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Question 1
Correct
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Which of the following conditions result in a port wine stain?
Your Answer: Sturge-Weber syndrome
Explanation:Various types of birthmarks are commonly seen in children of different age groups. Birthmarks can be broadly classified as pigmented and vascular birthmarks. Port-wine stain (nevus flammeus) is an example of a vascular birthmark, and is characterized by a reddish-purple discoloration of the skin due to abnormal underlying skin vasculature. Port-wine stain has also been associated with vascular diseases like Sturge-weber syndrome, which is a congenital neurocutaneous disorder. In Sturge-weber syndrome, the port-wine stain affects the skin around the ophthalmic branch of trigeminal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A first-time mother is concerned about the development of her 2-month-old baby.Which one of the following statements is true regarding developmental milestones at the age of 2 months?
Your Answer: The infant is not expected to get bored if not kept engaged
Correct Answer: The infant is not expected to mirror facial expressions like smiling
Explanation:Developmental milestones at the age of 2 months are as follows:Social and Emotional:- Begins to smile at people – Can briefly calm herself (may bring hands to mouth and suck on hand)- Tries to look at the parents Language/Communication:- Coos, makes gurgling sounds – Turns head toward sounds Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving):- Pays attention to faces – Begins to follow things with eyes and recognize people at a distance – Begins to act bored (cries, fussy) if an activity doesn’t changeMovement/Physical Development:- Can hold head up and begins to push up when lying on tummy – Makes smoother movements with arms and legs
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 3
Correct
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This equation links lung function measurement to height: Lung function = 2.3 + (1.5 × height), R = 0.75Which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: Taller individuals have higher lung functions
Explanation:The equation, lung function = 3.2 + (1.7 x height) is linear, but this does not necessarily mean that the relationship itself is linear. The equation is able to predict that taller individuals are more likely to have greater lung functions. No information is given on whether the coefficients and the R value are statistically significant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 1-year old child is brought to the ER with abdominal distension and bilious vomiting. Radiological examination shows distended bowel loops and gas in the rectum. Her mother reveals that the baby had surgery at the two days of age for a twisted intestine. Blood gas analysis from a sample drawn from a capillary shows a pH of 7.34 and lactate of 2. Which of the following is the most appropriate management step?
Your Answer: Nasogastric decompression, broad spectrum antibiotics and immediate surgery for suspected recurrent volvulus
Correct Answer: Naso-gastric decompression, intra venous fluids and admit. The majority of adhesional obstruction resolves without need for surgery
Explanation:Adhesion formation might be reduced by minimally invasive surgical techniques and the use of adhesion barriers. Non-operative treatment is effective in most patients with ASBO. Contraindications for non-operative treatment include peritonitis, strangulation, and ischemia. When the adhesive aetiology of obstruction is unsure, or when contraindications for non-operative management might be present, CT is the diagnostic technique of choice. The principles of non-operative treatment are nil per os, naso-gastric, or long-tube decompression, and intravenous supplementation with fluids and electrolytes. When operative treatment is required, a laparoscopic approach may be beneficial for selected cases of simple ASBO.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 7 day old male infant, born at term, presents with umbilical bruising and bleeding. History reveals he wasn’t given vitamin K after birth. Blood exam is normal but with a high prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: Intramuscular vitamin K plus fresh frozen plasma
Correct Answer: Intravenous vitamin K plus fresh frozen plasma
Explanation:The clinical picture suggests a vitamin K deficiency haemorrhagic disease of the new-born and requires IV vitamin K and fresh frozen plasma. This usually presents with gastrointestinal bleeding, bleeding from the umbilical stump and bruising after 2–7 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 6
Correct
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Which of the following are associated with port wine stains?
Your Answer: Epilepsy
Explanation:Port-wine stains are a type of vascular birthmark caused by the abnormal development of capillaries in the skin. These pinkish-purplish discolorations present at birth and are associated with medical conditions such as Sturge-Weber syndrome, a neurocutaneous disorder involving the leptomeninges. Port wine stains are therefore associated with epilepsy, glaucoma or intellectual disability common in Sturge-Weber syndrome. Additional complications of Port wine stains include a loss of function if near the eye or mouth due to hypertrophy, or glaucoma if near the eyelid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Correct
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Which of the conditions, mentioned below, result in a continuous murmur?
Your Answer: Blalock- Taussig shunt
Explanation:Blalock-Thomas-Taussig shunt is a surgical procedure done to increase pulmonary blood flow in cases like pulmonary atresia and results in a continuous murmur.The type of murmur which is heard during the systole and remains continuous till the second heart sound is known as a continuous murmur. This murmur is often intense and considered rough. It can also be accompanied by quivering. There are numerous causes of a continuous murmur that differ depending on the location and components of this murmur. It is caused by the shunting of blood from a high-pressure circulation to a low-pressure circulation. Pathological causes of a continuous murmur include patent ductus arteriosus, aortopulmonary window, AV malformation, coarctation of aorta, any acquired trauma, and iatrogenic cause like interventional or surgical procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 8
Incorrect
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An 11-year-old girl with developmental delay was brought to the clinic with symptoms of abdominal pain, loss of appetite, vomiting and constipation. Her parents notice that she has been eating substances like soil, soap and paper recently. Her blood count and peripheral smear examination reveal a microcytic-hypochromic anaemia with basophilic stippling of RBCs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Iron-deficiency anaemia
Correct Answer: Lead poisoning
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this patient is lead poisoning.Lead poisoning: While it is not common, it can be potentially fatal. One of the key presenting features here is pica, the ingestion of non-nutritive substances such as soil, soap, paper or wood. Pica can also be observed in children in iron-deficiency anaemia, developmental delay and pregnancy. However, in a child who is exposed to lead in their environment (e.g. from lead paint or pipes), lead poisoning is most likely. It is commonly associated with iron deficiency which in turn increases the lead absorption. Treatment is either with oral D-penicillamine or intravenous sodium calcium edetate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 9
Correct
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Which of the following immunological components is deficient in a 5-year-old HIV positive child who develops Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia?
Your Answer: T cells
Explanation:Patients with HIV have a deficiency of CD4 lymphocytes which are also known as helper T cells (Th). They are involved with antigen-specific responses as well as delayed-type hypersensitivity. The risk of developing P. jiroveci pneumonia is greatest with a CD4 count of 200 x 109/l or below.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true in logistic regression analysis?
Your Answer: Is complex to perform
Correct Answer: Yields adjusted odds ratios
Explanation:Logistic regression analysis is an easy to use regression that can serve to estimate how a binary or dichotomous dependent variable, for example whether or not a student passes or fails a medical exam, is related to the number of hours the student studies for the exam. This regression is able to yield an odds ratio, i.e. the probability of passing the exam based on each additional hour of study. As stated, the outcome does not need to be normally distributed but is usually binary. This type of analysis is not complex and does not need to be avoided as it is available most statistical packages.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 11
Correct
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A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history of fever, lethargy and a generalized macular rash. There is no significant previous medical history and the patient has not travelled abroad either. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.5BP: 125/75mmHgPulse: 100/min On auscultation the chest was clear and no heart murmur was heard. Examination also reveals a non blanching widespread macular rash over the chest and abdomen. There is swelling of interphalangeal joints of both hands and feet associated with mild tenderness. Lymph nodes are palpable over the supraclavicular, axillary and inguinal areas. Abdominal examination reveals palpable mass on both right and left hypochondrium. Lab results are given below:Haemoglobin (Hb) 13.5 g/dlWhite cell count (WCC) 14.0 × 109/lPlatelets 380 × 109/lSodium 145 mmol/lPotassium 4.8 mmol/lCreatinine 89 μmol/lRheumatoid factor NegativeAntinuclear antibody NegativeAnti-dsDNA NegativeASO titre Not detectedElectrocardiogram (ECG) Sinus rhythmWhat is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Systemic Still’s disease
Explanation:People with Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (also known as Stills disease) can have recurrent fevers, a macular rash, joint pain, joint deformities, an enlarged liver and/or spleen, and can occasionally have polyserositis, lung involvement or pericardial effusions. Rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies are usually negative. Treatment is with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the prognosis is better than for adult rheumatoid arthritis.In pauciarticular Still’s disease, antinuclear antibodies are present. Large joints are affected and most patients develop classic features of seronegative spondylarthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 12
Correct
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A mother attends the emergency department with her 18-month-old child. She has noticed a discharge from the child's left ear. On examination, the child is systemically well. Examination of the left ear reveals a foul-smelling copious discharge. The child is reluctant to let you near the ear.What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Foreign body
Explanation:Not uncommonly, children insert a foreign body in their ear canal and do not mention it to their parents. If any pain accompanies purulent drainage, the possibility of a foreign body in the ear canal should be considered. A patient with a foreign body in place will not improve until it is removedOrganic foreign bodies tend to elicit inflammatory reactions. In the ear, they predispose to otitis externa, suppurative otitis media and hearing loss
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old female was given an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. After taking the medication the patient developed Steven-Johnson syndrome. Which particular antibiotic usually causes Steven-Johnson syndrome?
Your Answer: Erythromycin
Correct Answer: Sulphonamides
Explanation:Stevens–Johnson syndrome (SJS) is a type of severe skin reaction. The most common cause is certain medications such as lamotrigine, carbamazepine, allopurinol, sulphonamide antibiotics, and nevirapine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 12 year old girl is admitted with severe (35%) burns following a fire at home. She was transferred to the critical care unit after the wound was cleaned and dressed. She became tachycardic and hypotensive one day after skin grafts were done. She has vomited three times and blood was seen in it. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cushing's ulcers
Correct Answer: Curling's ulcers
Explanation:Answer: Curling’s ulcersCurling’s ulcer is an acute gastric erosion resulting as a complication from severe burns when reduced plasma volume leads to ischemia and cell necrosis (sloughing) of the gastric mucosa. The most common mode of presentation of stress ulcer is the onset of acute upper GI bleed like hematemesis or melena in a patient with the acute critical illness. A similar condition involving elevated intracranial pressure is known as Cushing’s ulcer. Cushing’s ulcer is a gastro-duodenal ulcer produced by elevated intracranial pressure caused by an intracranial tumour, head injury or other space-occupying lesions. The ulcer, usually single and deep, may involve the oesophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Increased intracranial pressure may affect different areas of the hypothalamic nuclei or brainstem leading to overstimulation of the vagus nerve or paralysis of the sympathetic system. Both of these circumstances increase secretion of gastric acid and the likelihood of ulceration of gastro-duodenal mucosa.Mallory-Weiss syndrome is characterized by upper gastrointestinal bleeding secondary to longitudinal mucosal lacerations (known as Mallory-Weiss tears) at the gastroesophageal junction or gastric cardia. However, Mallory-Weiss syndrome may occur after any event that provokes a sudden rise in the intragastric pressure or gastric prolapse into the oesophagus, including antecedent transoesophageal echocardiography. Precipitating factors include retching, vomiting, straining, hiccupping, coughing, primal scream therapy, blunt abdominal trauma, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. In a few cases, no apparent precipitating factor can be identified. One study reported that 25% of patients had no identifiable risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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A 15-year-old girl presents with polyuria, polydipsia and weight loss. Further investigations lead to a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus.Which of the following does she have an increased risk of developing?
Your Answer: Addison's disease, Grave's disease, coeliac disease
Explanation:The patient has features of type 1 diabetes mellitus, a disease of autoimmune aetiology. This also puts the patient at risk of developing other autoimmune disorders like Addison’s disease, Grave’s disease, and coeliac disease.All of the other options are non-autoimmune disorders.Diabetes mellitus is an increasing problem in both developing and developed countries alike.Some of the risk factors include:ObesityFamily historyFemale sex Asian and African racesPresence of acanthosis nigricans is seen with type 2 but not type 1 diabetesThe diagnosis is mostly incidental or subacute.The treatment aims are good blood sugar control, maintenance of normal BMI, and reduction of complications. The treatment modality also includes lifestyle modifications and cessation of smoking.Even after all this, diabetic ketoacidosis can still occur.Management of diabetes mellitus – NICE guidelines (Updated, 2015): – Standard release metformin should be offered from the moment of diagnosis.- HBA1c should be measured every three months. The target HBA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower is ideal for minimising the risk of long term complications.- Children should undergo an eye examination by an optician every two years.- Annual immunisation against influenza and pneumococcal infections are essential.- There is an increased risk of psychological and psychosocial difficulties if the child with type 1 diabetes is on insulin or oral hypoglycaemic medications. These include anxiety disorder, depression, behavioural and conduct disorders and family conflict.- Annual monitoring to be done for:Hypertension starting at diagnosis.Dyslipidaemia starting at diagnosis.Screening for microalbuminuria starting at diagnosis.Diabetic retinopathy from 12 years of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 16-month-old girl with eczema is on the following treatment regimen: Oilatum in baths| Baby' shampoo and soap and E45 cream to affected areas four times daily. Additionally, the mother uses 'non-biological' washing powder.The child often scratches the affected areas, sometimes even in her sleep. On examination, her skin is erythematous, excoriated, and lichenified over the knees, thighs, and flexor surfaces of the elbows.Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in the management of this child?
Your Answer: Use E45 cream instead of soap| advise using a greasier emollient and try an antihistamine at night
Explanation:The most appropriate next step in the management of this patient would be to use E45 cream instead of soap. Using a greasier emollient and an antihistamine at night can also be trialled..Management of eczema:Treatment of eczema can be problematic, and thus, parents should be advised regarding simple, everyday measures that can relieve the symptoms. These include:- Using non-biological washing powder- Wearing cotton clothes as opposed to artificial fibres- Avoiding the use of soaps or shampoos and using E45 Cream as an alternative.- Additional use of bath oil (e.g. Oilatum) is found to be beneficial.- Regular emollient use is recommended and essential. The aim is to keep the skin from feeling dry at any time of day. Sedating with older types of antihistamines at night does not help to reduce itching, but when used in large doses, they occasionally provide a sedative effect which may improve sleep. If all these measures are in use, but the eczema is still not controlled, the escalation of treatment would be appropriate. Note: There is no evidence for the benefit of topical antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 17-year-old autistic boy arrives at the clinic with lethargy, curly corkscrew like hair and petechiae. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Vitamin C deficiency
Explanation:Presentation can vary by individual. Early stages are often characterized by malaise, fatigue, and lethargy. One to 3 months of inadequate intake can lead to anaemia, myalgia, bone pain, easy bruising (Figure 3), swelling, petechiae, perifollicular haemorrhages, corkscrew hairs, gum disease, poor wound healing, mood changes, and depression. Perifollicular haemorrhages and easy bruising are often first seen in the lower extremities, as capillary fragility leads to an inability to withstand hydrostatic pressure. Late stages of scurvy are more severe and life threatening| common manifestations include generalized oedema, severe jaundice, haemolysis, acute spontaneous bleeding, neuropathy, fever, convulsions, and death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 18
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness and a decreased sense of smell. On examination, his testes are located in the scrotum and are small and soft. What is the most likely diagnosis for this boy?
Your Answer: Kallmann’s syndrome
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis in this patient is Kallmann’s syndrome.Kallmann’s syndrome is due to isolated gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency. It is often inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. Other options:- While Klinefelter’s syndrome is also associated with hypogonadism, the other clinical features of Klinefelter’s are not seen. – Cryptorchidism is ruled out by the presence of testes in the scrotum. – The presentation of the child is not suggestive of mumps orchitis or hyperprolactinaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Alexander is a developing and active 2 year old boy. Which of the following commands would he be able to follow?
Your Answer: Copy a circle
Correct Answer: Point to three body parts
Explanation:A 2 year old child who is developing normally should be able to point to three body parts, identify familiar objects in his environment such as a crayon or a toy and follow simple instructions.At 3 years old he should be able to copy a circle, jump up and down and name three colours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes presents with a history of recurrent early morning non-ketotic hyperglycaemia. Which of the following statements regarding the phenomenon described is correct?
Your Answer: She is likely to be omitting her evening insulin
Correct Answer: Can be seen after a hypoglycaemic fit
Explanation:The child has experienced the Somogyi phenomenon. It is a phenomenon where there’s a morning rise in blood sugar. Often it occurs as posthypoglycemic hyperglycaemia and follows nocturnal hypoglycaemia. The mechanism is the production of counter-regulatory hormones like glucagon, cortisol and adrenaline, which increase glucose. She can be managed by reducing her evening insulin dosage and increasing complex carbohydrates for supper (evening meal).Type I diabetes mellitus:It is a chronic illness that is characterised by the inability to produce insulin. It is caused by autoimmune destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas and often presents with ketoacidosis.The patient can present with symptoms suggestive of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. There can be periods of islet cell regeneration in these patients, which leads to a ‘honeymoon period’ of remission.Symptoms occur when there is < 20% of islet cell activity left.Insulin therapy is required in almost all children with type 1 diabetes.Most children require multiple insulin injections throughout the day via subcutaneous insulin pumps.Target HbA1c in these patients is 48 mmol/mol according to the updated NICE guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 21
Correct
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All of the given options cause persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia EXCEPT?
Your Answer: Phenylketonuria
Explanation:Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a serious condition that needs prompt attention and management. The accepted criteria to define neonatal hypoglycaemia is blood sugar levels less than 2.2mmol/L during the first 3 days of life and less than 2.5mmol/L later on. Multiple aetiologies and various risk factors are involved in causing hypoglycaemia in new-borns| the most common and important causes include prematurity, erythroblastosis fetalis, hypoxia at birth, sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, hypopituitarism, and hyperinsulinism due to maternal diabetes. Inborn errors of metabolism that lead to persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia are maple syrup urine disease, glycogen storage disease, fatty acid enzyme deficiencies, and fructose intolerance. Phenylketonuria does not cause hypoglycaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 22
Correct
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Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)?
Your Answer: Breech presentation
Explanation:Developmental dysplasia (DDH) of the hip refers to patients who are born with a dislocated or unstable hip due to abnormal development of the hip. Female infants and first born infants are most likely to present with DDH. Other risk factors for DDH include, breech positioning, oligohydramnios, high birth weight or post date babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is due to a deletion of chromosome 15q inherited from the father?
Your Answer: Angelman's syndrome
Correct Answer: Prader-Willi
Explanation:Most cases of Prader-Willi syndrome are not inherited, particularly those caused by a deletion in the paternal chromosome 15 or by maternal uniparental disomy. These genetic changes occur as random events during the formation of reproductive cells (eggs and sperm) or in early embryonic development. Affected people typically have no history of the disorder in their family.Rarely, a genetic change responsible for Prader-Willi syndrome can be inherited. For example, it is possible for a genetic change that abnormally inactivates genes on the paternal chromosome 15 to be passed from one generation to the next.Prader-Willi syndrome is a complex genetic condition that affects many parts of the body. In infancy, this condition is characterized by weak muscle tone (hypotonia), feeding difficulties, poor growth, and delayed development. Beginning in childhood, affected individuals develop an insatiable appetite, which leads to chronic overeating (hyperphagia) and obesity. Some people with Prader-Willi syndrome, particularly those with obesity, also develop type 2 diabetes (the most common form of diabetes).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 12-week antenatal scan reveals a massive neck swelling in the foetus. While assessing the mother, she is found to have mild learning difficulties, short stature and a heart murmur. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Noonan syndrome
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this patient is Noonan syndrome.Noonan syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition characterised by short stature, heart defects (mainly pulmonary stenosis) and learning difficulties. An affected foetus can present with a significant increase in the nuchal thickness or a cystic hygroma of the neck. The condition is variable, and an affected parent is often only diagnosed after the diagnosis in the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old girl is diagnosed with type-1 diabetes mellitus. She has three regular meals daily. Which of the following is the insulin regimen of choice for this patient?
Your Answer: Twice daily (30% short/70% intermediate acting): at 2/3 of dose am and 1/3 of dose pm
Correct Answer: Basal–bolus regimen
Explanation:In older children who are able to have regular meal timings, the insulin regimen of choice is the basal-bolus regimen, which comprises a dose of long-acting insulin in combination with three doses of short-acting insulin. The dosage timings coincide with the meal times, ensuring greater flexibility and feasibility. The long-acting insulin serves to provide a stable glycaemic control. The other given regimens are suitable for younger children with a more irregular meal schedule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 26
Correct
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Which of the following is NOT a gonadal or sexual differentiation disorder?
Your Answer: XXX (Triple X Syndrome)
Explanation:The correct answer is triple X syndrome with a genotype of XXX and an almost normal female phenotype. The extra X chromosome is inactive. The final phenotype of an individual is determined after normal sexual and gonadal differentiation, a process that involves several genes located on chromosomes X and Y. Disorders of sexual differentiation result in cases of ambiguous genitalia and are caused by a number of genetic abnormalities. Among these disorders is the turner syndrome with a genotype of 45X0, characterized by gonadal dysgenesis and ovarian failure. DAX-1 gene mutation leads to congenital adrenal hypoplasia and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, which results in virilization of female external genitalia. Campomelic dysplasia results from mutation of the SOX-9 gene, leading to 46XY sex reversal. Danys-Drash syndrome is characterized by disordered sexual development in affected males due to the mutated WT-1 gene, which also causes Wilm’s tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 27
Correct
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Childhood absence epilepsy is characterized by which of the given facts?
Your Answer: 3-Hz spike-and-slow-wave complexes are seen on electroencephalograms (EEGs)
Explanation:Absence epilepsy is the most common type of generalized childhood epilepsies. It is mainly idiopathic, but 10-40% of the cases have a positive family history. It is characterized by frequent absence seizures and periods of unconsciousness. The hallmark of absence epilepsy on EEG is the bilaterally synchronous 2–4 Hz spike and wave discharges (SWDs). The average age of onset is around 4-8 years, being more prevalent among girls. Treatment resistance is not common.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A paired t-test of blood measurements pre- and post-treatment yields a P-value of 0.256.Which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: A Wilcoxon matched pairs test would have been better
Correct Answer: The paired differences are not significantly different from zero on average
Explanation:The paired sample t-test, sometimes called the dependent sample t-test, is a statistical procedure used to determine whether the mean difference between two sets of observations is zero. In a paired sample t-test, each subject or entity is measured twice, resulting in pairs of observations. Common applications of the paired sample t-test include case-control studies or repeated-measures designs.Statistical significance is determined by looking at the p-value. The p-value gives the probability of observing the test results under the null hypothesis. The lower the p-value, the lower the probability of obtaining a result like the one that was observed if the null hypothesis was true. Thus, a low p-value indicates decreased support for the null hypothesis. However, the possibility that the null hypothesis is true and that we simply obtained a very rare result can never be ruled out completely. The cut-off value for determining statistical significance is ultimately decided on by the researcher, but usually a value of .05 or less is chosen. This corresponds to a 5% (or less) chance of obtaining a result like the one that was observed if the null hypothesis was true.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 29
Correct
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A 2 year old male was brought to the A&E following an car accident. On examination bowel sounds were heard in the chest. A nasogastric tube was inserted and a chest x-ray showed a curved NG tube. Which of the following is the most probable reason for it?
Your Answer: Diaphragm rupture
Explanation:Bowel sounds in the chest and curved NG tube are suggestive of a diaphragm rupture, which has caused herniation of bowel into the thoracic cavity through the defect in the diaphragm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 30
Correct
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A 6-months-old boy develops QT interval prolongation. Which of the following is NOT a cause of QT prolongation in this boy?
Your Answer: Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome
Explanation:Normal QT interval in a 6 months old baby is < 0.44 seconds. A duration exceeding this value is referred to as QT interval prolongation, which is associated with some important congenital syndromes that include Brugada syndrome which is characterized by vasovagal syncope and sudden cardiac death, Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome which is associated with congenital deafness, Andersen syndrome which is marked by bone deformities, and Timothy syndrome with associated heart disease and immunodeficiency. Romano-Ward syndrome is the commonest cause of congenital QT prolongation with no associated extra-cardiac manifestations. Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome is characterized by a shortened PR interval and a normal QRS duration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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