In general practice, majority of phase 3 trials and some of the trials conducted in phase 2 are randomized. Because phase 4 trials require a huge sample size, they are not randomized as much. The primal reason behind conducting phase 3 trials is to test the efficiency and safety in a significant sample population. At this point it is assumed that the drug is effective up to a certain extent.

During a case-control study, subjects that exhibit outcomes of interest are compared with those who don’t show the expected outcome. The extent of exposure to a particular risk factor is then matched between cases and controls. If the exposure among cases surpasses controls, it becomes a risk factor for the outcome that is being studied.

Pilot studies are conducted on a lower and much smaller level, to assess if a randomized controlled trial of the crucial components of a study will be plausible.

Phase 4 trials are the ones that are conducted after its established that the drug is effective and is approved by the regulating authority for use. These trials are concerned with the side effects and potential risks associated with the long term usage of the drug.

Doxazosin is selective alpha 1 blocker (it causes less tachycardia than a non-selective alpha-blocker) and is the drug of choice for a patient with hypertension and benign hyperplasia of the prostate (BHP).

The major adverse effect of an alpha-blocker is first-dose hypotension.

Atenolol and Labetalol are beta blockers. It works by relaxing blood vessels and slowing heart rate to improve blood flow and decrease blood pressure.

Clonidine is an α2A-adrenergic agonist used to treat high blood pressure, ADHD, drug withdrawal (alcohol, opioids, or nicotine), menopausal flushing, diarrhea, spasticity, and certain pain conditions.

Methyldopa is a centrally-acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used to manage hypertension alone or in combination with hydrochlorothiazide, and to treat hypertensive crises.

The superior laryngeal nerve gives off two branches: the sensory branch which is the internal laryngeal nerve, and the motor branch which is the external laryngeal nerve.

The recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) rises from the vagus nerve which supplies the intrinsic muscles of the larynx, except the cricothyroid muscles.

The cephalic vein is one of the primary superficial veins of the upper limb. The superficial group of upper limb veins begin as an irregular dorsal arch on the back of the hand.

The cephalic vein originates in the anatomical snuffbox from the radial side of the arch and travels laterally up, within the superficial fascia to join the basilic vein via the median cubital vein at the elbow.

Near the shoulder, it passes between the deltoid and pectoralis major muscles. It pierces the coracoid membrane (continuation of the clavipectoral fascia) to terminate in the axillary vein’s first part.

Selegiline is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor. Inhibition of monoamine oxidase leads to increased levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system.

Pethidine, also known as meperidine, is a strong agonist at the mu and kappa receptors. It inhibits pain neurotransmission and blocks muscarinic-specific actions.

Administering opioid analgesic is relatively contraindicated to individuals taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors. This is because of the high incidence of serotonin syndrome, which is characterized by fever, agitation, tremor, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis. Onset of symptoms is within hours, and the treatment is mainly through sedation, paralysis, intubation and ventilation.

The clinical findings are more consistent with Serotonin syndrome rather than exacerbation of Parkinson’s. Parkinson’s Disease (PD) exacerbations are defined as patient-reported or caregiver-reported episodes of subacute worsening of PD motor function in 1 or more domains (bradykinesia, tremor, rigidity, or PD-related postural instability/gait disturbance) that caused a decline in functional status, developed over a period of < 2 months, did not fluctuate with medication timing, and are not caused by intentional adjustments of PD medications by the treating neurologist. Malignant hyperthermia usually occurs within minutes of administration of a volatile anaesthetic, such as halothane, or succinylcholine. There is massive release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, leading to fever, acidosis, rhabdomyolysis, trismus, clonus, and hypertension. In sepsis, it more common for patients to present with hypotension rather than hypertension.

Carbon dioxide (CO2), is a carbonic gas made up of two dissimilar atoms, namely one carbon atom and two oxygen atoms. Capnography is a technique used to measure carbon dioxide during a respiratory cycle, and it consists in calculating the concentration of the partial pressure of CO2, through the absorption of the infrared light, namely that CO2 absorbs infrared radiation at a wavelength of 4.28 µm.

End-tidal CO2 (ETCO2), referring to the level of the carbon dioxide released at the end of an exhaled breath, is required to be continuously monitored, especially in ventilated patients, as it is a sensitive and a non invasive technique that provides immediate information about ventilation, circulation, and metabolism functions. ETCO2 is normally lower than the arterial partial pressure and varies between 0.6 and 0.7 kPa.

There are two methods used to measure carbon dioxide. The sidestream capnometer method samples gases at a set flow rate (150-200 mL/min) from a sampling area through small diameter tubing, and the mainstream analyser method that uses a direct measurement of the patient exhaled CO2 by a relatively large and heavy sensors. Sidestram method allows the analysis of multiple gases and anaesthetic vapours comparing to the mainstream method that does not allow the measurement of other gases.

Because of the low pH in the stomach, paracetamol absorption is minimal (pKa value is 9.5). Paracetamol is absorbed quickly and completely in the alkaline environment of the small intestine. Oral bioavailability is approaching 100%. As a result, measuring paracetamol levels in plasma after an oral paracetamol dose has been used as a surrogate marker of gastric emptying. This method has been used to investigate the effects of drugs on gastric emptying. At clinically used doses, paracetamol is ideal because it has very few side effects.

Scintigraphic imaging is the gold standard for determining gastric emptying.

Although aspirin (acetyl salicylic acid) is absorbed primarily in the small intestine, some may also be absorbed in the stomach. The oral bioavailability ranges from 70 to 100 percent, making it less reliable than paracetamol.

Propranolol is a lipophilic drug that is rapidly absorbed after administration. However, it is highly metabolised by the liver in the first pass, and only about 25% of propranolol reaches the systemic circulation. It’s not the best indicator of gastric emptying.

Oral bioavailability of gentamicin and vancomycin is low. Only antibiotic-induced pseudomembranous colitis is treated with oral vancomycin.

Erythromycin is a pro-kinetic agent that acts as a motilin receptor agonist.

The electrons in the outer shell of an oxygen molecule are unpaired, thus it has paramagnetic properties and is attracted into a magnetic field.

It utilizes null deflection -True
Null deflection is a crucial principle in paramagnetic analysers (reflected beam of light on two photocells) which gives very accurate results (typically 0.1%).

It can be used to measure the concentration of diamagnetic gases – False
Since most other gases are weakly diamagnetic they are repelled by a magnetic field (nitric oxide is also paramagnetic).

Can measure gases dissolved in the blood – False
For accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. Therefore, they are unsuitable to measure gases dissolved in blood.

Does not require calibration – False
As with most measurement instruments paramagnetic analysers must be calibrated before use.

E) The readings are unaffected by water vapour – False
Water vapour affects the readings hence for accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. That is why they are unsuitable to measure dissolved blood gases.

Mapleson classified breathing systems into A, B, C, D and E. Jackson-Rees subsequently modified the Mapleson E by adding a double-ended bag to the end of the reservoir tubing, creating the Mapleson F. A Mapleson E or T-piece does not have a reservoir bag.

A Mapleson A system is a very efficient system for use during spontaneous ventilation. However, it is not suitable for use with patients less than 25 kg, due to the increased dead space at the distal / patient end. This system can be modified into a Lack system or coaxial Mapleson A, where the fresh gas flows through an outer tube (30 mm) and exhaled gases flow through the inner tube (14 mm).

The adjustable pressure limiting valve (APL) or expiratory valve allows exhaled gas and excess fresh gas to leave the breathing system. It is a one-way, adjustable spring-loaded valve, and gases escape when the pressure in the system exceeds the valve opening pressure. During spontaneous ventilation a pressure of less than 1 cm of water (0.1 kPa) is needed when the valve is in the open position (not 2 cm of H2O).

The reservoir bag is highly compliant and when over inflated, the rubber bag can limit the pressure in the system to about 40 cm of H2O.

This is due to the law of Laplace, which states that the pressure will fall as the radius of the bag increases:

Pressure = 2 x tension/radius.

The tibial nerve lies on top of the vessels contained within the inferior aspect of the popliteal fossa.

In the superior aspect of the fossa, the tibial nerve runs lateral to the vessels, before then travelling superficial to the vessels, and then finally changing course to lie medial to the vessels.

The popliteal artery is the most deep structure present in the popliteal fossa

The cervical plexus is a complex network of nerves within the head and neck region, providing nerve innervation to regions within the head, neck and trunk.

It is comprised of nerves arising from the anterior primary rami of the C1-C4 nerve roots.

The cervical plexus gives off superficial and deep branches. The superficial branches penetrate through the deep fascia at the centre point of the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid. It provides sensory innervation from the lower border of the mandible to the 2nd rib. The deep branches provide motor innervation to the neck and diaphragmatic muscles.

Cervical plexus block is surgically relevant as it is used to provide regional anaesthesia for procedures in the neck region. The anaesthesia should be injected into the centre point of the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid. Complications arise when anaesthesia is instead injected into the wrong point, including into the vertebral artery, subarachnoid and epidural spaces, blockade of phrenic and recurrent laryngeal nerves, and the cervical sympathetic plexus.

The normal distribution is a symmetrical, bell-shaped distribution in which the mean, median and mode are all equal.

Hepatotoxicity due to halothane administration is relatively common and is a major factor in its rapidly declining use. Type 1 hepatotoxicity has an incidence of 20% to 30%. A comprehensive report in 1969 demonstrated an incidence of type 2 hepatotoxicity (hepatitis) of 1 case per 6000 to 20000 cases, with fatal cases occurring approximately once in 35000 patients following a single exposure to the anaesthetic. This incidence of fatal cases increases to approximately 1 in 1000 patients following multiple exposures. Following this study was a large-scale review in the United Kingdom, which showed similar results. To put this into perspective, there is only a single case of hepatotoxicity confirmed after the administration of desflurane and 2 cases per 1 million after enflurane. By the 1970s, halothane was the most common cause of drug-induced liver failure.

Halothane-induced hepatotoxicity has a female to male ratio of two to one. Younger patients are less likely to be affected; 80% of the cases are typically in patients 40 years or older. Other risk factors include obesity and underlying liver dysfunction. Medications such as phenobarbital, alcohol, and isoniazid may play a role in affecting CYP2E1 metabolism, increasing one’s risk.

The perfect glomerular filtration marker is:

The human body is not harmed by it.
Chemical or physical methods are used to accurately measure
Extracellular fluid (ECF) compartment is freely and evenly diffusible.
Inability to access the intracellular fluid (ICF) compartment
Filtration in the kidney is the only way to remove it from the blood.

The ideal marker should not be reabsorbed into the bloodstream by the renal tubules or other urinary system components.

Creatinine is an endogenous substance that is filtered freely by the glomerulus and secreted by the proximal tubule. As a result, creatinine clearance consistently underestimates GFR. In healthy people, this overestimation ranges from 10% to 40%, but it is higher and more unpredictable in patients with chronic kidney disease.

The gold standard method of inulin clearance necessitates an intravenous infusion and several hours of timed urine collection, making it costly and time-consuming. Inulin is hard to come by and is difficult to mix and keep as a solution.

Exogenous filtration markers include the following:

Although plasma clearance of 51chromium EDTA is a widely used method in Europe, tubular reabsorption can occur.
Because 125I-iothalamate can be excreted by renal tubules in the urine, it cannot be used in patients who have an iodine assay.

Radioactive substances must be stored, administered, and disposed of according to these methods.

The glomerulus filters para-aminohippuric acid (PAH) freely, and any that remains in the peritubular capillaries is secreted into the proximal convoluted tubules. This marker is used to determine the amount of blood flowing through the kidneys.

A patient presenting with symptomatic asthma should be assessed for severity to determine appropriate management options. Indications of acute severe asthma are:

Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR): 33-50% best/predicted
Respiratory rate: ≥25/min
Heart rate: ≥110/min
Inability to finish a complete sentence in a single breath.

Oxygen saturation should be measured. Any measurement of an oxygen saturation of 92% or less, either on air or on oxygen, indicates severe, life threatening asthma, and requires an arterial blood gas (ABG) to detect normo- or hypercarbia.

A chest x-ray would not be routine as it will not provide any relevant information. It is only required in specific cases, including:
Diagnosis of a subcutaneous emphysema
Indications of a unilateral pneumothorax
Indications of a lobar collapse of consolidation
Treatment-resistance life-threatening asthma
If mechanical ventilation is indicated

A peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) can provide relevant information to help distinguish between acute, moderate, severe and life threatening asthma. However, it is not necessary as other parameters exist that can also help make the same distinction.

An ECG is indicated in this case as the patient has tachycardia and tachypnoea which are indicative of acute severe asthma. The ECG would indicate if arrhythmia is also present which would suggest life-threatening asthma.

The posterior tibial artery originates from the popliteal artery in the popliteal fossa. It passes posterior to the popliteus muscle to pierce the soleus muscle. It descends between the tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus muscles.

The posterior tibial artery supplies blood to the posterior compartment of the lower limb. The artery can be palpated posterior to the medial malleolus.

There are 4 main pulse points for the lower limb:

1. Femoral pulse 2-3 cm below the mid-inguinal point
2. Popliteal partially flexed knee to loosen the popliteal fascia
3. Posterior tibial behind and below the medial ankle
4. Dorsal pedis dorsum of the foot over the navicular bone

Second messengers relay signals to target molecules in the cytoplasm or nucleus when an agonist interacts with a receptor on the cell surface. They also amplify the strength of the signal. The most ubiquitous and abundant second messenger is calcium and it regulates multiple cellular functions in the body.

These include:
Muscle contraction (skeletal, smooth and cardiac)
Exocytosis (neurotransmitter release at synapses and insulin secretion)
Apoptosis
Cell adhesion to the extracellular matrix
Lymphocyte activation
Biochemical changes mediated by protein kinase C.

cAMP is either inhibited or stimulated by G proteins.

The receptors in the body that stimulate G proteins and increase cAMP include:

Beta (?1, ?2, and ?3)
Dopamine (D1 and D5)
Histamine (H2)
Glucagon
Vasopressin (V2).

The second messenger for the action of nitric oxide (NO) and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is cGMP.

The second messengers for angiotensin and thyroid stimulating hormone are inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG).

The axillary nerve arises from spinal roots C5-C6. It has both sensory and motor functions:

Sensory: Provides innervation to the skin over the lower deltoid area

Motor: Provides innervation to the teres minor (responsible for stabilisation of glenohumeral joint and external rotation of shoulder joint) and deltoid muscles (responsible for abduction of arms glenohumeral joint).

Injury to the axillary nerve will result in the patient being unable to abduct the arm beyond 15 degrees and a loss of sensory feeling over lower deltoid area.

These symptoms could also be a result of over-abduction of the arm (>90°) which would cause the head of the humerus to become dislocated.

Work up bias involves comparing the novel diagnostic test with the current standard test. A portion of the patients undergo the standard test while others undergo the new test as the standard test is costly. The result can be alteration in specify and sensitivity.

Selection bias is when randomisation is not achieved.

Attention bias refers to the person’s failure to consider various alternatives when he pre occupied by some other thoughts.

Instrument bias is related to the experience and extent of familiarization of the participating individuals with the test.

Co intervention bias is characterized by the groups receiving different co interventions.

Sensory innervation of the larynx is controlled by branches of the vagus nerve.

The internal and external bifurcations of the superior laryngeal nerve is responsible for sensory innervation of the aspect of the larynx superior to the vocal cords, while the recurrent laryngeal nerve is responsible for sensory innervation of the intrinsic musculature of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle.

The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:

T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein

The central venous pressure (CVP) waveform depicts changes of pressure within the right atrium. Different parts of the waveform are:

A wave: which represents atrial contraction. It is synonymous with the P wave seen during an ECG. It is often eliminated in the presence of atrial fibrillation, and increased tricuspid stenosis, pulmonary stenosis and pulmonary hypertension.

C wave: which represents right ventricle contraction at the point where the tricuspid valve bulges into the right atrium. It is synonymous with the QRS complex seen on ECG.

X descent: which represents relaxation of the atrial diastole and a decrease in atrial pressure, due to the downward movement of the right ventricle as it contracts. It is synonymous with the point before the T wave on ECG.

V wave: which represents an increase in atrial pressure just before the opening of the tricuspid valve. It is synonymous with the point after the T wave on ECG. It is increased in the background of a tricuspid regurgitation.

Y descent: which represents the emptying of the atrium as the tricuspid valve opens to allow for blood flow into the ventricle in early diastole.

Canon waves: which refer to large waves present on the trace that do not correspond to the A, V or C waves. They usually occur in a background of complete heart blocks or junctional arrythmias.

Loop diuretics act by causing inhibition of Na+ K+ 2Cl– symporter present at the luminal membrane of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.

Furosemide, torsemide, bumetanide, ethacrynic acid, furosemide, piretanide, tripamide, and mersalyl are the important members of this group

The main use of loop diuretics is to remove the oedema fluid in renal, hepatic, or cardiac diseases. Thus they are useful in the treatment of acute heart failure. These can be administered i.v. for prompt relief of acute pulmonary oedema (due to vasodilatory action).

Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia, hyponatremia, alkalosis, hyperglycaemia, hyperuricemia, and dyslipidaemia are seen with both thiazides as well as loop diuretics

The posterior pituitary is made up mostly of neural tissue. It is responsible for the storage and release of 2 hormones:
– antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
– oxytocin.

These two hormones are synthesised in the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus.

Propofol is cleared at the fastest rate at the rate of 60ml/kg/min.

Clearance rate of other drugs are as follows:
– Thiopental: 3.5 ml/kg/min
– Methohexitone: 11 ml/kg/min
– Ketamine: 17 ml/kg/min
– Etomidate: 10-20 ml/kg/min

Prostacyclin is a strong vasodilator. It is administered as an intravenous infusion for critical ischemia. Commercially, it is available as sodium epoprodtenol.

Atrial Natriuretic peptide (ANP) hormone secreted from the atria, kidney, and neural tissues. It primarily acts on renal vessel to maintain normal blood pressure and reduce plasma volume by: increasing the renal excretion of salt and water, glomerular filtration rate, vasodilation, and by increasing the vascular permeability. It also inhibits the release of renin and aldosterone.

Indoramin is an alpha-adrenoceptor blocking agent. which act selectively on post-synaptic-alpha adrenoreceptor, leading to decease in peripheral resistance.

Angiotensin II is a vasoconstrictor, causing high sodium retention. It also increases the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and aldosterone level.

Major surgery induces the systemic inflammatory response and this causes endothelial leakage and a low albumin level.

Albumin is a single polypeptide which is made but not stored in the liver. Therefore, levels are a reflection of synthetic activity. It is negatively charged and very soluble.

Only 40% of albumin is intravascular, and the rest in the in interstitial compartment.

If there was normal liver function during starvation, albumin will be maintained and proteolysis will occur elsewhere.
It is not catabolised during starvation.
Starvation and malnutrition may, however, present as part of other disease processes that are associated with hypalbuminaemia.

Causes of low albumin are

1. Decreased production (hepatic dysfunction)
2. Increased loss (renal dysfunction)
3. Redistribution (endothelial leak/damage)
4. Increased catabolism (very rare)

99.7% of the values within 3 standard deviations of the mean.

For 99.7% confidence interval, you can find the range as follows:

1. Multiply the standard error by 3.

2. Subtract the answer from mean value to get the lower limit.

3. Add the answer obtained in step 1 from the mean value to get the upper limit.

For a confidence interval of 68%, multiply the standard error with 1 and repeat the process. For a 95% confidence interval, Standard Error is multiplied by 1.96 to get the interval.

Chi-square test is used to determine the statistically significant different between categorical variables. It also determines the difference between expected frequencies and the observed frequencies.

Mann Whitney U test is used to determine the statistically significant different between two independent groups.

Wilcoxon’s test is the test of dependency. it determines the statistically significant difference between two dependent groups.

Student t-test is one of the most commonly used method to test the hypothesis. It determines the significant difference between the means of two different groups.

ANOVA (analysis of variance) is similar to student’s t-test.

ANOVA is a statistical method used to determines the statistically significant difference between the mean of more than two group. In this experiment as we are dealing with three different group, ANOVA is most suitable test to determine the difference between each groups.

There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:

Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially

Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)

Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature

Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output

Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.

The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles on both sides of the neck.

The posterior triangle has the following boundaries:
anteriorly – sternocleidomastoid muscle
posteriorly – trapezius
roof – investing layer of deep cervical fascia
floor – prevertebral fascia overlying splenius capitis, levator scapulae, and the scalene muscles

The contents of the posterior triangle are:
1. fat
2. lymph nodes (level V)
3. accessory nerve
4. cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus – greater auricular nerve, transverse cervical nerve, lesser occipital nerve, supraclavicular nerve (A major branch of this plexus is the phrenic nerve, which arises from the anterior divisions of spinal nerves C3-C5)
5. inferior belly of omohyoid
6. branches of the thyrocervical trunk (transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries)
7. third part of the subclavian artery
8. external jugular vein

Bucks fascia refers to the layer of loose connective tissue, nerves and blood vessels that encapsulates the penile erectile bodies, the corpa cavernosa and the anterior part of the urethra, including the entirety of the spongiose part of the urethra.

It runs with the external spermatic fascia and the penile suspensory ligament.

Eye damage is the most common potential hazard associated with laser energy. Everyone in the laser treatment room has the risk of eye exposure when working with a Class 3b or Class 4 healthcare laser system, and damage to various structures in the eye depending on wavelength of the laser if they are unprotected.

Red and near-infrared light (400-1400 nm) has very high penetration power. The light causes painless burns on the retina after it is absorbed by melanin in the pigment epithelium just behind the photoreceptors.

Infrared radiation (IR), or infrared light (>1060 nm), is a type of radiant energy that’s invisible to human eyes and hence won’t elicit the protective blink.

Ultraviolet light (<400 nm) is also a form of electromagnetic radiation which is can penetrate the cornea and be absorbed by the iris or the pupil and cause burn injuries or cataract occur due to irreversible photochemical retinal damage. Safety eyewear is the best method of providing eye protection and are designed to absorb light specific to the laser being used. Laser protective eyewear (LPE) includes glasses or goggles of proper optical density (OD). The lenses should not be glass or plastic. The LPE should withstand direct and diffuse scattered laser beams. The laser protection supervisor (LPS) or LSO is an individual who is responsible for any clinical area in which lasers are used. They are expected to have a certain level of equipment and determine what control measures are appropriate, for each individual system, but their presence does not guarantee the chances of having an eye injury. Class 1 lasers are generally safe under every conceivable condition and is not likely to cause any eye damage. Class 3b or Class 4 medical laser systems are utilized in healthcare which have their own safety precautions. Polarized spectacles can make your eyes more comfortable by eliminated glare, however, they will not be able to offer any protection against wavelengths at which laser act.
Using short bursts to reduce energy is also not correct as it would still be harmful to eye.

This may be the classical case of blood transfusion reaction due to ABO incompatibility.

Here red cells are destroyed in the bloodstream with the release of haemoglobin in circulation (causing haemoglobinuria). Here, IgM or IgG anti-A or anti-B antibody can cause rapid activation of complement cascade usually the classical pathway. This is called intravascular haemolysis.

There may be extravascular haemolysis by cells of the mononuclear phagocyte system situated in the liver and spleen. Extravascular red cell destruction can increase breakdown products of haemoglobin, such as bilirubin and urobilinogen.

The AAGBI and the British Hypertension Society has published guidelines for the measurement of adult blood pressure and management of hypertension before elective surgery.

The objective is to ensure that patients admitted for elective surgery have a known systolic blood pressure below 160 mmHg and diastolic blood pressures below 100 mmHg. The primary health care teams, if possible, should ensure that this is the case and provide evidence to the pre-assessment clinic staff or on admission.

Avoiding cancellation on the day of surgery because of white coat hypertension is a secondary objective.

Patients with blood pressures below 180 mmHg systolic and 110 mmHg diastolic (measured in the preop assessment clinic), who present to pre-operative assessment clinics without documented evidence of primary care blood pressures should proceed to elective surgery.

In this question, the history/assessment does not appear to point to obvious end-organ damage so there is no indication for further investigation for secondary causes of hypertension or an echocardiogram at this point. Further review and treatment at this point is not required.

However, you should write to the patient’s GP and encourage serial blood pressure measurements in the primary health care setting.

The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles on both sides of the neck.

The posterior triangle has the following boundaries:
anteriorly – sternocleidomastoid muscle
posteriorly – trapezius
roof – investing layer of deep cervical fascia
floor – prevertebral fascia overlying splenius capitis, levator scapulae, and the scalene muscles

The contents of the posterior triangle are:
1. fat
2. lymph nodes (level V)
3. accessory nerve
4. cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus (A major branch of this plexus is the phrenic nerve, which arises from the anterior divisions of spinal nerves C3-C5)
5. inferior belly of omohyoid
6. branches of the thyrocervical trunk (transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries)
7. third part of the subclavian artery
8. external jugular vein

The Number Needed to Treat (NNT) is the number of patients you need to treat to prevent one additional bad outcome. For example, if a drug has an NNT of 5, it means you have to treat 5 people with the drug to prevent one additional bad outcome.

To calculate the NNT, you need to know the Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR); the NNT is the inverse of the ARR:

NNT = 1/ARR

Where ARR = CER (Control Event Rate) – EER (Experimental Event Rate).

NNTs are always rounded up to the nearest whole number.

In this case, the NNT can be computed as follows:

ARR = 10% – 5% = 0.05

NNT = 1/0.05 = 20

Haemorrhage, including intracranial bleeding, is a common and potentially fatal side effect of warfarin therapy, and reversing anticoagulation quickly and completely can save lives. When complete and immediate correction of the coagulation defect is required in orally anticoagulated patients with life-threatening haemorrhage, clotting factor concentrates are the only viable option.

For rapid reversal of vitamin K anticoagulants, prothrombin complex concentrates (PCC) are recommended. They contain the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X and are derived from human plasma. They can be used as an adjunctive therapy in patients with major bleeding because they normalise vitamin K dependent clotting factors and restore haemostasis.

The most common treatments are fresh frozen plasma (FFP) and vitamin K. The efficacy of this approach is questioned due to the variable content of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in FFP and the effects of dilution. Significant intravascular volume challenge, as well as the possibility of rare complications like transfusion-associated lung injury or blood-borne infection, are all potential issues.

To avoid anaphylactic reactions, vitamin K should be given as a slow intravenous infusion over 30 minutes. Regardless of the route of administration, the reversal of INRs with vitamin K can take up to 24 hours to reach its maximum effect.

Reversal of anticoagulation in patients with warfarin-associated intracranial haemorrhage may be considered with factor VIIa (recombinant), but its use is controversial. There are concerns about thromboembolic events following treatment, as well as questions about assessing efficacy in changes in the INR. If the drug is to be administered, patients should be screened for an increased risk of thrombosis before the drug is given.

Phenytoin, Carbamazepine, and Valproate act by inhibiting the sodium channels when these are open. These drugs also prolong the inactivated stage of these channels (Sodium channels are refractory to stimulation till these reach the closed/ resting phase from inactivated phase)

Carbamazepine is the drug of choice for partial seizures and trigeminal neuralgia

It can have neurotoxic side effects. Major neurotoxic effects include dizziness, headache, ataxia, vertigo, and diplopia

After single oral doses of carbamazepine, the absorption is fairly complete and the elimination half-life is about 35 hours (range 18 to 65 hours). During multiple dosing, the half-life is decreased to 10-20 hours, probably due to autoinduction of the oxidative metabolism of the drug.

It is metabolized in liver into active metabolite, carbamazepine-10,11-epoxide.

Carbon dioxide absorbs the most infrared (IR) light between the wavelengths of 4.2-4.4m (4.26m is ideal).

Nitrous oxide absorbs infrared light at wavelengths of 4.4-4.6m (very similar to CO2) and less so at 3.9m.

At a frequency of 4.7m, carbon monoxide absorbs the most IR light.

At 3.3 m and throughout the ranges 8-12 m, the volatile agents have strong absorption bands.

Although oxygen does not absorb infrared light, it collides with CO2 molecules, interfering with absorption. The absorption band is widened as a result of this (so called collision or pressure broadening). A drop of 0.5 percent in measured CO2 can be caused by 95% oxygen.

Nitrous oxide causes a greater inaccuracy of 0.1 percent per ten percent of nitrous oxide.

Water vapour absorbs infrared light as well, resulting in absorption band overlap, collision broadening, and partial pressure dilution. Water traps and water permeable tubing are used to reduce inaccuracies.

Collision broadening is compensated for in modern gas multi-gas analysers.

Cardiac conduction

Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

Endothelin-1 is considered as a powerful coronary vasoconstrictor, produced by the endothelium. It acts to counter the effects of Nitric oxide (NO).
Neuropeptide-Y, angiotensin1, cocaine, vasopressin, and nicotine are some other coronary vasoconstrictors.

Chronotrophy and inotrophy occur after the activation of sympathetic nerve fibres, which in turn results in increasing the myocardial oxygen consumption, leading to increased coronary blood flow via local metabolic processes.

An alpha-receptor mediated coronary vasoconstrictor effect is also initiated that usually competes with vasodilation, resulting in decreased coronary vascular resistance. Some of the other dilators include hydrogen ions, CO2, potassium, and lactic acid. The action of endothelial NO synthase (eNOS) on L-arginine results in the formation of NO. This messenger also plays a vital role in the regulation of coronary blood flow via vasodilation, inhibition of platelet aggression, and decreasing vascular resistance.
Adenosine is considered as purine nucleoside that forms after the breakdown of adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Adenosine binds to adenosine type 2A (A2A) receptors in coronary vascular smooth muscles. These are coupled to the Gs protein. This mechanism leads to hyperpolarisation of muscle cells, resulting in relaxation and increased coronary blood flow.

GTN is an veno and arteriolar dilator, which behaves as pro-drug with NO.

From superior to inferior, the following structures enter the orbit through the superior orbital fissure:
1. Lacrimal nerve
2. Frontal nerve
3. Superior ophthalmic vein
4. Trochlear nerve
5. Superior division of the oculomotor nerve*
6. Nasociliary nerve*
7. Inferior division of the oculomotor nerve*
8. Abducent nerve*
9. Inferior ophthalmic vein.

The superior and inferior division of the oculomotor nerve, nasociliary nerve, and abducent nerve are within the tendinous ring.

The common origin of the four rectus muscles is the tendinous ring (also known as the annulus of Zinn). The tendinous ring’s lateral portion straddles the superior orbital fissure, while the medial portion encloses the optic foramen, through which the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery pass.

The apex of an equilateral triangle completed by the posterior superior iliac spines is where the sacral hiatus or sacrococcygeal membrane can normally located. The failure of posterior fusion of the laminae of the fourth and fifth sacral vertebrae allows the sacral canal to be accessible via the membrane.

In adults, the spine of L4 usually lies on a line drawn between the highest points of the iliac crests (Tuffier’s line). A line connecting each anterior iliac spine, approximates to the L3/4 interspace in the sitting position. Both of these options are incorrect.

A line connecting the greater trochanters is also incorrect.

A line connecting the posterior superior iliac spines is correct, but in adults the presence of a sacral fat pad can still make identification of this landmark less straightforward.

The processes of S5 are remnants only and form the sacral cornua, which are also used to help identify the sacral hiatus.

Number needed to harm are a measure of the impact of a treatment or intervention that is often used to communicate results to patients, clinicians, the public and policymakers. It states how many patients need to be treated for one additional patient to experience an adverse outcome (e.g. a death). It is calculated as the inverse of the absolute risk reduction. It can equally well be applied to harmful outcomes as well as beneficial ones, where it becomes numbers needed to treat (NNT) instead.

In this way, they are both calculated the same but NNT usually refers to a therapeutic treatment whereas NNH refers to a risk-factor for disease.

The ions found in higher concentrations intracellularly than outside the cells are:

ATP
AMP
Potassium
Phosphate, and
Magnesium Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)

Sodium is a primarily extracellular ion.

The ideal gas equation makes the following assumptions:

The gas particles have a small volume in comparison to the volume occupied by the gas.
Between the gas particles, there are no forces of interaction.
Individual gas particle collisions, as well as gas particle collisions with container walls, are elastic, meaning momentum is conserved.
PV = nRT
Where:

P = pressure
V = volume
n = moles of gas
T = temperature
R = universal gas constant

Helium is a monoatomic gas with a small helium atom. The attractive forces between helium atoms are small because the helium atom is spherical and has no dipole moment. Because helium atoms are spherical, collisions between them approach the ideal state of elasticity.

Most real gases behave qualitatively like ideal gases at standard temperatures and pressures. When intermolecular forces and molecular size become important, the ideal gas model tends to fail at lower temperatures or higher pressures. It also fails to work with the majority of heavy gases.

Helium, argon, neon, and xenon are noble or inert gases that behave the most like an ideal gas. Xenon is a noble gas with a much larger atomic size than helium.

Alfentanil is less lipid-soluble than fentanyl and thus is less permeable to the membrane making it less potent.

Alfentanil is a phenylpiperidine opioid analgesic with rapid onset and shorter duration of action.

Alfentanil has less volume of distribution due to its high plasma protein binding (92%)

It can cause respiratory depression and can cause sedation

Approximately 25% of phase-1 drug reactions is made responsible by CYP2D6.

As much as a 1,000-fold difference in the ability to metabolise drugs by CYP2D6 can happen between phenotypes, and this may result in adverse drug reactions (ADRs).

The metabolism of antiemetics, beta-blockers, codeine, tramadol, oxycodone, hydrocodone, tamoxifen, antidepressants, neuroleptics, and antiarrhythmics is also as a result of CYP2D6.

Patients who take drugs that are metabolised by CYP2D6 but have poor CYP2D6 metabolism are more likely to have ADRs. People with ultra-rapid CYP2D6 metabolism may have a decreased drug effect due to low plasma concentrations of these drugs.

All the other CYP enzymes are subject to genetic polymorphism. Variants are less likely to lead to adverse drug reactions.

The inferior phrenic nerves are at the highest risk of damage as they are the first branches of the abdominal aorta. The potential space at the level of the diaphragmatic hiatus is a potentially useful site for aortic occlusion. However, leaving the clamp applied for more than 10 -15 minutes usually leads to poor outcomes.

The superior phrenic artery branches from the thoracic aorta.

The abdominal aorta begins at the level of the body of T12 near the midline, as a continuation of the thoracic aorta. It descends and bifurcates at the level of L4 into the common iliac arteries.

The branches of the abdominal aorta (with their vertebra level) are:
1. Inferior phrenic arteries: T12 (upper border)
2. Coeliac artery: T12
3. Superior mesenteric artery: L1
4. Middle suprarenal arteries: L1
5. Renal arteries: Between L1 and L2
6. Gonadal arteries: L2 (in males, it is the testicular artery, and in females, the ovarian artery)
7. Inferior mesenteric artery: L3
8. Median sacral artery: L4
9. Lumbar arteries: Between L1 and L4

Professor Mapleson classified non-rebreathing circuits based on the position of the APL valve, which controls fresh gas flow.

The Mapleson A (Magill) circuit is most effective in spontaneous breathing, requiring only 70-100 ml/kg (the patient’s minute volume) of fresh gas flow. The patient inhales fresh gas from the reservoir bag and tubing during inspiration. During expiration, the patient adds dead space gas (gas that hasn’t been exchanged) to the tubing and reservoir bag in addition to the fresh gas flow. At the patient’s end, alveolar gas is vented through the APL valve. During the expiratory pause, the fresh gas flow causes more gas to be released.

The Mapleson A is inefficient during controlled ventilation. Venting occurs during inspiration rather than during the expiratory phase, as it does during spontaneous ventilation. As a result, unless a high fresh gas flow of >20 L/minute is used, alveolar gas is rebreathed.

During spontaneous ventilation, the Mapleson D circuit is inefficient.

The oxygen concentration in a Hudson mask is insufficient to allow for adequate pre-oxygenation.

Cardiac conduction

Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

The descending thoracic aorta begins at the lower border of T4 near the midline as a continuation of the arch of the aorta. It descends and ends at the level of T12 at the aortic hiatus in the diaphragm, where it becomes the abdominal aorta.

The aorta gives off the following branches: (descending order)

1. Bronchial arteries
2. Mediastinal arteries
3. Oesophageal arteries
4. Pericardial arteries
5. Superior phrenic arteries

The posterior intercostal arteries are branches that originate throughout the length of the posterior aspect of the descending thoracic aorta.

The inferior thyroid artery is usually derived from the thyrocervical trunk, a branch of the subclavian artery.

1% solution contains 1 g of substance per 100 mL.

A solution of 10% glucose is 10 g/100mL. Therefore 1000 mL of this glucose solution will contain 100 g.

1 g of glucose yields about 4 kcal of energy. One litre of 10% glucose will therefore release approximately 4x100g = 400 kcal of energy.

A solution of 20% fat is 20 g/100mL. Therefore 1000 mL of this fat solution will have 200 g and 500 mL will contain 100 g.

1 g of fat yields approximately 9 kcal. 500 mL of 20% fat therefore has the potential to yield 900 kcal of energy.

The total energy input over this 24 hour period is approximately 400kcal + 900kcal = 1300 kcal.

These clinical signs suggest that 15-30% of circulating blood volume has been lost.

Pelvic fractures are associated with significant haemorrhage (>2000 ml) that can be concealed. This may require aggressive fluid resuscitation which is initially with crystalloids and then blood. What is also important is including stabilisation of the fracture(s) and pain relief.

The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock is as follows:

Class I haemorrhage (blood loss up to 15%):
<750 ml of blood loss
Minimal tachycardia
No changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure
Patients do not normally not require fluid replacement as will be restored in 24 hours, but in trauma, this needs to be correct.

Class II haemorrhage (15-30% blood volume loss):
Uncomplicated haemorrhage requiring crystalloid resuscitation
Represents about 750 – 1500 ml of blood loss
Tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure (due to a rise in diastolic component due action of catecholamines).
There are minimal systolic pressure changes.
There may be associated anxiety, fright or hostility

Class III haemorrhage (30-40% blood volume loss):
Complicated haemorrhagic state – crystalloid and probably blood replacement are required
There are classical signs of inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, significant changes in mental state and measurable fall in systolic pressure.
Almost always require blood transfusion, but decision based on patient initial response to fluid resuscitation.

Class IV haemorrhage (> 40% blood volume loss):
Preterminal event patient will die in minutes
Marked tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and very narrow pulse pressure (or unobtainable diastolic pressure)
Mental state is markedly depressed
Skin cold and pale.
Needs rapid transfusion and immediate surgical intervention.

A blood loss of >50% results in loss of consciousness, pulse and blood pressure.

Fluid resuscitation following trauma is a controversial area.

This clinical scenario points to a 15-30% blood loss. However, further crystalloid and blood replacement may be required after assessing the clinical situation. There is increasing evidence to suggest that transfusion of large volumes of crystalloid in the hospital setting are likely to be deleterious to the patient and hypotensive resuscitation and judicious blood and blood product resuscitation is a more appropriate option. A ratio of 1 unit of plasma to 1 unit of red blood cells is used to replace fluid volume in adults.

This patient does not require immediate transfusion of O negative blood and there is time for a formal crossmatch. The argument about colloids versus crystalloids has existed for decades. However, while they have a role in fluid resuscitation, they are not first line.

There is a risk of anaphylaxis, Hypernatraemia, and acute renal injury with colloidal solutions.

Its known that 68.3% of the total values of a normally distributed variable are found within a range of 1 standard deviation from the mean which makes the range to be 4.3 to 4.9 mmol/L.

Such a high rise of end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) in a patient who is spontaneously breathing is often encountered.

Close observation should occur for further rises in EtCO2 and other signs of malignant hyperthermia. If this were to rise even more, it might be wise to ensure that ventilatory support is available.

A lot would depend on whether surgery was almost completed. At this stage of anaesthesia, it would be inappropriate to administer opioid antagonists or respiratory stimulants.

To begin, one must determine the child’s approximate weight. There are a variety of formulas to choose from. It is acceptable to use the advanced paediatric life support formula:

(Age + 4) 2 = Weight

A 5-year-old child will weigh around 18 kilogrammes.

10 mcg/kg (0.1 ml/kg of 1 in 10 000 adrenaline) = 180 mcg is the appropriate dose of intravenous or intraosseous adrenaline.

The correct energy level to deliver is 4 J/kg, which equals 72 joules.

The pad size that is appropriate for this patient is 8-12 cm. For an infant, a 4.5 cm pad is appropriate.

To allow adequate separation in infants and small children, the pads should be placed anteriorly and posteriorly on the chest.

When using a bag and mask to ventilate, take two breaths for every 15 chest compressions. If chest compressions are being applied intubated and without interruption, a ventilation rate of 10-20 breaths per minute should be given.

Chest compressions should be done at a rate of 100-120 per minute, the same as an adult.

Propofol is a short-acting medication used for starting and maintenance of general anaesthesia, sedation for mechanically ventilated adults, and procedural sedation.
The dose of propofol is 1-2 mg/kg.

Dose of some other important drugs are listed below:
Thiopental dose: 3-7 mg/kg
Ketamine dose: 1-2 mg/kg
Etomidate dose: 0.3 mg/kg
Methohexitone dose: 1.0-1.5 mg/kg

A mercury barometer can be used to determine absolute pressure. A glass tube with one closed end serves as the barometer. The open end is inserted into a mercury-filled open vessel. The mercury in the container is pushed into the tube by atmospheric pressure exerted on its surface. Absolute pressure is the distance between the tube’s meniscus and the mercury surface.

Pressure is defined as force in newtons per unit area (F) (A). 

Mass of mercury = area (A) × density (ρ) × length (L)
Pressure = ((A × ρ × L) × 9.8 m/s2)/A
Pressure = ρ × L x 9.8
Pressure is proportional to L

The numerator and denominator of the above equation, area (A), cancel out. The constants are density and the gravitational acceleration value.

The length is proportional to the applied pressure.

Tachyphylaxis is the swiftly declining response to successive drug doses which vastly reduces its effectiveness in a short space of time, mostly as a result of an acute consumption of neurotransmitters.

Tolerance or desensitisation is the slow decline in a person’s reaction to a drug due to continued use. It requires a longer time span than tachyphylaxis, usually over days or weeks.

Down- regulation is a reduction in the amount of receptors available on target cells which decreases the affinity of the agent to the cells. For this to occur, the down-regulation of receptors must occur at a rate faster than receptor synthesis. This down-regulation often occurs with beta1 receptors due to:

1) The transportation or receptors from the cell surface to the interior of the cell

2) Degradation of receptors occurring over time.

In this case, dobutamine is prescribed to treat cardiogenic shock. It is able to function by binding to beta1-adrenergic receptors to increase the contraction of the heart, thereby improving cardiac output. It also binds to beta2- and alpha1-adrenergic receptors to balance out the effects produced by binding to beta1 receptors and reduce the risk of system vasculature responses.

The hazard ratio (HR) is simply a comparison of two hazards in a study. It provides an estimate of the ratio of the hazard rates between the experimental group and a control group over the entire study duration. It is typically used when analysing survival over time, hence is the most suitable statistical method in this case.

An odds ratio is a statistic that quantifies the strength of the association between two events, A and B. It is the “measure of association” for a case-control study.

The Pearson product-moment correlation coefficient (Pearson’s correlation, for short) is a measure of the strength and direction of association that exists between two variables. An example would be if scientists wanted to evaluate the relationship between quality of certain population of rice and their genetic make-up.

Relative risk is the ratio of the risks for an event for the exposure group to the risks for the non-exposure group. Thus relative risk provides an increase or decrease in the likelihood of an event based on some exposure. Relative risk measures the association between the exposure and the outcome.

Absolute risk reduction is the number of percentage points your own risk goes down if you do a preventive act such as stop drinking alcohol. It depends on what your risk factors are to begin with.

The right atrium receives blood supply from the SVC, IVC, and coronary sinus. It forms the right border of the heart.

The interior of the right atrium has 5 distinct features:
1. Sinus venarum – smooth, thin-walled posterior part of the right atrium where the SVC, IVC, and coronary sinus open
2. Musculi pectinati – an anterior rough, wall of pectinate muscles
3. Tricuspid valve orifice – the opening through which the right atrium empties blood into the right ventricle
4. Crista terminalis – separates the rough (musculi pectinati) from the smooth (sinus venarum) internally
5. Fossa ovalis – a thumbprint size depression in the interatrial septum which is a remnant of the oval foramen and its valve in the foetus

The trabeculae carneae are irregular muscular elevations that form the interior of the right ventricle.

Therapeutic index is a measure which relates the dose of a drug required to produce a desired effect to that which produces an undesired effect.

In humans, it is usually defined as the ratio of the toxic dose for 50% of the population (TD50) to the minimum effective dose for 50% of the population (ED50) for some therapeutically relevant effect. In animal studies, the therapeutic index can be defined as the ratio of the median lethal dose (LD50) to the ED50.

With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.

Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain.
There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions.
The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.

The oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) describes the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and partial pressure of oxygen in the blood.
Of note, it is not affected by haemoglobin concentration.

Chronic anaemia causes 2, 3 DPG levels to increase, hence shifting the curve to the right

Haldane effect – Causes the ODC to shift to the left. For a given oxygen tension there is increased saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Decreased oxygen delivery to tissues.
This can be caused by:
-HbF, methaemoglobin, carboxyhaemoglobin
-low [H+] (alkali)
-low pCO2
-ow 2,3-DPG
-ow temperature

Bohr effect – causes the ODC to shifts to the right = for given oxygen tension there is reduced saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues. This can be caused by:
– raised [H+] (acidic)
– raised pCO2
-raised 2,3-DPG
-raised temperature

Venous cutdown is a surgical procedure when venous access is difficult, and other procedures like the Seldinger technique, ultrasound-guided venous access, and intraosseous vascular access have failed.

The vein of choice for venous cutdown is the long/great saphenous vein. It is part of the superficial venous collecting system of the lower extremity. It is the preferred vein as the long saphenous vein has anatomic consistency and is superficially located at the ankle anterior to the medial malleolus. It is also the most commonly used conduit for cardiovascular bypass operations.

Origin- in the foot at the confluence of the dorsal vein of the first digit and the dorsal venous arch of the foot
Route- runs ANTERIOR to the medial malleolus and travels up in the medial leg and upper thigh.
Termination: in the femoral vein within the femoral triangle

Regarding the other options:
The short saphenous vein passes posterior to the lateral malleolus.
The dorsalis pedis vein accompanies the dorsalis pedis artery on the anterior foot.
The posterior tibial vein is part of the deep venous system accompanying the posterior tibial artery. There is no significant sural vein (there is a sural nerve), but the sural veins accompany the sural arteries and drain to the popliteal vein.

The hindgut is from the distal third of the transverse colon down to the upper one-third of the anal canal. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies the hindgut.

The inferior mesenteric artery arises from the aorta behind the inferior border of the third part of the duodenum 3–4 cm above the aortic bifurcation, at the third lumbar vertebra level.

The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:

T12 – Coeliac trunk

L1 – Left renal artery

L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries

L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery

L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta

The internal carotid artery passes through the carotid canal in the petrous part of the temporal bone into the cranial cavity. It does NOT groove the sphenoid bone.

The internal carotid artery gives off no branches in the neck and is a terminal branch of the common carotid artery.

These structures pass between the external and internal carotid arteries: the styloglossus and stylopharyngeus muscles, the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), and the pharyngeal branch of the vagus.

Accompanied by its sympathetic plexus, the internal carotid artery, passes through the cavernous sinus and is crossed by the abducent nerve.

Paediatric life support differs from adult life support in that hypoxia is the primary cause of deterioration.

After checking for danger, the child should be given a gentle stimulus (such as holding the head and shaking the arm) and asked, Are you alright? according to current advanced paediatric life support (APLS) guidelines. Safety, Stimulate, Shout is a phrase that is frequently remembered. Any airway assessment should be preceded by these actions.

Although the algorithm includes five rescue breaths, they are performed after the airway assessment.

It is not recommended to ask parents to leave unless they are obstructing the resuscitation. A team member should be with them at all times to explain what is going on and answer any questions they may have.

CPR should not begin until the child has been properly assessed and rescue breaths have been administered.

Serum specific IgE assays against allergen sources/molecules are the most commonly used in vitro diagnostic approach. The measurement of specific IgE recognizing allergenic epitopes can be achieved both through the usage of single reagents (singleplex) or with a pre-defined panel of a number of molecules to be tested simultaneously (multiplex).

Several clinical entities have been described and those occurring immediately after drug exposure are immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated and explored by skin testing and by the in vitro measurement of serum-specific IgE. The sensitivity of these tests is not 100% and even for patients with a clear positive history, a drug provocation test may be required in order to confirm the diagnosis. The advantages of the in vitro determination of specific IgE antibodies when compared with in vivo testing are that the former poses no direct risk to the patient and does not require personnel with expertise. Even though in vitro tests are recommended in immediate hypersensitivity reactions, their exact place in the diagnostic procedure is not clear and certain authors do not use this method in daily practice. In one study, in terms of sensitivity, 11 of 26 patients (42%) with negative skin tests and a positive drug provocation challenge (or repeated clinical history) had specific IgE to benzylpenicilloyl or amoxicilloyl (4). The specificity of the test was 95–100%. Therefore, IgE measurements can avoid a potentially harmful drug provocation test.

An elevated serum tryptase does not differentiate between type 1 and type 2 hypersensitivity reaction. It indicates mast cell degranulation.

RAST is a useful aid to improve the overall diagnosis of drug allergies by using radioactive detection. This, however, is now rarely used.

Quantification of basophil activation by CD63 expression can be done by flow cytometry, which forms the basis of experimental drug-induced basophil stimulation tests.

The structures that pass through the foramen magnum are:

Meningeal lymphatics
Spinal cord
Spinal meninges
Sympathetic plexus of vertebral arteries
Vertebral arteries
Vertebral artery spinal branches
The spinal roots of the accessory nerve.

The jugular foramen contains the vagus nerve, the accessory nerve and glossopharyngeal nerve.

The vertebral veins does not pass into the skull.

Pulse oximeters combine the principles of oximetry and plethysmography to noninvasively measure oxygen saturation in arterial blood. A sensor containing two or three light emitting diodes and a photodiode is placed across a perfused body part, commonly a finger, to be transilluminated. Oximetry depends on oxyhaemoglobin and deoxyhaemoglobin, and their ability to absorb the beams of light produced by the light emitting diodes: red light at 660 nm and infrared light at 960 nm.

The isosbestic point is the point wherein two different substances absorb light to the same extent. For oxyhaemoglobin and deoxyhaemoglobin, the points are at 590 nm and 805 nm. These are considered reference points where light absorption is independent of the degree of saturation.

Non-constant absorption of light is often due to the presence of an arterial pulsation, whilst constant absorption of light is seen in non-pulsatile tissues.

Most pulse oximeters are inaccurate at low SpO2, but is accurate at +/- 2% within the range of 70% to 100% SpO2. All pulse oximeters demonstrate a delay in between changes in SaO2 and SpO2, and display average readings every 10 to 20 seconds, hence they are unable to detect acute desaturation episodes.

Bupivacaine is used to decrease sensation in a specific area. It is injected around a nerve that supplies the area, or into the spinal canal’s epidural space.

The maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should be administered to a 10kg child is 5 ml

Awareness during general anaesthesia is a frightening experience, which may result in serious emotional injury and post-traumatic stress disorder.

The incidence of awareness during general anaesthesia with current anaesthetic agents and techniques has been reported as 0.2-0.4% in nonobstetric and noncardiac surgery, as 0.4% during caesarean section, and as 1.5% in cardiac surgery.

The incidence during major trauma surgery is higher. Incidence of recall has been reported to be as high as 11-43% in major trauma cases.

The STOP-BANG questionnaire is used to screen patients for obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA).

The scoring system assigns one point for each feature.

S: Snoring (louder than talking or loud enough to be heard through closed doors)
T: Feeling tired, fatigued, or sleepy during daytime
O: Observed apnoeas during sleep
P: Hypertension
B: BMI more than 35 kg/m2
A: Age 50-years of age or greater
N: Neck circumference (male 17 inches / 43cm or greater and female 16 inches / 41 or greater)
G: Gender: Male

Our patient has a score of 5 ( O, P, A, N, G)

The score helps clinicians stratify patients for unrecognized OSA and target appropriate clinical management. It can also help triage patients for further investigation. A STOP-BANG score of 5-8 will identify patients with high probability of moderate to severe OSA in the surgical population.

There are two types of drug dose-response relationships, namely, the graded dose-response and the quantal dose-response relationships.

Drug response curves are plotted as percentage response again LOG drug concentration. This graph is sigmoid in shape.

Agonists are drugs with high affinity and high intrinsic activity. Meanwhile, the antagonist is a drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity. Intrinsic activity determines the maximal response. The maximal response can be achieved even by activation of a small proportion of receptor sites.

Specific knowledge of the anatomical relationship is required to address this examination question.

The first rib is small and thick and contains a single facet that articulates at the costovertebral joint. It consist of a head, neck and shaft but a discrete angle is deficit. Along the side the shaft is indented with a groove for the subclavian artery and the lower brachial plexus trunk. Front to the scalene tubercle is a space for the subclavian vein.

The first rib has the scalenus front muscle joined to the scalene tubercle, isolating the subclavian vein (anteriorly) from the subclavian artery (posteriorly). This anatomical relationship is of major significance with respect to subclavian vein cannulation.

The 1st rib has the following relationships:

superior: lower trunk of the brachial plexus, subclavian vessels, clavicle.

inferior: intercostal vessels and nerves

posterior and inferior: pleura

anterior: sympathetic trunk (over neck)

superior intercostal artery, ventral T1 nerve root

Staphylococcus aureus colonizes the nasopharynx in >20% of the general population.

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is resistant to flucloxacillin.

Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF). THF is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.

All ?-lactam antibiotics like penicillin interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The ?-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place

Bulky, greasy stools are associated with improper digestion that can be expected if the pancreas loses its exocrine function. This is common in long-term chronic pancreatitis but since this is the patient’s first presentation with such symptoms, this complication is unlikely.

Peripheral neuropathy is a common complication of chronic diabetes but has been reported with cases of chronic pancreatitis too.

Abdominal distention with shifting dullness is a classic symptom of underlying ascites. Ascites is a complication of many diseases but it is not common with the acute first-time presentation of pancreatitis.

Option E: This points towards abdominal obstruction but in the absence of the more common symptoms, nausea and bilious vomiting, this is unlikely.

Option A: Grey Turner’s sign is the pooling of blood in the retroperitoneal space between the last rib and the top of the hip. The pancreas is a retroperitoneal organ and inflammation of the pancreas can cause retroperitoneal haemorrhage. The sign takes 24-48 hours to develop and can predict a severe attack of acute pancreatitis. The patient has presented with acute pancreatitis due to his history of high alcohol intake, and acute on chronic is unlikely as this is his first presentation. He also has low blood pressure and an increased heart rate, which suggest blood loss with acute pancreatitis.

Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) has a significant first pass metabolism. About 90% of a dose of GTN is metabolised in the liver by the enzyme glutathione organic nitrate reductase.

An INSIGNIFICANT amount of metabolism occurs in the intestinal mucosa.

There is approximately 1% bioavailability after oral administration and 38% after sublingual administration.

GTN does NOT cause gastric irritation and it is well absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract.

The volume of distribution of GTN is 2.1 to 4.5 L/kg. This is HIGH.

With regards to compensatory response to blood loss, the following sequence of events take place:

1. Decrease in venous return, right atrial pressure and cardiac output
2. Baroreceptor reflexes (carotid sinus and aortic arch) are immediately activated
3. There is decreased afferent input to the cardiovascular centre in medulla. This inhibits parasympathetic reflexes and increases sympathetic response
4. This results in an increased cardiac output and increased SVR by direct sympathetic stimulation. There is increased circulating catecholamines and local tissue mediators (adenosine, potassium, NO2)
5. Fluid moves into the intravascular space as a result of decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure absorbing interstitial fluid.

A slower response is mounted by the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis.
6. Reduced renal blood flow is sensed by the intra renal baroreceptors and this stimulates release of renin by the juxta-glomerular apparatus.
7. There is cleavage of circulating Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I, which is converted to Angiotensin II in the lungs (by Angiotensin Converting Enzyme ACE)

Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor that sets off other endocrine pathways.
8. The adrenal cortex releases Aldosterone
9. There is antidiuretic hormone release from posterior pituitary (also in response to hypovolaemia being sensed by atrial stretch receptors)
10. This leads to sodium and water retention in the distal convoluted renal tubule to conserve fluid
Fluid conservation is also aided by an increased amount of cortisol which is secreted in response to the increase in circulating catecholamines and sympathetic stimulation.

Aldosterone is produced in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex and acts to increase sodium reabsorption via intracellular mineralocorticoid receptors in the distal tubules and collecting ducts of the nephron.

Its release is stimulated by hypovolaemia, blood loss ,and low plasma sodium and is inhibited by hypertension and increased sodium. It is regulated by the renin-angiotensin system.

The Mapleson A (Magill) and coaxial version of the Mapleson A system (Lack circuit) are more efficient for spontaneous breathing than any of the other Mapleson circuits. The fresh gas flow (FGF) required to prevent rebreathing is slightly greater than the alveolar minute ventilation (4-5 litres/minute). This is delivered to the patient through the outer coaxial tube and exhaust gases are moved to the scavenging system through the inner tube. In the Lack circuit, the expiratory valve is located close to the common gas outlet away from the patient end. This is the main advantage of the Lack circuit over the Mapleson A circuit.

The Mapleson E circuit is a modification of the Ayres T piece and the FGF required to prevent rebreathing is 1.5-2 times the patient’s minute volume.

The Bain circuit is the coaxial version of the Mapleson D circuit.

The FGF for spontaneous respiration to avoid rebreathing is 160-200 ml/kg/minute.

The FGF for controlled ventilation to avoid rebreathing is 70-100 ml/kg/min.

Mixed venous oxygen content (CvO2) is the oxygen concentration in 100mL of mixed venous blood taken from the pulmonary artery. It is usually 12-17 mL/dL (70-75%). It is represented mathematically as:

CvO2 = (1.34 x Hgb x SvO2 x 0.01) + (0.003 x PvO2)

Where,

1.34 = Huffner’s constant
Hgb = Haemoglobin level (g/dL)
SvO2 = % oxyhaemoglobin saturation of mixed venous blood
PvO2 = 0.0225 = mL of O2 dissolved per 100mL plasma per kPa, or 0.003 mL per mmHg

Therefore,

CvO2 = (1.34 x 10 x 70 x 0.01) + (0.003 x 50)

CvO2 = 9.38 + 0.15 = 9.53 mL/100mL

Hypoxic Pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) reflects the constriction of small pulmonary arteries in response to hypoxic alveoli (.i.e.; PO2 below 80-100mmHg or 11-13kPa).

These blood vessels become independent of the nerve stimulus, when blood with a high PO2 flows through the lung which contains a low alveolar PO2.

Thus a low PO2 within the alveoli has been shown to impact on hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) more than a low PO2 within the blood.

HPV results in the blood flow being directed away from poorly ventilated areas of the lung and helps to reduce the ventilation/perfusion mismatch (not increase).

In animals, volatile anaesthetic agents can diminish HPV, while in adults, the evidence proves less persuading, in spite of the fact that it certainly doesn’t strengthen the effects.

HPV response will be suppressed by 20 parts per million (ppm) of nitric oxide.

When there is a fall in ionised plasma calcium levels, the chief cells of the parathyroid glands are stimulated to secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH).

50% of extracellular calcium occurs as non-ionised, protein- (albumin-)bound calcium.

The degree of ionisation increases with low ph and decreases with high pH.

There is increased renal calcium excretion with secretion of calcitonin.

Tests are used to confirm the presence of a particular disease. However the results can be misleading at times since most of the tests have some limitations associated with them.
Sensitivity is the correct term that refers to the probability of a positive test. The others are explained below:

False Positive rates refer to the proportion of the patients who don’t have the condition being detected as positive.

False Negative rates refer to the proportion of the patients who have the condition being detected as negative (like the 20% of the patients that went undetected by the Ca-125 test).

Specificity describes the ability of a test to detect and pick up people without the disease. Absolute risk ratio compares the rate of two separate outcomes.

Mapleson breathing system (or circuit) analysed five different arrangements of components of the breathing system:
Mapleson A – It is the most efficient for spontaneous respiration. The flow of fresh gas required is 70-85 ml/kg/min, i.e., approximately 5-6 lit./min fresh gas flow for an average adult.
Mapleson B and C – inefficient for both SV and PPV; requires gas flow of two to three times minute volume (100 ml/kg/min). Not commonly used but category C may be used for emergency resuscitation.
Mapleson D – efficient for PPV at gas flow equivalent to patient’s minute volume; the Bain’s circuit is a coaxial version of the Mapleson D
Mapleson E and F – for paediatric use; requires gas flow at two to three times the patient’s minute volume. The Mapleson F consists of an open-ended reservoir bag (Jackson-Rees modification).

Dose response curves are plotted as % response to drug against Logarithm of drug concentration. The graph is usually sigmoid shaped.

Any drug that has high affinity and high intrinsic activity is likely an agonist. A drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity will act as an antagonist. Displacement of an agonist also depends on the relative concentrations of the two drugs at the receptor sites.

Maximal response may be achieved by activation of a small proportion of receptor sites.

Soda-lime contains mostly calcium hydroxide (about 94%) and remaining sodium hydroxide.

CO2 + Ca(OH)2 → CaCO3 + H2O + heat
Here in this exothermic reaction, we can see that the production of calcium carbonate does not require heat.

When soda lime is allowed to dry with subsequent use of desflurane, isoflurane, and enflurane, it can lead to the generation of carbon monoxide.

Silica hardens the granules and can thus prevent disintegration.

The size of soda-lime granules is 4-8 mesh because it allows sufficient surface area for chemical reaction to occur without critically increasing the resistance to airflow.

The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:

T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein

The external carotid artery has eight important branches:
1. Superior thyroid artery
2. Ascending pharyngeal artery
3. Lingual artery
4. Facial artery
5. Occipital artery
6. Posterior auricular artery
7. Maxillary artery (terminal branch)
8. Superficial temporal artery (terminal branch)

There is no mandibular artery but the first part of the maxillary artery is called the mandibular part as it is posterior to the lateral pterygoid muscle.
The maxillary artery is divided into three portions by its relation to the lateral pterygoid muscle:
first (mandibular) part: posterior to the lateral pterygoid muscle
second (pterygoid or muscular) part: within the lateral pterygoid muscle
third (pterygopalatine) part: anterior to the lateral pterygoid muscle

The pituitary gland plays a crucial role in the neuro-endocrine axis. It is located at the base of the skull in the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone. It is connected superiorly to the hypothalamus, third ventricle, and visual pathways, and laterally to the cavernous sinuses, internal carotid arteries, and cranial nerves III, IV, V, and VI.

Pituitary tumours make up about 10-15% of all intracranial tumours. The majority of adenomas are benign. Over-secretion of pituitary hormones (most commonly prolactin, growth hormone, or ACTH), under-secretion of hormones, or localised or generalised pressure effects can all cause symptoms.

Compression of the optic chiasm can result in visual field defects, the most common of which is bitemporal hemianopia. This is caused by compression of the nasal retinal fibres, which carry visual impulses from temporal vision across the optic chiasm to the contralateral sides before continuing to the optic tracts.

The interruption of the visual pathways distal to the optic chiasm causes a homonymous visual field defect. The loss of the right or left halves of each eye’s visual field is referred to as homonymous hemianopia. It’s usually caused by a middle or posterior cerebral artery territory stroke that affects the occipital lobe’s optic radiation or visual cortex.

Binasal hemianopia is a condition in which vision is lost in the inner half of both eyes (nasal or medial). It’s caused by compression of the temporal visual pathways, which don’t cross at the optic chiasm and instead continue to the ipsilateral optic tracts. Binasal hemianopia is a rare complication caused by the internal carotid artery impinging on the temporal (lateral) visual fibres.

A monocular visual loss (that is, loss of vision in only one eye) can be caused by a variety of factors, but if caused by nerve damage, the damage would be proximal to the optic chiasm on the ipsilateral side.

A central scotoma is another name for central visual field loss. Every normal mammalian eye has a scotoma, also known as a blind spot, in its field of vision. The optic disc is a region of the retina that lacks photoreceptor cells and is where the retinal ganglion cell axons that make up the optic nerve exit the retina. When both eyes are open, visual signals that are absent in one eye’s blind spot are provided for the other eye by the opposite visual cortex, even if the other eye is closed.

Scotomata can be caused by a variety of factors, including demyelinating disease such as multiple sclerosis, damage to nerve fibre layer in the retina, methyl alcohol, ethambutol, quinine, nutritional deficiencies, and vascular blockages either in the retina or in the optic nerve.

Bilateral scotoma can occur when a pituitary tumour compresses the optic chiasm, causing a bitemporal paracentral scotoma, which then spreads out to the periphery, causing bitemporal hemianopsia. A central scotoma in a pregnant woman could be a sign of severe pre-eclampsia.

To denote large measured units, the following SI mathematical prefixes are used:

1 deca = 10 bytes (101)
1 hecto (h) = 100 bytes
1 kilo (k)= 1,000 bytes
1 mega (M) = 1,000,000 bytes
1 giga (G) = 1,000,000,000 bytes
1 Tera (T) = 1,000,000,000,000 bytes
1 Peta (P) = 1,000,000,000,000,000 bytes

Propofol infusion syndrome (PRIS) is characterized by lactic acidosis, bradyarrhythmia, rhabdomyolysis, cardiac and renal failure, and often leads to death. So, lactate monitoring is advised in patients with propofol infusion syndrome.

When the eye is compressed or the extra-ocular muscles are tractioned, the oculocardiac reflex causes a decrease in heart rate.

The ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve provides the afferent limb. This synapses with the vagus nerve’s visceral motor nucleus in the brainstem. The efferent signal is carried by the vagus nerve to the heart, where increased parasympathetic tone reduces sinoatrial node output and slows heart rate.

The most common symptom is sinus bradycardia, but junctional rhythm and asystole can also occur.

Oxygen delivery depends on 2 variables.
1) Content of oxygen in blood
2) Cardiac output

Oxygen content (arterial) = (Hb (g/dL) x 1.39 x SaO2 (%) ) + (0.023 x PaO2 (kPa))

Oxygen content (mixed venous) = (Hb (g/dL) x 1.39 x mixed venous saturation) + (0.023 x mixed venous partial pressure of oxygen in kPA)

Huffner’s constant = 1.39 = 1g of Hb binds to 1.39 ml of O2

Oxygen delivery DO2 (ml/min) = 10 x Cardiac output (L/min) x Oxygen content
Normally 1000ml/min

Oxygen consumption VO2 (ml/min) = 10 x Cardiac output (L/min) x Difference in arterial and mixed venous oxygen content
Normally 250 ml/min

Oxygen extraction ratio (OER) = VO2/DO2
Normally approximately 25%

The correct answer is the mean, median and mode of normally distributed data are the same value. This is as a result of the bell shaped curve which is equal on both sides.

The bell-shape indicates that values around the mean are more frequent in occurrence than the values farther away.

In a normal distribution:
1) +/- one standard deviation of the mean accounts for 68% of the data.
2) +/- two standard deviations of the mean accounts for 95% of the data.
3) +/- three standard deviations of the mean accounts for 99.7% of the data.

Asthma is a lung condition that causes reversible narrowing and swelling of airway passages. It is classified by the frequency and severity of symptoms.

The following are symptoms of moderate asthma:

Symptoms include cough, wheezing, chest tightness, or difficulty breathing which occurs daily
Decreased activity levels due to flare-ups
Night-time symptoms 5 or more times a month
Lung function test FEV1 is 60-80% of predicted normal values
Peak flow has more than 30% variability

With moderate asthma attacks, the arterial pCO2 levels may decrease, but as severity increases, so does the pCO2, reaching normal levels, and then exceeding them in severe asthma attacks.

Airway obstruction increases the functional residual capacity.

Concentration of serum bicarbonate would not increase in moderate asthma, but it could possibly increase in life-threatening asthma via the same mechanism as what increases arterial PCO2.

FEV1 is a good measure of airway obstruction. and is reduced in acute asthma attacks.

In the case of a pneumothorax, a decrease in arterial PO2 is higher.