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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old female underwent surgery for a hysterectomy. 24 hours later, she is...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old female underwent surgery for a hysterectomy. 24 hours later, she is complaining of breathlessness. Upon examination, she has bibasal chest crepitations and a raised jugular venous pressure (JVP). From the list of options, which is the most likely electrolyte or fluid abnormality?

      Your Answer: Fluid overload

      Explanation:

      The raised JVP and bibasal crepitations in the patient indicate cardiac failure with fluid overload. A chest x-ray and BNP blood level analysis should be performed to confirm this diagnosis. The x-rays should be analysed for alveolar shadowing, Kerly B lines, cardiomegaly, upper lobe diversion, pleural effusion, and fluid in the fissure. If the patient doesn’t have a history of congestive cardiac failure, then this may have been iatrogenic secondary to intravenous fluids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The family of a 10-year-old boy was advised to take the boy to...

    Correct

    • The family of a 10-year-old boy was advised to take the boy to see an oncologist, for suspected lymphoma. The boy had lymphadenopathy on presentation. His mother says that he's had a fever, night sweats and has experienced weight loss. The boy underwent a lymph node biopsy at the oncologist which suggests Burkitt's lymphoma. Which oncogene are you expecting to see after molecular testing?

      Your Answer: c-MYC

      Explanation:

      Burkitt lymphoma is a germinal centre B-cell-derived cancer that was instrumental in the identification of MYC as an important human oncogene more than three decades ago. Recently, new genomics technologies have uncovered several additional oncogenic mechanisms that cooperate with MYC to create this highly aggressive cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - In chemotherapy, what is the rationale behind using combinations of chemotherapeutic agents rather...

    Incorrect

    • In chemotherapy, what is the rationale behind using combinations of chemotherapeutic agents rather than single agents?

      Your Answer: Combination therapy can be given over a shorter period of time

      Correct Answer: Combination therapy decreases the chances of drug resistance developing

      Explanation:

      There are two main reasons for using combinations of chemotherapeutic agents rather than single agents. First, different drugs exert their effects through different mechanisms, therefore, carefully combining them will increase the number of tumour cells killed in each cycle as well as decrease their chances of developing drug resistance. Second, there may be an even greater effect with drugs that are synergistic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 81-year-old woman had fallen down in her house. She is now unable...

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year-old woman had fallen down in her house. She is now unable to walk. An x-ray was done on her left hip joint, which showed a fracture in the neck of the femur. Which nerve is most likely to be injured?

      Your Answer: Femoral nerve

      Correct Answer: Sciatic nerve

      Explanation:

      Femoral neck fractures are common injuries that most often result from low-energy falls in the elderly; however, they also can occur in young patients as a result of high-energy mechanisms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 72-year-old man is referred to the haematology department with raised haemoglobin and...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is referred to the haematology department with raised haemoglobin and platelet levels. A diagnosis of polycythaemia vera is suspected.

      Which other abnormality of the blood would be most consistent with this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Raised ferritin level

      Correct Answer: Neutrophilia

      Explanation:

      Neutrophilia is also commonly associated with polycythaemia vera.

      Polycythaemia vera (PV), also known as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of marrow stem cells leading to an increase in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade of life, with typical features including hyperviscosity, pruritus, splenomegaly, haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function), and plethoric appearance.

      Some management options of PV include lose-dose aspirin, venesection (first-line treatment), hydroxyurea (slightly increased risk of secondary leukaemia), and radioactive phosphorus (P-32) therapy.

      In PV, thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. 5-15% of the cases progress to myelofibrosis or AML. The risk of having AML is increased with chemotherapy treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      957.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 24-year-old man who has been persistently vomiting is put on IV fluid....

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man who has been persistently vomiting is put on IV fluid. He is complaining of left flank pain of a colicky nature. Which analgesic would you administer?

      Your Answer: Gabapentin

      Correct Answer: Intramuscular diclofenac

      Explanation:

      If the patient is unable to ingest adequate oral analgesia due to vomiting, IM or suppositories should be considered. First line treatment for renal colic is NSAIDs (Diclofenac) which can be administered intramuscularly or by suppository.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      83.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the statements is most accurate regarding the lung? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the statements is most accurate regarding the lung?

      Your Answer: The medial basal segment is absent in the left lower lobe

      Explanation:

      The right and left lung anatomy are similar but asymmetrical. The right lung consists of three lobes: right upper lobe (RUL), right middle lobe (RML), and right lower lobe (RLL). The left lung consists of two lobes: right upper lobe (RUL) and right lower lobe (RLL). The right lobe is divided by an oblique and horizontal fissure, where the horizontal fissure divides the upper and middle lobe, and the oblique fissure divides the middle and lower lobes. In the left lobe there is only an oblique fissure that separates the upper and lower lobe.

      The lobes further divide into segments which are associated with specific segmental bronchi. Segmental bronchi are the third-order branches off the second-order branches (lobar bronchi) that come off the main bronchus.

      The right lung consists of ten segments. There are three segments in the RUL (apical, anterior and posterior), two in the RML (medial and lateral), and five in the RLL (superior, medial, anterior, lateral, and posterior). The oblique fissure separates the RUL from the RML, and the horizontal fissure separates the RLL from the RML and RUL.

      There are eight to nine segments on the left depending on the division of the lobe. In general, there are four segments in the left upper lobe (anterior, apicoposterior, inferior and superior lingula) and four or five in the left lower lobe (lateral, anteromedial, superior and posterior). The medium sized airways offer the maximum airway resistance, not smaller ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      86.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 31-year-old female complains of bilateral proximal muscle weakness. There is marked blanching...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old female complains of bilateral proximal muscle weakness. There is marked blanching of fingers especially in response to cold weather. Lab results are as follows:
      Anti Jo-1: positive
      ANA: positive
      CK: 2000 U/L
      ESR: 60mm/hr
      EMG: myopathic changes
      Presence of which of the following signifies the worst prognosis?

      Your Answer: Dysphagia

      Correct Answer: Interstitial lung disease

      Explanation:

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder causing symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is thought to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibres. It may be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. It may also be associated with malignancy for example small cell lung carcinoma.
      Dermatomyositis is a variant of the disease where skin manifestations are prominent, for example a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids.
      It typically affects middle-aged, female: male 3:1. Features include proximal muscle weakness +/- tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease: e.g. fibrosing alveolitis or organising pneumonia, dysphagia, dysphonia. Investigations: elevated creatine kinase, other muscle enzymes (lactate dehydrogenase (LD), aldolase, AST and ALT) are also elevated in 85-95% of patients, EMG, muscle biopsy. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s and fever. Interstitial lung disease plays a major role in morbidity and mortality in patients with polymyositis and is considered a major risk factor for premature death in patients with myositis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      50.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - How would you advise your patient to apply an emollient and a steroid...

    Correct

    • How would you advise your patient to apply an emollient and a steroid cream, in order to treat her eczema?

      Your Answer: First use emollient then steroids.

      Explanation:

      If steroid is applied first, applying an emollient after could spread it from where it had been applied. If steroid is applied immediately after the emollient then it cannot be absorbed, this is why there should be a time interval of around thirty minutes between these two treatments in order for them to be effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • The Skin
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old male is complaining about sore feet and lower back pain. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male is complaining about sore feet and lower back pain. He says it feels like walking on gravel. He also mentioned have some urethral discharge that he had not received any treatment for. He had a holiday in Morocco recently. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gonococcal arthritis

      Correct Answer: Sjogren's Syndrome

      Explanation:

      This is a case of Sjogren Syndrome (aka Reiter’s disease). It is characterised by a triad of: seronegative arthritis mostly sacroiliitis (walking on gravel reflects planter fasciitis), urethritis and conjunctivitis. Sjogren Syndrome usually follows gastroenteritis or non specific urethritis. On the other hand gonococcal arthritis usually occurs in patients who are systemically unwell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      59.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 40-year-old woman presents to the ED with palpitations and shortness of breath.

    Recent...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to the ED with palpitations and shortness of breath.

      Recent thyroid function tests on the hospital computer reveal thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) of <0.05 mU/l and a markedly elevated T4. You arrange blood gas testing.

      Which of the following findings would be most consistent with Grave's disease?

      Your Answer: Decreased pa(CO2)

      Explanation:

      Hyperthyroid patients show significantly lower resting arterial CO2 tension, tidal volume and significantly higher mean inspiratory flow and pa(O2) than healthy patients. This may of course lead to misdiagnosis of patients with hyperthyroidism as having hyperventilation syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      94
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 48-year-old man with a two year history of ulcerative colitis, has been...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man with a two year history of ulcerative colitis, has been receiving parenteral nutrition for 4 months. He has developed a dermatitis and has noticed some loss of hair. Serum biochemistry shows a marginally raised glucose concentration and a lower alkaline phosphatase activity.

      Which of the following is the most likely?

      Your Answer: Zinc deficiency

      Explanation:

      Zinc deficiency can present with alopecia, dermatitis, poor growth, increased susceptibility to infection, and cognitive deficiency. Magnesium deficiency can cause fatigue, cramping and an irregular EKG. Copper deficiency can present with fatigue and weakness. Chromium deficiency can present with hyperglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      44.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A study is carried out to assess the efficacy of a rapid urine...

    Correct

    • A study is carried out to assess the efficacy of a rapid urine screening test developed to detect Chlamydia. The total number of people involved in the study were 200. The study compared the new test to the already existing NAAT techniques. The new test was positive in 20 patients that were Chlamydia positive and in 3 patients that were Chlamydia negative. For 5 patients that were Chlamydia positive and 172 patients that were Chlamydia negative the test turned out to be negative. Choose the correct value regarding the negative predictive value of the new test:

      Your Answer: 172/177

      Explanation:

      The definition of negative predictive value is the probability that the individuals with truly negative screening test don’t have Chlamydia. The equation is the following: Negative predictive value = Truly negative/(truly negative + false negative) = 172 / (172 + 5) = 172 / 177

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      242
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following statements is the most characteristic of primary Raynaud's phenomenon?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is the most characteristic of primary Raynaud's phenomenon?

      Your Answer: Nail fold capillary scope shows dilated vessels

      Correct Answer: Fingers are symmetrically involved during an attack

      Explanation:

      A typical attack may last less than an hour but can also persist for longer. In primary Raynaud’s, attacks are more likely symmetric, episodic, and without evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Patients more commonly have a negative ANA and normal inflammatory markers. There should be no evidence of tissue gangrene, digital pitting, or tissue injury in primary Raynaud’s. In contrast, patients with secondary Raynaud’s will describe attacks that are more frequent, painful, often asymmetric and may lead to digital ulcerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 70-year-old male diagnosed previously with villous adenoma presented in the OPD with...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male diagnosed previously with villous adenoma presented in the OPD with severe diarrhoea. Which of the following electrolyte or fluid imbalances is most commonly associated with such a condition?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Lower GIT fluid is rich in potassium. So, in the case of severe diarrhoea, potassium loss occurs leading to hypokalaemia. Loss of bicarbonate ions also occurs. Both of these disturbances will lead to hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      138.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old man is referred to the oncology clinic with progressively worsening lower...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man is referred to the oncology clinic with progressively worsening lower back pain for the last three months and history of weight loss for the past eight months. MRI lumbar spine confirms the suspicion of bone metastasis.

      What is the most likely primary tumour?

      Your Answer: Prostate carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Prostate cancer is the most common primary tumour that metastasises to the bone.

      Most common tumours causing bone metastasis (in descending order):
      1. Prostate (32%)
      2. Breast (22%)
      3. Kidneys (16%)
      4. Lungs
      5. Thyroid

      Most common sites of bone metastasis (in descending order):
      1. Spine
      2. Pelvis
      3. Ribs
      4. Skull
      5. Long bones

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 75-year-old man was admitted with urinary dribbling and incontinence. Upon examination, there...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man was admitted with urinary dribbling and incontinence. Upon examination, there is a palpable mass up to the umbilicus. His clothes smell of ammonia and he is known to be a chronic alcoholic. What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Urethral catheter

      Explanation:

      It is obvious in this case that chronic alcohol use has contributed to the patient’s urinary incontinence which requires a urethral catheter. Suprapubic catheters are usually preferred in cases of acute urinary retention while condom catheters are indicated in less severe cases of urinary incontinence. We would administer antibiotics if we suspected a urinary infection causing the urinary incontinence, but in this case the cause is obvious.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 34-year-old male patient is admitted with hemisection of the spinal cord at...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old male patient is admitted with hemisection of the spinal cord at the level T5, after being stabbed in the back. Which sign would you expect to see by assessing the patient's sensory function and muscle strength?

      Your Answer: Contralateral loss of temperature, ipsilateral loss of fine touch and vibration, ipsilateral spastic paresis

      Explanation:

      Depending on the level of SCI, patients experience paraplegia or tetraplegia. Paraplegia is defined as the impairment of sensory or motor function in lower extremities. Patients with incomplete paraplegia generally have a good prognosis in regaining locomotor ability (,76% of patients) within a year. Complete paraplegic patients, however, experience limited recovery of lower limb function if their NLI is above T9. The spinothalamic tract is the one responsible for sensory information such as pain or temperature. However, it decussates at the same level the nerve root enters the spinal cord, meaning that the sensory loss will be contralateral. However, the dorsal column carries sensory fibres for fine touch and vibration and it decussates at the medulla which means that the sensory loss will be ipsilateral. The corticospinal tract is responsible for motor functions and it decussates at the medulla, meaning that the motor function loss will be ipsilateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      78.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 23-year-old female presents to the hospital with worsening shortness of breath, increased...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old female presents to the hospital with worsening shortness of breath, increased volume of purulent sputum and left-sided chest pain. She has a history of cystic fibrosis. Medical notes state that she is under consideration for the transplant list and for some years has been colonised with pseudomonas.
      On examination she has a temperature of 38.4°C and FEV1 falling below 75% of the previous value that was recorded. She looks unwell and is tachycardic and hypotensive with a respiratory rate of 21/min. Burkholderia cepacia is confirmed as the pathogen in this case.

      What would be the most appropriate antibiotic regime?

      Your Answer: Ceftazidime and aminoglycoside

      Explanation:

      Burkholderia cepacia is an aerobic gram-negative bacillus found in various aquatic environments. B cepacia is an organism of low virulence and is a frequent colonizer of fluids used in the hospital (e.g., irrigation solutions, intravenous fluids).
      B cepacia, as a non-aeruginosa pseudomonad, is usually resistant to aminoglycosides, antipseudomonal penicillin, and antipseudomonal third-generation cephalosporins and polymyxin B.
      B cepacia is often susceptible to trimethoprim plus sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), cefepime, meropenem, minocycline, and tigecycline and has varying susceptibility to fluoroquinolones.
      Based on the options available, ceftazidime and aminoglycoside would be the best option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old female was examined after complaining of weak limbs. It was discovered...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female was examined after complaining of weak limbs. It was discovered she had burn marks on her fingers, diminished reflexes, and wasted and weak hands. Additionally, she has dissociated sensory loss and weak spastic legs. What is the diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: MS

      Correct Answer: Syringomyelia

      Explanation:

      All of the symptoms experienced by this patient are consistent with Syringomyelia. The sensory features are as follows: loss of temperature and pain sensation; sensory loss in the arms, shoulders, and upper body; touch, vibration, and position senses are affected in the feet as the syrinx enlarges into the dorsal column. Motor features are as follows: muscle wasting and weakness which begins in the hand, and moves onto the forearms and shoulders; loss of tendon reflexes. Autonomic involvement, such as the bladder and bowel, can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      141.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Emergency & Critical Care (2/3) 67%
Haematology & Oncology (2/4) 50%
Musculoskeletal System (0/4) 0%
Respiratory System (2/2) 100%
The Skin (1/1) 100%
Endocrine System & Metabolism (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal System (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Medicine (1/1) 100%
Renal System (1/1) 100%
Nervous System (1/2) 50%
Passmed