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Question 1
Correct
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A 34 year old woman presents to the emergency department due to right sided weakness. Past history reveals a DVT following the birth of her daughter, and two miscarriages. Head CT confirms an ischaemic stroke in the territory of left middle cerebral artery. What would be the most likely finding on echocardiography?
Your Answer: Normal
Explanation:The patient most likely suffers from antiphospholipid syndrome. The clinical criteria consist of vascular thrombosis and pregnancy morbidity. Vascular thrombosis is defined as one or more clinical episodes of arterial, venous, or small-vessel thrombosis in any tissue or organ confirmed by findings from imaging studies, Doppler studies, or histopathology. ASD, VSDs would cause paradoxical emboli and stroke, however the recurrent pregnancy loss in this case is strongly suggestive of antiphospholipid syndrome. The ECG would be normal in most cases associated with anti phospholipid syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 2
Correct
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VIP, GIP and somatostatin play an inhibitory role in gastric acid secretion by inactivating?
Your Answer: G cells
Explanation:Gastrin is secreted from the G cells. VIP, GIP and somatostatin all inhibit acid production by inhibiting the G cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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The following is true about the carotid arterial supply to the brain:
Your Answer: Direct union with the vertebral artery forms the circle of Willis
Correct Answer: Following carotid occlusion, precapillary anastomoses are unable to prevent infarction
Explanation:The brain has two sources of blood supply; the internal carotid arteries which are the anterior segment or the main artery that supplies the anterior portion of the brain, and the vertebral arteries which is the posterior segment which supplies the posterior portion of the brain. The internal carotid arteries branch and form two major arteries anterior and middle cerebral arteries. The right and left vertebral arteries fuse together at the level of the pons on the anterior surface of the brainstem to form the midline basilar artery. The basilar artery joins the blood supply from the internal carotids in an arterial ring at the base of the brain called the circle of Willis. The anterior and posterior communicating arteries conjoin the two major sources of cerebral vascular supply via the circle of Willis improving the chances of any region of the brain continuing to receive blood if one of the major arteries becomes occluded.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 4
Correct
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Which enzyme is responsible for the formation of the active endopeptidases from their inactive precursors?
Your Answer: Enterokinase
Explanation:Enterokinase is a brush border enzyme of the duodenum that activates proteolytic enzymes for further digestion of proteins. Trypsinogen is converted to trypsin by the action of enterokinase. Trypsin and chymotrypsin are secreted by the pancreatic acinar cells and are enzymes that aid in protein digestion. Pepsin is secreted by chief cells of gastric mucosa. Procarboxydase is the inactive form of carboxypeptidase which is converted to its active form by trypsin and is secreted by pancreatic acinar cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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All of the following features may suggest malignant changes in a melanocytic naevi, EXCEPT?
Your Answer: Decrease in size
Explanation:Melanocytic naevi are skin tumours produced by melanocytes. They usually present in childhood but increase during puberty. The mnemonic A-B-C-D, is used by institutions to assess for suspicion of malignancy. The letters stand for asymmetry, border, colour, and diameter. If a mole starts changing in size, colour, shape or, especially, if the border of a mole develops ragged edges or becomes larger than a pencil eraser, it would be an appropriate time to consult with a physician. Other warning signs include if it begins to crust over, bleed, itch, or become inflamed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
- Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Question 7
Correct
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When is the blood pressure at its lowest during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Second trimester
Explanation:It is lowest during the second trimester.
Previous studies have reported changes in blood pressure (BP) throughout pregnancy, and it was generally accepted that in clinically healthy pregnant women, BP falls gradually at first trimester, reaching the lowest around 22–24 weeks, rising again from 28 weeks, and reaching preconception levels by 36 weeks of gestation
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 8
Correct
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Question 10
Correct
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Question 11
Correct
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Why does arterial blood pressure drop during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Progesterone relaxes vascular smooth muscle
Explanation:Progesterone relaxes vascular smooth muscle thus resulting In a decrease in total peripheral resistance. This accounts for the increase in the cardiac output.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 12
Correct
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A 28 year old female with a history of psoriatic arthritis would most likely have which of the following hand conditions?
Your Answer: Nail dystrophy
Explanation:Nail dystrophy (pitting of nails, onycholysis, subungual hyperkeratosis), dactylitis, sausage shaped fingers are most commonly seen with psoriatic arthropathy. There is asymmetric joint involvement most commonly distal interphalangeal joints. Uveitis and sacroiliitis may also occur. Arthritis mutilans may occur but is very rare. Cutaneous lesions may or may not develop. When they do, its usually much after the symptoms of arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Select the CORRECT statement regarding bile salts…
Your Answer: Contain enzymes required for the digestion of fat.
Correct Answer: Are necessary for any bile acid secretion by hepatocytes.
Explanation:Bile salts stimulate bile secretion by the liver. Bile salts do not have an enzymatic action on digestion of fat but rather emulsify fat for the action of enzymes secreted mainly by the pancreas. Bile salts are polar cholesterol derivatives and are not derived from amino acids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary
- Medicine
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Question 14
Correct
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Which of the following are true when it comes to tumour suppressor genes:
Your Answer: All of the options are true
Explanation:All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding tumour suppressor genes. Tumour suppressor genes generally follow the two-hit hypothesis, which implies that both alleles that code for a particular protein must be affected before an effect is manifested.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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Which of the following best describe N. Meningitides?
Your Answer: Gram negative cocci
Explanation:Neisseria meningitidis, often referred to as meningococcus, is a gram negative bacterium that can cause meningitis and other forms of meningococcal disease such as meningococcaemia, a life-threatening sepsis. The bacterium is referred to as a coccus because it is round, and more specifically, diplococcus because of its tendency to form pairs. About 10% of adults are carriers of the bacteria in their nasopharynx.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Medicine
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Question 16
Correct
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The hepatic portal vein:
Your Answer: Carries mainly nutrients from the GIT.
Explanation:The portal vein contains oxygen as any other vein in the body does. The hepatic veins are responsible for venous drainage of the liver. The main function of the portal vein is to carry absorbed nutrients in the gut for metabolism and detoxification.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 17
Correct
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Which of the following involving the scalp may produce alopecia (hair loss)?
Your Answer: Discoid lupus erythematosus
Explanation:Causes of hair loss include:
- Dissecting cellulitis
- Fungal infections (such as tinea capitis)
- Folliculitis
- Secondary syphilis
- Demodex folliculorum
- Lupus erythematosus (hair loss may be permanent due to scarring of the hair follicles).
Psoriasis and seborrheic dermatitis commonly involve the scalp but do not produce hair loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
- Medicine
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Question 18
Correct
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The following cells replicate without shortening their telomeres because they express telomerase.
Your Answer: Germ cells
Explanation:Telomerase activity is seen in germ cells and is absent in somatic cells. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely. During replication telomeres may be lost resulting in cell death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 19
Correct
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The bradycardia that occurs in patients with raised intracranial pressure is a result of the?
Your Answer: Cushing reflex
Explanation:When intracranial pressure is increased, the blood supply to RVLM neurons is compromised. This results in an increase in their discharge as a result of hypoxia and hypercapnia. The resultant rise in systemic arterial pressure (Cushing reflex) tends to restore the blood flow to the medulla.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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In the absence of insulin:
Your Answer: Intestinal absorption of glucose is reduced
Correct Answer: Glucose uptake by most of the brain is normal
Explanation:Although it is known that insulin levels affect glucose uptake, oxidation and storage in peripheral tissues, its role in the brain isn’t as clear. However, studies have shown that bulk brain glucose uptake isn’t affected by insulin. Glucose transport into the neurons is GLUT3 dependent, and its transport into glia and brain endothelial cells rely on GLUT1. Insulin isn’t necessary for GLUT1 or GLUT3, which explains why brain glucose uptake isn’t affected by insulin levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 21
Correct
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In the clotting mechanism, activation of factor IX can occur through the direct actions of:
Your Answer: Factor VIIa & XIa
Explanation:Factor IX is processed to remove the signal peptide, glycosylated and then cleaved by factor XIa (of the contact pathway) or factor VIIa (of the tissue factor pathway). When activated into factor IXa, in the presence of Ca2+, membrane phospholipids, and a Factor VIII cofactor, it hydrolyses one arginine-isoleucine bond in factor X to form factor Xa. Factor IX is inhibited by antithrombin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 22
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true of the beta- lactams:
Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav is more likely to cause obstructive jaundice than amoxicillin
Explanation:β-lactam antibiotics are a class of broad-spectrum antibiotics, consisting of all antibiotic agents that contain a β-lactam ring in their molecular structures. This includes penicillin derivatives (penams), cephalosporins (cephems), monobactams, and carbapenems. Most β-lactam antibiotics work by inhibiting cell wall biosynthesis in the bacterial organism and are the most widely used group of antibiotics. Bacteria often develop resistance to β-lactam antibiotics by synthesizing a β-lactamase, an enzyme that attacks the β-lactam ring. To overcome this resistance, β-lactam antibiotics are often given with β-lactamase inhibitors such as clavulanic acid. Immunologically mediated adverse reactions to any β-lactam antibiotic may occur in up to 10% of patients receiving that agent (a small fraction of which are truly IgE-mediated allergic reactions). Rarely, cholestatic jaundice has been associated with Co-amoxiclav (amoxicillin/clavulanic acid). The reaction may occur up to several weeks after treatment has stopped, and usually takes weeks to resolve. It is more frequent in men, older people, and those who have taken long courses of treatment; the estimated overall incidence is one in 100,000 exposures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Medicine
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Question 23
Correct
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Concerning surface anatomy, where is the apex beat found?
Your Answer: 5th intercostal space mid clavicular line
Explanation:The location of the apex beat may vary but it is mostly found in the left 5th intercostal space 6 cm from the anterior median line or in the mid clavicular line.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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The actions of dihydrotestosterone in male reproductive physiology include:
Your Answer: Maturation of the Wolffian duct/internal genitalia
Correct Answer: Development of external genitalia in utero and at puberty
Explanation:Dihydrotestosterone mediates the differentiation of the urogenital sinus and genital tubercles, leading to the fusion of the urethral and labial folds; thus, it leads to the development of external genitalia in the male.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 25
Correct
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A 45 year old man, known case of hypothyroidism, presents with a 3 month history of pain and stiffness in the joints of his hands and feet. He also complains of dyspnoea occurring for the past 6 weeks. On examination there is a right pleural effusion and swollen hand joints. The clinician makes a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following is most characteristic of a rheumatoid pleural effusion?
Your Answer: It has a low glucose level
Explanation:The typical “rheumatoid effusion” is a sterile exudative fluid with low pH (<7.3), low glucose (700 IU). It should initially be treated with NSAIDs. Decortication should be reserved in patients with thickened pleura who have symptomatic dyspnoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 26
Correct
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Peristalsis is an example of:
Your Answer: Enteric nervous system
Explanation:Peristalsis is a type of contraction where radial symmetrical contraction and relaxation of muscles propagates food in a downward wave through the gut. The enteric nervous system is one of the main divisions of the nervous system and consists of a mesh-like system of neurons that controls the function of the gastrointestinal tract. It has an independent reflex activity. The neurons of this system re collected into two types of ganglia: myenteric (or Auerbach’s) and submucosal (or Meissner’s plexuses). Myenteric plexuses are located between the inner and outer layers of the muscularis externa, while submucosal plexuses are located in the submucosa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 27
Correct
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Which of the following pairs are correct concerning arteriolar tone?
Your Answer: Hormonal control: catecholamines affect the adrenergic receptors of the vascular smooth muscle
Explanation:Catecholamines released from the adrenal medulla act on the noradrenergic receptors of the vascular smooth muscles. In the skeletal muscles and liver it causes vasodilation whilst it causes vasoconstriction in the rest of the blood vessels of the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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The collection of genes that are termed the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) are found on:
Your Answer: On the human leukocyte antigens
Correct Answer: Short arm of chromosome 6
Explanation:Histocompatibility, or tissue compatibility, is the property of having the same, or sufficiently similar, alleles of a set of genes called human leukocyte antigens (HLA). HLA is the human form of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) genes found in all vertebrates. On a population level there is a great number of different alleles at each HLA locus on the short arm of chromosome 6
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Medicine
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Question 29
Correct
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Direct conduction from the atrium to the ventricles is prevented by:
Your Answer: Annulus fibrosus
Explanation:The annulus fibrosus disconnects the syncytium complex. The atria are rapidly activated however the activation peters out when the insulating layer-the annulus fibrosus-is reached.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Where do the portal hypophysial vessels arise?
Your Answer: Lateral eminence
Correct Answer: Median eminence
Explanation:The hypothalamic-hypophysial portal system connects the brain to the anterior pituitary. It is made up of two capillary beds, one in the median eminence and the other in the anterior pituitary. Blood from the plexus of the median eminence is carried by portal veins, draining into the cavernous and posterior intercavernous sinuses. This system delivers hypothalamic hormones to their target cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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