadol was prescribed to treat the pain. However, the patient is still experiencing intense pain. Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Escalate opioid therapy

      Explanation:

      Because the patient’s pain is not responding to Tramadol treatment (already an opioid analgesic), opioid therapy should be escalated until there is pain relief without intolerable side effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A phrenic nerve palsy is caused by which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • A phrenic nerve palsy is caused by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Pericardial cyst

      Correct Answer: Aortic aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Phrenic nerve palsy causing hemidiaphragm paralysis is a very uncommon feature of thoracic aortic aneurysm.

      Thoracic aortic aneurysms are usually asymptomatic however chest pain is most commonly reported symptom. Left hemidiaphragm paralysis, because of left phrenic nerve palsy, is a very rare presentation of thoracic aortic aneurysm.
      Thoracic aortic aneurysm may present atypical symptoms such as dysphagia due to compression of the oesophagus; hoarseness due to vocal cord paralysis or compression of the recurrent laryngeal nerve; superior vena cava syndrome due to compression of the superior vena cava; cough, dyspnoea or both due to tracheal compression; haemoptysis due to rupture of the aneurysm into a bronchus; and shock due to rupture of the aneurysm.
      Common causes of phrenic nerve palsy include malignancy such as bronchogenic carcinoma, as well as mediastinal and neck tumours. Phrenic nerve palsy can also occur due to a penetrating injury or due to iatrogenic causes arising, for example, during cardiac surgery and central venous catheterization. Many cases or phrenic nerve palsy are idiopathic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      47.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old male has recently had a splenectomy following a motorcycle accident. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male has recently had a splenectomy following a motorcycle accident. He is up to date with all vaccinations which were offered as part of his childhood vaccination scheme. It is July. Which of the following vaccinations does he require in the first instance?

      Your Answer: Influenza, pneumococcus, Haemophilus type B, pertussis

      Correct Answer: Pneumococcus, meningococcus type B and C, Haemophilus type B

      Explanation:

      Acquired asplenia or hyposlenia can occur following splenectomy. Hyposplenism is used to describe reduced (‘hypo-‘) splenic functioning and is associated with increased risk of sepsis from polysaccharide encapsulated bacteria. In particular, patients are at risk from Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and meningococcus. The risk is elevated as much as 350-fold.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      131.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 53 year-old dancer presents to the ED with increasing weakness. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 53 year-old dancer presents to the ED with increasing weakness. She has no pertinent past medical history aside from a recent diarrhoeal illness, which she attributes to an undercooked chicken meal. Her husband says that she has been unable to get up out of a chair for the past day. Upon examination, there is bilateral limb weakness and areflexia noted, but it is more severe in the lower limbs. You notice that if she lies flat in the bed, her oxygen saturations fall by around 2% on the pulse oximeter and she is unable to perform spirometry. Which of the following represents the most appropriate immediate management of choice in this patient?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin 500 mg po bd

      Correct Answer: ITU review for consideration of ventilation

      Explanation:

      This woman has a history that is suggestive of Guillain- Barre syndrome. This may be precipitated by Campylobacter, and her history of recent diarrhoeal illness is pointing towards that. Certain features point to a poor prognosis, including rapidity of onset, reduced vital capacity or respiratory failure, age >40 and reduced amplitude of compound muscle action potential. Her inability to perform spirometry and desaturating whilst lying flat are suggestive of impending respiratory muscle weakness. Review for consideration of ventilation is recommended. Further management of choice for Guillain-Barre syndrome is IV immunoglobulins. Steroids have no value in the treatment of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      393.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old male complains of numbness in the little and ring fingers of...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old male complains of numbness in the little and ring fingers of his left hand. Which of the following nerves is responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Ulnar Nerve

      Explanation:

      There are three branches of the ulnar nerve that are responsible for its sensory innervation. The palmar cutaneous branch innervates the medial half of the palm. The dorsal cutaneous branch innervates the dorsal surface of the medial one and a half fingers, and the associated dorsal hand area. The superficial branch innervates the palmar surface of the medial one and a half fingers. According to the given history, the superficial branch of ulnar nerve has been affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 62-year-old male patient with long standing COPD presented with reduced vision of...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old male patient with long standing COPD presented with reduced vision of his right eye. He had been on multiple medications. Which of the following drugs is responsible for his visual deterioration?

      Your Answer: Corticosteroid

      Explanation:

      Prolonged use of corticosteroids causes cataracts and this would be the reason for his presentation. B2 agonists, diuretics and Theophylline can cause blurred vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 61-year-old man presented with a TIA and loss of consciousness for 30...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old man presented with a TIA and loss of consciousness for 30 min. His CT brain scan is normal and his ECG shows atrial fibrillation. Which risk assessment score is best used in this case?

      Your Answer: CHADS2

      Explanation:

      CHADS2 score provides a comprehensive prediction of thromboembolic events in avalvular AF patients:
      C Congestive heart failure – 1
      H Hypertension: blood pressure consistently above 140/90 mmHg (or treated hypertension on medication) – 1
      A Age >75 years – 1
      D Diabetes mellitus – 1
      S2 Prior Stroke or TIA or Thromboembolism – 2

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 71 year-old dentist is seen in clinic with a history of worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 71 year-old dentist is seen in clinic with a history of worsening memory problems and confusion. His wife had noted that his sleep was becoming more disturbed and he complains of vivid nightmares and visual hallucinations. Over the past few weeks, he has had increasing difficulty in dressing himself, and his mobility has deteriorated. On examination, he is bradykinesia with a resting tremor and rigidity affecting his arms and legs. His Mini-Mental-State Examination (MMSE) is 18/30. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alzheimer's disease

      Correct Answer: Lewy body disease

      Explanation:

      Lewy body dementia is the second most common cause of dementia in the elderly after Alzheimer’s disease. The core feature is a progressive dementia, but other characteristic features include Parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, fluctuating cognitive abilities and executive function, and an increased risk of falls or autonomic failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      93.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which one of the following medications is most useful for helping to prevent...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following medications is most useful for helping to prevent attacks of Meniere's disease?

      Your Answer: Chlorphenamine

      Correct Answer: Betahistine

      Explanation:

      Betahistine is a histamine analogue that has been the mainstay treatment drug for Meniere’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 1-month-old boy was brought to the ED by his mother because he...

    Correct

    • A 1-month-old boy was brought to the ED by his mother because he has been irritable and feeding poorly for the last 24 hours. His CXR shows cardiomegaly but with clear lung fields while his ECG shows a regular narrow complex tachycardia with difficulty identifying the P wave. The boy is conscious but has cold extremities. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Synchronized DC cardio-version

      Explanation:

      The most possible diagnosis is SVT. The boy is suffering from hemodynamic instability, as indicated by his cold extremities. DC cardioversion is the treatment of choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 66-year-old baker presents to the oncology clinic with six-month history of weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old baker presents to the oncology clinic with six-month history of weight loss and anorexia. Tumour marker profile shows an elevated level of bombesin.

      Out of the following, which is the most likely cancer to account for this result?

      Your Answer: Lymphoma

      Correct Answer: Small cell lung carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Bombesin is a tumour marker elevated in small cell lung carcinomas, as well as in gastric carcinomas and retinoblastomas.

      Tumour markers can be divided into:
      1. Monoclonal antibodies
      CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
      CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
      CA 15-3: Breast cancer

      2. Tumour specific antigens
      Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
      Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
      S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
      Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer

      3. Enzymes
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
      Neuron specific enolase (NSE)

      4. Hormones
      Calcitonin
      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 69-year-old male with a history of Hepatitis C liver cirrhosis presented with...

    Incorrect

    • A 69-year-old male with a history of Hepatitis C liver cirrhosis presented with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. He had no symptoms of hypovolaemia. Choose the best treatment option to prevent the patient from developing hepatorenal syndrome.

      Your Answer: Regular lactulose use

      Correct Answer: Intravenous albumin administration

      Explanation:

      In randomised controlled trials, the administration of albumin has been shown to lower the risk of the hepatorenal syndrome – this is thought to be due to its positive effect on circulatory systems. Diuretics can aid in the prevention of renal failure, but this patient is not showing signs of hypovolaemia. Synthetic disaccharide lactulose is primarily used for the prevention of hepatic encephalopathy, which has no function in preventing hepatorenal syndrome. Limited evidence is available for the use of Neomycin as a treatment for hepatic encephalopathy, but is associated with nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      136.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 40-year-old truck operator who smokes one and a half packs of cigarette...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old truck operator who smokes one and a half packs of cigarette per day complains of a cough and fever for the last three days. He also has right-sided chest pain when he inhales. On examination he is slightly cyanosed, has a temperature of 38.1°C, a respiratory rate of 39/min, a BP of 104/71 mm/Hg and a pulse rate of 132/min. He has basal crepitations and dullness to percussion at the right lung base.
      What could be a probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchopneumonia

      Explanation:

      Bronchopneumonia presents as a patchy consolidation involving one or more lobes, usually the dependent lung zones, a pattern attributable to aspiration of oropharyngeal contents.

      Symptoms of bronchopneumonia may be like other types of pneumonia. This condition often begins with flu-like symptoms that can become more severe over a few days. The symptoms include:
      – fever
      – a cough that brings up mucus
      – shortness of breath
      – chest pain
      – rapid breathing
      – sweating
      – chills
      – headaches
      – muscle aches
      – pleurisy, or chest pain that results from inflammation due to excessive coughing
      – fatigue
      – confusion or delirium, especially in older people

      There are several factors that can increase your risk of developing bronchopneumonia. These include:
      – Age: People who are 65 years of age or older, and children who are 2 years or younger, have a higher risk for developing bronchopneumonia and complications from the condition.
      – Environmental: People who work in, or often visit, hospital or nursing home facilities have a higher risk for developing bronchopneumonia.
      – Lifestyle: Smoking, poor nutrition, and a history of heavy alcohol use can increase your risk for bronchopneumonia.
      – Medical conditions: Having certain medical conditions can increase your risk for developing this type of pneumonia. These include: chronic lung disease, such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), HIV/AIDS, having a weakened immune system due to chemotherapy or the use of immunosuppressive drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      515.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 57-year-old, alcoholic male was admitted to the medical ward for an ascitic...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old, alcoholic male was admitted to the medical ward for an ascitic tap. The ascitic fluid was found to be yellow in colour. Which of the following had most likely lead to this observation?

      Your Answer: Decompensated cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      Uncomplicated cirrhotic ascites is usually translucent. If the patient is deeply jaundiced, the fluid might appear yellow/brown.
      Turbidity or cloudiness of the ascites fluid suggests that infection is present and further diagnostic testing should be performed.
      Pink or bloody fluid is most often caused by mild trauma, with subcutaneous blood contaminating the sample.
      Bloody ascites is also associated with hepatocellular carcinoma or any malignancy-associated ascites.
      Milky-appearing fluid usually has an elevated triglyceride concentration. Such fluid, commonly referred to as chylous ascites, can be related to thoracic duct injury or obstruction or lymphoma, but it is often related primarily to cirrhosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary System
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 37-year-old teacher with multiple sclerosis complains that her vision becomes blurred during...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old teacher with multiple sclerosis complains that her vision becomes blurred during a hot bath. Which of the following explain this?

      Your Answer: Lhermitte's sign

      Correct Answer: Uhthoff's phenomenon

      Explanation:

      Uhthoff’s phenomenon is worsening of vision following a rise in body temperature.
      Lhermitte’s sign describes paraesthesia in the limbs on neck flexion.
      Oppenheim’s sign is seen when scratching of the inner side of leg leads to extension of the toes. It is a sign of cerebral irritation and is not related to multiple sclerosis.
      Werdnig-Hoffman’s disease is also known as spinal muscular atrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old man smokes 20 cigarettes/day for the last 28 years. He presents...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man smokes 20 cigarettes/day for the last 28 years. He presents with a 2-month history of drooping eyelid, hoarseness of voice, and a palpable mass in the right supraclavicular fossa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pancoast tumour

      Explanation:

      Smoking history and symptoms suggest a Pancoast tumour as the diagnosis. Compression of sympathetic ganglion can cause ptosis, involvement of the supraclavicular lymph node results in a palpable mass in the right supraclavicular fossa, and voice hoarseness related to laryngeal nerve compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      490.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 34-year-old female presents to the clinic with skin tightness. On examination she...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old female presents to the clinic with skin tightness. On examination she has sclerodactyly, thickened skin of the shoulders and bi-basal crepitations. Her HRCT chest shows ground glass changes. Raynaud phenomenon is suspected and she is started on a monthly dose of IV cyclophosphamide (1 gm/month) for 6 months and a daily dose of 10 mg of oral prednisolone. However, she returned over a period of few weeks after developing exertional dyspnoea, pedal oedema and feeling unwell. On examination, JVP is raised, there is marked pedal oedema and bi basal crepitations on chest auscultation. Urine dipstick shows haematuria (++) and proteinuria (++). What in your opinion is the most likely cause of her deteriorating renal function?

      Your Answer: Scleroderma renal crisis

      Explanation:

      Scleroderma renal crisis (SRC) is a rare but severe complication in patients with systemic sclerosis (SSc). It is characterized by malignant hypertension, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia with schistocytes and oligo/anuric acute renal failure. SRC occurs in 5% of patients with systemic scleroderma, particularly in the first years of disease evolution and in the diffuse form. Patients may develop symptoms of fluid overload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      35.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old woman presents with coughing up copious sputum with blood streaks, increased...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with coughing up copious sputum with blood streaks, increased breathlessness, and finger clubbing. She has a history of chronic cough. What is the initial investigation?

      Your Answer: Chest x-ray

      Explanation:

      Finger clubbing and past history suggest a chronic pulmonary process going on. A CXR will allow the pathology to be visualised including any infective or cancerous causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      88.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 21 year-old male, who is a known alcoholic, presents with a fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year-old male, who is a known alcoholic, presents with a fever, haemoptysis, green sputum and an effusion clinically. There is concern that it may be an empyema.
       
      Which test would be most useful to resolve the suspicion?

      Your Answer: Pleural fluid white cell count and differential

      Correct Answer: Pleural fluid pH

      Explanation:

      If a pleural effusion is present, a diagnostic thoracentesis may be performed and analysed for pH, lactate dehydrogenase, glucose levels, specific gravity, and cell count with differential. Pleural fluid may also be sent for Gram stain, culture, and sensitivity. Acid-fast bacillus testing may also be considered and the fluid may be sent for cytology if cancer is suspected.

      The following findings are suggestive of an empyema or parapneumonic effusion that will likely need a chest tube or pigtail catheter for complete resolution:
      -Grossly purulent pleural fluid
      -pH level less than 7.2
      -WBC count greater than 50,000 cells/µL (or polymorphonuclear leukocyte count of 1,000 IU/dL)
      -Glucose level less than 60 mg/dL
      -Lactate dehydrogenase level greater than 1,000 IU/mL
      -Positive pleural fluid culture

      The most often used golden criteria for empyema are pleural effusion with macroscopic presence of pus, a positive Gram stain or culture of pleural fluid, or a pleural fluid pH under 7.2 with normal peripheral blood ph.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      110
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal System (1/1) 100%
Emergency & Critical Care (1/1) 100%
Respiratory System (3/5) 60%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Nervous System (2/6) 33%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular System (1/1) 100%
Haematology & Oncology (0/1) 0%
Renal System (0/1) 0%
Hepatobiliary System (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal System (1/1) 100%
Passmed