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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 31-year old Caucasian female came into the emergency department due to difficulty of breathing. History revealed exposure to room odorizes that are rich in alkyl nitrites. Upon physical examination, patient is tachypnoeic at 32 breaths per minute, desaturated at 88% while on a non-rebreather mask at 15 litres per minute oxygen. She was also noted to be cyanotic, however with clear breath sounds.
Considering the history, what is the most probable cause of her difficulty of breathing?Your Answer: Unusually high concentrations of haemoglobin containing iron in the ferrous form
Correct Answer: Increased affinity of bound oxygen to haemoglobin
Explanation:Amyl nitrate is part of the treatment of cyanide poisoning. The short acting nitrate causes oxidation of Fe2+ in haemoglobin to Fe3+ in methaemoglobin. Methaemoglobin combines with cyanide (cyanmethemoglobin), which reacts with sodium thiosulfate to convert nontoxic thiocyanate and methaemoglobin.
Methaemoglobin is formed when the iron in haemoglobin is converted from the reduced state (Fe2+) to the oxidized state (Fe3+). The oxidized form of haemoglobin (Fe3+) does not bind oxygen as readily as Fe2+, but has high affinity for cyanide. It also results to high affinity of bound oxygen to haemoglobin, thus leading to tissue hypoxia. Arterial oxygen tension is normal despite observations of cyanosis and dyspnoea. Methemoglobinemia can be treated with methylene blue and vitamin C.
Carboxyhaemoglobin can be due to carbon monoxide poisoning. In such cases, patients experience headache and dizziness, but do not develop cyanosis.
2,3-diphosphoglycerate causes a shift in the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, decreasing haemoglobin’s affinity to oxygen to facilitate unloading of oxygen to the tissues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which medical gas cylinders have the correct colour codes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oxygen cylinders have a black body with white shoulders
Explanation:The following are the colour codes for medical gas cylinders:
Oxygen cylinder has a dark body with white shoulders.
Nitrous oxide is French blue. Air encompasses a grey body with dark and white quarters on the shoulders.
Entonox contains a French blue body with white and blue quarters on the shoulders.
Carbon dioxide barrels are grey in colour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old man, present to the emergency department with dyspepsia. On history taking, he admits to being a heavy smoker, and on testing is noted to be positive for a helicobacter pylori infection. A few evenings later, he suffers from haematemesis and collapses.
What vessel is most likely to be involved?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:The most likely of the differential diagnosis in this case is a duodenal ulcer located on the posterior abdominal wall.
These can cause an erosion of the abdominal wall, eventually affecting the gastroduodenal artery and resulting in major bleeding and haematemesis.
Gastroduodenal artery supplies the pylorus, proximal part of the duodenum, and indirectly to the pancreatic head (via the anterior and posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal arteries)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Fixed performance devices like high air flow oxygen enrichment (HAFOE) masks have large volumes of air entrained into a flow of 100% oxygen.
The term that best describes the physics behind air entrainment is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bernoulli's principle
Explanation:Bernoulli’s principle states that as the speed of a moving fluid increases, there is a simultaneously decrease in static pressure or a decrease in the fluid’s potential energy.
This is seen in the simultaneous increase in speed and kinetic energy and fall in pressure that causes entrainment of large volumes of air into a flow of 100% oxygen in the nozzle of HAFOE masks.The reduction in fluid pressure that happens when a fluid flows through a constriction in a tube is the Venturi effect.
When a flow of gas or liquid attaches itself to a nearby surface and remains attached even when the surface curves away from the initial direction of flow, this is the Coanda effect.
The branch of engineering and technology that is concerned with the building of devices that use the flow and pressure of a fluid for functions usually performed by electronic devices is Fluidics . Fluidic logic is used to power some ventilators.
The branch of engineering that utilises pressurised gases is Pneumatics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Regarding aldosterone, one of the following is true.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secretion is increased following haematemesis
Explanation:Aldosterone is produced in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex and acts to increase sodium reabsorption via intracellular mineralocorticoid receptors in the distal tubules and collecting ducts of the nephron.
Its release is stimulated by hypovolaemia, blood loss ,and low plasma sodium and is inhibited by hypertension and increased sodium. It is regulated by the renin-angiotensin system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which is correct about normal distribution?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mean = mode = median
Explanation:The normal distribution is a symmetrical, bell-shaped distribution in which the mean, median and mode are all equal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which statement is false in regards to the Circle of Willis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Majority of blood passing through the vessels mix together
Explanation:There is minimum mixing of blood passing through the vessels.
The cerebral hemispheres are supplied by arteries that make up the Circle of Willis. The Circle of Willis is formed by the anastomosis of the two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries. It lies in the subarachnoid space within the basal cisterns that surround the optic chiasma and infundibulum.
Each half of the circle is formed by:
1. Anterior communicating artery
2. Anterior cerebral artery
3. Internal carotid artery
4. Posterior communicating artery
5. Posterior cerebral arteries and the termination of the basilar arteryThe circle and its branches supply; the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following best describes the phenomenon of higher partial pressures of oxygen in the alveoli (PAO2) in the lung apices when in the upright position?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) ratio is greater than in the basal units
Explanation:The ventilation/perfusion ratio varies in different areas of the lung. In an upright individual, although both ventilation and perfusion increase from the apex to the base of the lung, the increase in ventilation is less than the increase in blood flow. As a result, the normal V̇ /Q̇ ratio at the apex of the lung is much greater than 1 (ventilation exceeds perfusion), whereas the V̇ /Q̇ ratio at the base of the lung is much less than 1 (perfusion exceeds ventilation).
There is more volume in the alveoli found in the apices than in the bases of the lungs. This is due to the weight of the lung stretching the apical alveoli to the maximum size. Also, the weight of the lungs pull themselves away from the chest wall, creating a negative intrapleural pressure. These factors, however, do not directly affect the PAO2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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During positive pressure ventilation using positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP), there is usually an associated reduction in cardiac output
Which of the following is responsible?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced venous return to the heart
Explanation:The option that is most responsible is the progressive decrease in venous return of blood to the right atrium. The heart rate does not usually change with PEEP so the fall in cardiac output is due to a reduction in left ventricular (LV) stroke volume (SV).
Note that the interventricular septum does shift toward the left and there is an increased pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) from overdistention of alveolar air sacs that contribute to the reduction in cardiac output. Any increase in PVR will be associated with reduced pulmonary vascular capacitance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A man suffers damage to his vagus nerve during surgery on his neck. The vagus nerve is cut near its exit from the skull. The man loses his parasympathetic tone raising his heart rate and blood pressure.
What other feature will be likely present with a vagus nerve injury?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hoarse voice
Explanation:The vagus nerve is a mixed nerve with both autonomic and somatic effects. Its most important somatic effect is the motor supply to the larynx via recurrent laryngeal nerves. If one vagus nerve is damaged, the result will be the same as damage to a single recurrent laryngeal nerve, leading to hoarseness of voice.
The vagus exits the skull via the jugular foramen, accompanied by the accessory nerve.
Anal tone, erections, and urination are all controlled by the sacral parasympathetic and would not be affected by the loss of the vagus. Parasympathetic controlled pupillary constriction is via the oculomotor nerve and would not be affected by the loss of the vagus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 11
Incorrect
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The tissue layer in a patient is infiltrated with local anaesthetic (marcaine 0.125%) with 1 in 120,000 adrenaline as part of an enhanced recovery programme for primary hip replacement surgery. The total volume of solution is 120mL.
What is the appropriate combination of constituents in the final solution?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline
Explanation:30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline is the correct answer.
Initial concentration of bupivacaine is 0.5% with a volume of 30mLThe volume is doubled (60mL) by the addition of 0.9% N. saline (30mls) and the concentration of bupivacaine is halved to (0.25%).
If the volume is doubled again (120mL) by the addition of further 0.9% N. saline (59mls) the final concentration of bupivacaine is halved again to 0.125%. Total N. saline = 89mls
The 1 mL of 1 in 1000 adrenaline has also been diluted into the final volume of 120 mL making it a 1 in 120000 concentration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true about data analysed from a new drug trial?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The data could be evaluated using the chi square test
Explanation:The data is ideal for chi square test evaluation as it will help determine if observed outcomes are in line with expected outcomes, and also if results are significant or due to chance.
The student’s t test is not ideal as it requires comparison of means from different populations, rather than proportions.
Pearson’s coefficient of linear regression is not ideal as it requires the plotting of a linear regression.
The numbers should be analysed before determining if there are any statistical conclusions that can be drawn from the population.
Statistical analysis is always required to determine the performance of any treatment during a clinical drug trial. Conclusions cannot be drawn simply by looking at the data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 13
Incorrect
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An older woman has been brought into the emergency department with symptoms of a stroke. A CT angiogram is performed for diagnosis, which displays narrowing in the artery that supplies the right common carotid. Which of the following artery is the cause of stroke in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brachiocephalic artery
Explanation:The arch of aorta gives rise to three main branches:
1. Brachiocephalic artery
2. Left common carotid artery
3. Left subclavian arteryThe brachiocephalic artery then gives rise to the right subclavian artery and the right common carotid artery.
The right common carotid artery arises from the brachiocephalic trunk posterior to the sternoclavicular joint.
The coeliac trunk is a branch of the abdominal aorta.
The ascending aorta supplies the coronary arteries. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with central crushing chest pain that radiates to the jaw in the emergency department. He has associated symptoms of nausea and diaphoresis.
A 12 lead ECG is performed. ST-elevation is observed in leads V2-V4. The diagnosis of anteroseptal ST-elevation myocardial infarction is made.
Which coronary vessel is responsible for this condition and runs in the interventricular septum on the anterior surface of the heart to reach the apex?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left anterior descending artery
Explanation:The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.
The left main coronary artery branches into:
1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septumThe left anterior descending coronary artery is the largest coronary artery. It courses anterior to the interventricular septum in the anterior interventricular groove, extending from the base of the heart to its apex. Around the apex, the LAD anastomosis with the terminal branches of the posterior descending artery (branch of the right coronary artery).
Atherosclerosis or thrombotic occlusion of LAD causes myocardial infarction in large areas of the anterior, septal, and apical portions of the heart muscle. It can lead to a serious deterioration in heart performance.Occlusion of the LAD causes anteroseptal myocardial infarction, which is evident on the ECG with changes in leads V1-V4. Occlusion of the left circumflex artery causes lateral, posterior, or anterolateral MI. However, as it does not run towards the apex in the interventricular septum of the heart, it is not the correct answer for this question.
The right coronary artery branches into:
1. Right marginal artery
2. Posterior descending arteryThe right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. Occlusion of the right coronary artery causes inferior MI, which is indicated on ECG with changes in leads II, III, and aVF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Incorrect
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An 84-year-old woman has a fall. She fractures the neck of her femur and requires emergency surgery.
On history and examination, she appears to also have a possible heart failure for which an echocardiogram is scheduled.
Her measurements are:
End-diastolic volume: 40mL (70-240)
End-systolic volume: 30mL (16-140)
Calculate her approximate ejection fraction.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 25%
Explanation:An echocardiogram provides real-time visualisation of cardiac structures. The ejection fraction (EF) is normally measured using this system.
The ejection fraction (EF) can be deduced mathematically if the patient’s end-diastolic volume (EDV), end-systolic volume (ESV) and stroke volume (SV) are known, as:
SV = EDV – ESV, and
EF = SV/EDV x 100
The normal range for EF is >55-70%.
For this patient,
SV= 40 – 30 = 10 mL, therefore
EF = 10/40 x 100 = 25%
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 16
Incorrect
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After consuming 12 g of paracetamol, a 37-year-old man is admitted to the medical admissions unit. He has hepatocellular necrosis in both clinical and biochemical aspects.
The most significant reason for paracetamol causing toxicity is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glutathione is rapidly exhausted
Explanation:Phase I and phase II metabolism are used by the liver to break down paracetamol.
1st Phase:
Prostaglandin synthetase and cytochrome P450 (CYP1A2, CYP2E2, CYP3A4 and CYP2D6) to N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine (NAPQI) and N-acetylbenzo-semiquinoneimine. NAPQI is a toxic metabolite that binds to the sulfhydryl groups of cellular proteins in hepatocytes, making it toxic. This can result in centrilobular necrosis.
Glutathione and glutathione transferases prevent NAPQI from binding to hepatocytes at low paracetamol doses by preferentially binding to these toxic metabolites. The cysteine and mercapturic acid conjugates are then excreted in the urine. Depletion of glutathione occurs at higher doses of paracetamol, resulting in high levels of NAPQI and the risk of hepatocellular damage. Hepatotoxicity would not be an issue if the body’s glutathione stores were sufficient.
N-acetylcysteine is a precursor for glutathione synthesis and is the drug of choice for the treatment of paracetamol overdose.
Phase II:
Conjugation with glucuronic acid to paracetamol glucuronide is the most common method of metabolism and excretion, accounting for 60% of renally excreted metabolites. Paracetamol sulphate (35%), unchanged paracetamol (5%), and mercapturic acid are among the other renally excreted metabolites (3 percent ). The capacity of conjugation pathways is limited. The capacity of the sulphate conjugation pathway is lower than that of the glucuronidation pathway.
Because of the low pH in the stomach, paracetamol absorption is minimal (pKa value is 9.5). Paracetamol is absorbed quickly and completely in the alkaline environment of the small intestine. Oral bioavailability is extremely high, approaching 100%.
As a result, measuring paracetamol levels in plasma after an injury is important. Peak plasma concentrations are reached after 30-60 minutes, with a volume of distribution of 0.95 L/kg. It binds to plasma proteins at a rate of 10% to 25%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Radical prostatectomy is being performed on a 60-year-old man for carcinoma of the prostate gland.
What is the direct blood supply of the prostate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior vesical artery
Explanation:The prostate gland is primarily supplied by the inferior vesical artery, which branches off from the anterior division of the internal iliac artery. The inferior vesical artery supplies the base of the bladder, the distal ureters, and the prostate. The branches to the prostate communicate with the corresponding vessels of the opposite side.
The inferior vesical artery branches into two main arteries:
1. Urethral artery – supplies the transition zone and is the main arterial supply for the adenomas in BPH
2. Capsular artery – supplies the glandular tissueThe venous drainage of the prostate is from the prostatic venous plexus, which drains into the paravertebral veins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following organism is highly resistant to penicillin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Penicillinase is a narrow spectrum ?-lactamase that opens the ?-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.
N. meningitidis is sensitive to penicillin and less than 20% resistance is found in pseudomonas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What is the order of the anatomical components of the tracheobronchial tree from proximal to distal?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchioles, terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs
Explanation:The tracheobronchial tree is subdivided into the conducting and the respiratory zones.
The zones from proximal to distal are:
Trachea
Bronchi
Bronchioles
Terminal bronchioles
Respiratory bronchioles
Alveolar ducts
Alveolar sacsfrom the trachea to terminal bronchioles are the conducting zone while the respiratory zone is from the respiratory bronchioles to the alveola sacs
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which one of the following patients presenting for elective surgery has an American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) preoperative physical status grading of III?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 50-year old man with a BMI of 41 with a reduced exercise tolerance
Explanation:The ASA physical status classification system is a system for assessing the fitness of patients before surgery. It was last updated in October 2014.
ASA I A normal healthy patient
ASA II A patient with mild systemic disease
ASA III A patient with severe systemic disease
ASA IV A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
ASA V A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation
ASA VI A declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposesA 20-year old woman who is 39-weeks pregnant with no other medical conditions – ASA II
A 35-year-old man with a BMI of 29 with a good exercise tolerance who smokes-ASA II
A 50-year old man with a BMI of 41 with a reduced exercise tolerance -ASA III
A 65-year old woman with a BMI of 34 with treated hypertension with no functional limitations-ASA II
A 73-year old man who has had a TIA ten-weeks ago but has a good exercise tolerance and is a non-smoker-ASA IV
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Of the following statements, which is true about the measurements of cardiac output using thermodilution?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiac output should be measured during the end-expiratory pause
Explanation:Thermodilution is the most common dilution method used to measure cardiac output (CO) in a hospital setting.
During the procedure, a Swan-Ganz catheter, which is a specialized catheter with a thermistor-tip, is inserted into the pulmonary artery via the peripheral vein. 5-10mL of a cold saline solution with a known temperature and volume is injected into the right atrium via a proximal catheter port. The solution is cooled as it mixes with the blood during its travel to the pulmonary artery. The temperature of the blood is the measured by the catheter and is profiled using a computer.
The computer also uses the profile to measure cardiac output from the right ventricle, over several measurements until an average is selected.
Cardiac output changes at each point of respiration, therefore to get an accurate measurement, the same point during respiration must be used at each procedure, this is usually the end of expiration, that is the end-expiratory pause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is an accurate fact about the vertebral column?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herniation of intervertebral disc between the fifth and sixth cervical vertebrae will compress the sixth cervical nerve root
Explanation:The vertebral (spinal) column is the skeletal central axis made up of approximately 33 bones called the vertebrae.
Cervical disc herniations occur when some or all of the nucleus pulposus extends through the annulus fibrosus. The most commonly affected discs are the C5-C6 and C6-C7 discs. Each vertebrae has a corresponding nerve root which arises at a level above it. This means that a hernation of the C5-C6 disc will cause a compression of the C6 nerve root.
The foramen transversarium is a part of the transverse process of each cervical vertebrae, however, the vertebral artery only runs through the C1-C6 foramen transversarium.
The costal facets are the point of joint formation between a rib and a vertebrae. As such, they are only present on the transverse processes of T1-T10.
The lumbar vertebrae do not form a joint with the ribs, nor do they possess a foramina in their transverse process.
Intervertebral discs are thickest in the cervical and lumbar regions of the spinal column. However, there are no discs between C1 and C2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Conclusive evidence suggests that rate for the prevalence of schizophrenia in United Kingdom is around 1%.
Which term can be used to describe that?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endemic
Explanation:An epidemic is declared when the increase in a give disease is above a certain level in a specific interval of time.
An endemic is the general, usual level of a disease in a population at a particular time.
A pandemic is an epidemic that is spread across many countries and continents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 40 year old female is planned for an critical appendicectomy. A rapid sequence induction is organised. The patient has had a preoperative respiratory tract evaluation and there are no adverse features. The patient is optimally positioned and preoxygenated. The anaesthetic assistant applies 10 N of cricoid pressure. Induction of anaesthesia is then carried out with 250 mg thiopentone and 100 mg suxamethonium with 30 N of cricoid pressure. Initial laryngoscopy reveals a grade 4 view. Three attempts are made at placing a size 7 mm ID tracheal tube two with a standard laryngoscope and one with a McCoy blade and bougie and one further attempt is made using a videolaryngoscope. At this point the suxamethonium is begins to "wear off". Oxygen saturation is 95%. Which one of the following options is the next most appropriate plan of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maintain oxygenation and anaesthesia and declare a failed intubation
Explanation:Always call for help early. This patient is at risk of gastro-oesophageal reflux, which is why a rapid sequence induction has been chosen. The patient is not pregnant, and the surgery is not urgent.
Plan A is to perform a rapid sequence induction under optimal conditions and secure the airway with a tracheal tube.
No more than three attempts with a direct laryngoscope (plus one attempt with a videolaryngoscope) should be made to intubate the trachea. Keep in mind that suxamethonium is wearing off. Ensuring adequate neuromuscular blockade at this stage is crucial; this might include administering a non-depolarizing relaxant if oxygenation can be maintained with bag-mask ventilation. Given the non-immediate nature of the surgery, there should be a low threshold to abandon intubation attempts and resort to Plan B.
An alternative strategy can then be planned.
The most important initial step is to declare a “failed intubation.” This will prevent further intubation attempts and alert your assistant that Plan A has failed. Maintaining oxygenation and anesthesia is also critical before implementing Plan B.
Do not administer another dose of suxamethonium. Insert a supraglottic airway if oxygenation fails and adequate ventilation cannot be maintained.
Plan D follows the declaration of a CICO (Cannot Intubate, Cannot Oxygenate) situation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Drug A has a 1 L/kg volume of distribution and a 0.1 elimination rate constant (k).
Drug B has a 2 L/kg volume of distribution and a 0.2 elimination rate constant (k).
Which of the following statements best describes the pharmacokinetics of drug A in a single compartment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drug A has a lower clearance than drug B
Explanation:The fall in plasma concentration of a drug with time decreases exponentially in a single compartment pharmacokinetic model (wash-out curve).
A straight line is produced when the logarithm (ln) of a drug’s plasma concentration is plotted against time because a constant proportion of the drug is removed from the plasma per unit time. The line’s gradient or slope can be expressed mathematically as k. (the rate constant). The gradient is related to the half life (T1/2) because it can be used to predict a drug’s plasma concentration at any time.
According to the following formula, clearance (CL), volume of distribution (Vd), and elimination rate constant (k) are mathematically related.
CL = Vd x k
For drug A, CL = 1 x 0.1 = 0.1units per minute
For drug B, Cl = 2 x 0.2 = 0.4 units per minute
Hence, it is proved that Drug A has a lower clearance than drug B.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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All the following statements are false regarding local anaesthetic except
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Potency is directly related to lipid solubility
Explanation:The potency of local anaesthetics is directly proportional to lipid solubility because they need to penetrate the lipid-soluble membrane to enter the cell.
Protein binding has a direct relationship with the duration of action because the higher the ability of the drug to bind with membrane protein, the higher is the duration of action.
Higher the pKa of a drug, slower the onset of action. Because a drug with higher pKa will be more ionized than the one with lower pKa at a given pH. Local anaesthetics are weak bases, and unionized form diffuses more rapidly across the nerve membrane than the protonated form. As a result drugs with higher pKa will be more ionized will diffuse less across the nerve membrane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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The cardiac muscle will primarily utilize which metabolic substrate to produce energy when at rest?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fatty acids
Explanation:Approximately 70% of the heart’s ATP requirement is met by cardiac mitochondria through beta-oxidation of fatty acids at rest. The remaining 30% is supplied by glucose.
Amino acids and ketones, in the presence of ketoacidosis, may supply at most 10% of the ATP requirement. And, when in high levels, lactate may also contribute to the ATP requirement of the heart, particularly during moments of high muscular activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Anaesthetic gas concentrations can be measured using a refractometer. The main principal which allows it to be used for this purpose is which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refraction
Explanation:Refractometers measure the degree to which the light changes direction, called the angle of refraction. A refractometer takes the refraction angles and correlates them to refractive index (nD) values that have been established. Using these values, you can determine the concentrations of solutions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A study aimed at assessing a novel proton pump inhibitor (PPI) in aged patients taking aspirin. The new PPI is prescribed to 120 patients and the already prevalent PPI is given to the 240 members of the control group. In the next 5 years, the instances of upper GI bleed reported in the experimental and control group were 24 and 60 respectively.
What is the value of absolute risk reduction?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5%
Explanation:ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)
So,
ARR= (24/120)-(60/240)
ARR= 0.2-0.25
ARR= 0.05 (Numerical Value)
ARR= 5%
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A radiologist is conducting an arch aortogram. She begins by entering the brachiocephalic artery using the angiography catheter. As she continues to advance the catheter, what vessels will the catheter enter?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right subclavian artery
Explanation:As there is no brachiocephalic artery on the left side, the artery is entered by the catheter on the right side.
The brachiocephalic artery branches into the common carotid and the right subclavian artery, so the catheter is most likely to enter the right subclavian artery, or also possibly the right carotid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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