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  • Question 1 - You examine a patient who is experiencing a worsening of his chronic heart...

    Correct

    • You examine a patient who is experiencing a worsening of his chronic heart failure. You discuss his care with the on-call cardiology registrar, who recommends switching him from furosemide to bumetanide at an equivalent dose. He's on 80 mg of furosemide once a day right now.

      What is the recommended dose of bumetanide?

      Your Answer: 2 mg

      Explanation:

      Bumetanide is 40 times more powerful than furosemide, and one milligram is roughly equivalent to 40 milligrams of furosemide. This patient is currently taking 80 mg of furosemide and should be switched to a 2 mg bumetanide once daily.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - All of the following statement about the microcirculation are correct except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statement about the microcirculation are correct except:

      Your Answer: Blood flow into the microcirculation is regulated by the sympathetic nervous system.

      Correct Answer: Over the capillary bed, there is a net absorption of fluid.

      Explanation:

      The hydrostatic pressure along the length of the capillary is usually greater than plasma oncotic pressure. As a result, there is a small net filtration of fluid from the capillary into the interstitial space. The regulation of blood flow into the microcirculation is via the vasoconstriction of small arterioles, which is activated by the sympathetic nervous system through numerous nerve endings in their walls. Unlike proteins, most ions and small molecules diffuse easily across capillary walls and thus the crystalloid osmotic pressure they exert is roughly the same on either side of the capillary wall. Because the plasma colloid osmotic pressure is higher than interstitial colloid osmotic, fluid is drawn intravascularly. A reduction of hydrostatic capillary pressure and transient increase in absorption of fluid is a result of arteriolar constriction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      72.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Where is angiotensin I primarily converted to angiotensin II: ...

    Correct

    • Where is angiotensin I primarily converted to angiotensin II:

      Your Answer: Lungs

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II by the removal of two C-terminal residues by the enzyme angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE). This primarily occurs in the lungs, although it does also occur to a lesser degree in endothelial cells and renal epithelial cells.
      The main actions of angiotensin II are:
      Vasoconstriction of vascular smooth muscle (resulting in increased blood pressure)
      Vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole of the glomerulus (resulting in an increased filtration fraction and preserved glomerular filtration rate)
      Stimulation of aldosterone release from the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex
      Stimulation of anti-diuretic hormone (vasopressin) release from the posterior pituitary
      Stimulation of thirst via the hypothalamus
      Acts on the Na+/H+ exchanger in the proximal tubule of the kidney to stimulate Na+reabsorption and H+excretion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Among the following microorganisms, which is considered to be transmitted by invasion of...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following microorganisms, which is considered to be transmitted by invasion of intact skin?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus epidermidis

      Correct Answer: Leptospira spp.

      Explanation:

      Rodents and domestic animals are the primary reservoirs for the Leptospira spp, although other animals, including cows, horses, mongooses, and frogs, can also harbour the leptospires. Humans may be directly infected from animal urine or indirectly by contact with soil or water that is contaminated with urine from infected animals. Infected humans can shed leptospires in urine for up to 11 months, infected cows for 3.5 months, infected dogs for 4 years, and infected rodents possibly for their entire lifetime.

      The organisms enter the host through mucous membranes or abraded skin. The incubation period ranges from 5 to 14 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 67-year-old man complains of chest pain and goes to the emergency room....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man complains of chest pain and goes to the emergency room. He takes several medications, including amiodarone.

      Which of the following is amiodarone mechanism of action?

      Your Answer: Inhibits the Na/K ATPase in cardiac myocytes

      Correct Answer: Blocks Na + and K + channels and beta-adrenoreceptors in the heart

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is an anti-arrhythmic medication that can be used to treat both ventricular and atrial arrhythmias. It’s a class III anti-arrhythmic that works by blocking a variety of channels, including Na+ and K+ channels, as well as beta-adrenoreceptors. As a result, it slows conduction through the SA and AV nodes and prolongs phase 3 of the cardiac action potential (slowing repolarisation).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      91
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is first-line for management of status epilepticus: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is first-line for management of status epilepticus:

      Your Answer: Intravenous diazepam

      Correct Answer: Intravenous lorazepam

      Explanation:

      First-line treatment is with intravenous lorazepam if available. Intravenous diazepam is effective but it carries a high risk of thrombophlebitis so should only be used if intravenous lorazepam is not immediately available. Absorption of diazepam from intramuscular injection or from suppositories is too slow for treatment of status epilepticus. When facilities for resuscitation are not immediately available or if unable to secure immediate intravenous access, diazepam can be administered as a rectal solution or midazolam oromucosal solution can be given into the buccal cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 22-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance from her GP surgery with...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance from her GP surgery with suspected meningitis. She has been given a dose of benzylpenicillin already.
      What is the mechanism of action of benzylpenicillin? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Disruption of cell membrane function

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

      Explanation:

      Penicillins and the other ß-lactam antibiotics are bactericidal. They produce their antimicrobial action by preventing cross-linkage between the linear peptidoglycan polymer chains that make up the bacterial cell wall. They, therefore, inhibit cell wall synthesis.
      An overview of the different mechanisms of action of the various types of antimicrobial agents is shown below:
      Mechanism of action
      Examples
      Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
      Penicillins
      Cephalosporins
      Vancomycin
      Disruption of cell membrane function
      Polymyxins
      Nystatin
      Amphotericin B
      Inhibition of protein synthesis
      Macrolides
      Aminoglycosides
      Tetracyclines
      Chloramphenicol
      Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
      Quinolones
      Trimethoprim
      5-nitroimidazoles
      Rifampicin
      Anti-metabolic activity
      Sulfonamides
      Isoniazid

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The 'bucket handle' movement of the thoracic wall describes which of the following movements:...

    Incorrect

    • The 'bucket handle' movement of the thoracic wall describes which of the following movements:

      Your Answer: The anterior ends of the ribs moving upwards and forwards

      Correct Answer: The middles of the shafts of the ribs moving upwards and laterally

      Explanation:

      Because the middles of the shafts of the ribs are lower than either the anterior or posterior end, elevation of the ribs also moves the middles of the shafts laterally. This ‘bucket handle’ upwards and lateral movement increases the lateral dimensions of the thorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of these is NOT a naturally occurring anticoagulant: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these is NOT a naturally occurring anticoagulant:

      Your Answer: Protein S

      Correct Answer: Factor V Leiden

      Explanation:

      It’s crucial that thrombin’s impact is restricted to the injured site. Tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI), which is produced by endothelial cells and found in plasma and platelets, is the first inhibitor to function. It accumulates near the site of harm induced by local platelet activation. Xa and VIIa, as well as tissue factor, are inhibited by TFPI. Other circulating inhibitors, the most potent of which is antithrombin, can also inactivate thrombin and other protease factors directly. Coagulation cofactors V and VIII are inhibited by protein C and protein S. Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) from endothelial cells facilitates fibrinolysis by promoting the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 75-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis had gained weight, developed resistant hypertension, muscle...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis had gained weight, developed resistant hypertension, muscle weakness, and ankle oedema. This patient is most likely suffering from what condition?

      Your Answer: Cushing's disease

      Correct Answer: Cushing's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Overuse of cortisol medication, as seen in the treatment of patients with chronic asthma or rheumatoid arthritis, can cause Cushing’s syndrome.

      Weight gain, thin arms and legs, a round face, increased fat around the base of the neck, a fatty hump between the shoulders, easy bruising, wide purple stretch marks primarily on the abdomen, breasts, hips, and under the arms, weak muscles, hirsutism, hypertension, erectile dysfunction, osteoporosis, frontal alopecia, acne, depression, poor wound healing, and polycythaemia are all clinical features of Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      41.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You're evaluating a 37-year-old woman who is 12 weeks pregnant. She has experienced...

    Correct

    • You're evaluating a 37-year-old woman who is 12 weeks pregnant. She has experienced vaginal bleeding.

      Which of the following anti-D statements is correct?

      Your Answer: Routine antenatal prophylaxis is recommended for RhD negative women at 28 and 34 weeks

      Explanation:

      Anti-D is an IgG antibody that targets the antigen Rhesus D (RhD). Plasma from rhesus-negative donors who have been immunised against the anti-D-antigen is used to make anti-D immunoglobulin.

      Only RhD negative women are given Anti-D Ig. Women who are RhD negative do not have the RhD antigen on their RBC. If a foetus has the RhD antigen (i.e. is RhD positive) and the mother is exposed to foetal blood, she may develop antibodies to RhD that pass through the placenta and attack foetal red cells (resulting in newborn haemolytic disease). Anti-D is given to bind and neutralise foetal red cells in the maternal circulation before an immune response is triggered. In the event of a sensitising event, 500 IU Anti-D Ig should be administered intramuscularly.

      The following are examples of potentially sensitising events:
      Birth
      Haemorrhage during pregnancy
      Miscarriage
      Ectopic pregnancy
      Death within the womb
      Amniocentesis
      Chorionic villus sampling
      Trauma to the abdomen

      The sooner anti-D is given in the event of a sensitising event, the better; however, it is most effective within 72 hours, and the BNF states that it is still likely to have some benefit if given outside of this time frame.

      At 28 and 34 weeks, RhD negative women should receive routine antenatal prophylaxis. This is regardless of whether they have previously received Anti-D for a sensitising event during the same pregnancy.

      Prophylactic anti-D is not necessary before 12 weeks gestation, as confirmed by scan, in uncomplicated miscarriage (where the uterus is not instrumented), or mild, painless vaginal bleeding, as the risk of foeto-maternal haemorrhage (FMH) is negligible. In cases of therapeutic termination of pregnancy, whether by surgical or medical means, 250 IU of prophylactic anti-D immunoglobulin should be given to confirmed RhD negative women who are not known to be RhD sensitised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunological Products & Vaccines
      • Pharmacology
      62.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following nerves is responsible for the symptoms of a patient...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves is responsible for the symptoms of a patient with history of recurrent herpes simplex outbreaks on his face and presents with ophthalmic herpes zoster and a painful vesicle on the tip of his nose?

      Your Answer: Infraorbital nerve

      Correct Answer: Nasociliary nerve

      Explanation:

      Hutchinson sign relates to involvement of the tip of the nose from facial herpes zoster. It implies involvement of the external nasal branch of the nasociliary nerve which is a branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve.

      The nasociliary branch of the trigeminal nerve innervates the apex and lateral aspect of the nose, as well as the cornea. Therefore, lesions on the side or tip of the nose should raise suspicion of ocular involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      48.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 73-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department 48 hours after being discharged from...

    Correct

    • A 73-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department 48 hours after being discharged from the hospital after a two-week stay for sepsis treatment. She has fever, productive cough with thick green sputum, and shortness of breath. An X-ray shows left lower lobe pneumonia. Which of the bacteria listed below is more likely to be the causative agent:

      Your Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Explanation:

      Hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP), or nosocomial pneumonia, is a lower respiratory infection that was not incubating at the time of hospital admission and that presents clinically 2 or more days after hospitalization. Pneumonia that presents sooner should be regarded as community­ acquired pneumonia. VAP refers to nosocomial pneumonia that develops among patients on ventilators. Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) is defined as pneumonia that presents more than 48 hours after endotracheal intubation.

      Common bacteria involved in hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) include the following [10] :
      Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
      Staphylococcus aureus, including methicillin-susceptible S aureus (MSSA) and methicillin-resistant S aureus (MRSA)
      Klebsiella pneumoniae
      Escherichia coli

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Microbiology
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Identify the type of graph described below:

    A graph that consists of a vertical...

    Incorrect

    • Identify the type of graph described below:

      A graph that consists of a vertical bar graph in which values are plotted in decreasing order of relative frequency from left to right. The independent variables on the chart are shown on the horizontal axis and the dependent variables are portrayed as the heights of bars.

      Your Answer: Histogram

      Correct Answer: Pareto diagram

      Explanation:

      A pareto diagram, or pareto chart, consists of a vertical bar graph in which values are plotted in decreasing order of relative frequency from left to right. The independent variables on the chart are shown on the horizontal axis and the dependent variables are portrayed as the heights of bars.

      A point-to-point graph, which shows the cumulative relative frequency, may be superimposed on the bar.

      Because the values of the statistical variables are placed in order of relative frequency, the graph clearly reveals which factors have the greatest impact and where attention is likely to yield the greatest benefit. It is extremely useful for analysing what problems need attention first, because the taller bars on the chart clearly illustrate which variable have the greatest cumulative effect on a given system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      45.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The following are all examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT for: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following are all examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Allergic rhinitis

      Correct Answer: Contact dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Examples of type I reactions include:
      Allergic rhinitis
      Allergic conjunctivitis
      Allergic asthma
      Systemic anaphylaxis
      Angioedema
      Urticaria
      Penicillin allergy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Regarding the varicella zoster virus, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the varicella zoster virus, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: The varicella zoster vaccine is part of routine childhood immunisation.

      Correct Answer: Contracting chickenpox infection while pregnant is associated with a higher risk of developing varicella pneumonitis.

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox infection in neonates, adults/adolescents and pregnant women is associated with more severe disease. Varicella zoster pneumonitis typically occurs in pregnant women or immunocompromised individuals and is associated with a high mortality. A live attenuated-virus vaccine is available and recommended for non-immune healthcare workers but is not part of the routine childhood immunisation schedule. Antiviral treatment is not typically recommended in childhood chickenpox but is indicated for shingles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is synthesised by which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is synthesised by which of the following:

      Your Answer: Posterior pituitary

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      Antidiuretic hormone is synthesised in the hypothalamus and transported to the posterior pituitary within nerve fibres where it is stored in secretory granules. ADH binds V2 receptors on renal principal cells in the late distal tubule and collecting ducts, raising cAMP levels and causing intracellular vesicles to fuse with the apical membrane. In their membrane these vesicles have water channels called aquaporins, which increase the water permeability allowing greater water reabsorption and concentration of urine. Excess levels of ADH results in syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) characterised by hyponatremia with concomitant hypo-osmolality and high urine osmolality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old known intravenous drug user has a history of persistent high-fever. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old known intravenous drug user has a history of persistent high-fever. On examination you hear a harsh systolic murmur and the patient says a murmur has never been heard before in previous hospital visits. A diagnosis of endocarditis is suspect.

      Which of these antibacterial agents would be most appropriate to prescribe in this case?

      Your Answer: Vancomycin and metronidazole

      Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin and gentamicin

      Explanation:

      Endocarditis is infective or non infective inflammation (marantic endocarditis) of the inner layer of the heart and it often involves the heart valves.

      Risk factors include:
      Prosthetic heart valves
      Congenital heart defects
      Prior history of endocarditis
      Rheumatic fever
      Illicit intravenous drug use

      In the presentation of endocarditis, the following triad is often quoted:
      Persistent fever
      Embolic phenomena
      New or changing murmur

      Flucloxacillin and gentamicin are current recommended by NICE and the BNF for the initial ‘blind’ therapy in endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 54-year-old woman presents with polyuria and polydipsia. She is known to suffer...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman presents with polyuria and polydipsia. She is known to suffer from bipolar disorder, which has been well controlled by the use of lithium for many years.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Type 2 diabetes mellitus

      Correct Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus is the inability to produce concentrated urine. It is characterised by the presence of excessive thirst, polyuria and polydipsia. There are two distinct types of diabetes insipidus:
      Cranial (central) diabetes insipidus and;
      Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
      Cranial diabetes insipidus is caused by a deficiency of vasopressin (anti-diuretic hormone). Patients with cranial diabetes insipidus can have a urine output as high as 10-15 litres per 24 hours, but adequate fluid intake allows most patients to maintain normonatraemia. 30% of cases are idiopathic, and a further 30% are secondary to head injuries. Other causes include neurosurgery, brain tumours, meningitis, granulomatous disease (e.g. sarcoidosis) and drugs, such as naloxone and phenytoin. A very rare inherited form also exists that is associated with diabetes mellitus, optic atrophy, nerve deafness and bladder atonia.
      Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by renal resistance to the action of vasopressin. As with cranial diabetes insipidus, urine output is markedly elevated. Serum sodium levels can be maintained by secondary polydipsia or can be elevated. Causes of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus include chronic renal disease, metabolic disorders (e.g. hypercalcaemia and hypokalaemia) and drugs, including long-term lithium usage and demeclocycline.
      In view of the history of long-term lithium use, in this case, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 66-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his wife with the...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his wife with the complaint of increasing confusion and disorientation over the past three days, along with decreased urination. She reports that he has been complaining of increasing pain in his back and ribs over the past three months.

      On examination, the patient looks anaemic, is not oriented in time, place and person and has tenderness on palpation of the lumbar spine and the 10th, 11th and 12th ribs.

      Blood tests show anaemia which is normocytic, normochromic, raised urea and creatinine and hypercalcemia.

      Which one of the following diagnoses is most likely in this case?

      Your Answer: Metastatic prostate cancer

      Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Multiple myeloma is a clonal abnormality affecting plasma cells in which there is an overproduction of functionless immunoglobulins. The most common patient complaint is bone pain, especially in the back and ribs. Anaemia and renal failure are common, along with hypercalcemia. Hypercalcemia may lead to an altered mental status, as in this case.

      Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia occurs due to the overproduction of lymphocytes, usually B cells. CLL may present with an asymptomatic elevation of B cells. Patients are generally more than 50 years old and present with non-specific fatigue and weight loss symptoms.

      There is no history of alcohol abuse in this case. Furthermore, patients with a history of alcohol abuse may have signs of liver failure, which are not present here.

      Metastatic prostate cancer would most often cause lower backache as it metastasises first to the lumbar spine via the vertebral venous plexus.

      A patient with Vitamin B12 deficiency would have anaemia, megaloblastic, hypersegmented neutrophils, and signs of peripheral neuropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      43
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - When there is the presence of distended and engorged veins in the umbilical...

    Incorrect

    • When there is the presence of distended and engorged veins in the umbilical area, which of the following portosystemic anastomoses has most likely occurred?

      Your Answer: Para-umbilical veins and left gastric vein

      Correct Answer: Para-umbilical veins and inferior epigastric vein

      Explanation:

      Caput medusae is a condition that consists of collateral veins radiating from the umbilicus and results from recanalization of the umbilical vein.

      Under normal conditions, the portal venous blood traverses the liver and drains into the inferior vena cava of the systemic venous circulation by way of the hepatic veins. This is the direct route. However, other, smaller communications exist between the portal and systemic systems, and they become important when the direct route becomes blocked. These communications are as follows:

      At the lower third of the oesophagus, the oesophageal branches of the left gastric vein (portal tributary) anastomose with the oesophageal veins draining the middle third of the oesophagus into the azygos veins (systemic tributary).

      Halfway down the anal canal, the superior rectal veins (portal tributary) draining the upper half of the anal canal anastomosis with the middle and inferior rectal veins (systemic tributaries), which are tributaries of the internal iliac and internal pudendal veins, respectively.

      The paraumbilical veins connect the left branch of the portal vein with the superficial veins of the anterior abdominal wall (systemic tributaries). The paraumbilical veins travel in the falciform ligament and accompany the ligamentum teres.

      The veins of the ascending colon, descending colon, duodenum, pancreas, and liver (portal tributary) anastomose with the renal, lumbar, and phrenic veins (systemic tributaries).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 18-year-old man returns from a trip to Ibiza with a severely painful...

    Incorrect

    • A 18-year-old man returns from a trip to Ibiza with a severely painful left eye. He has copious mucopurulent discharge, is febrile and has left-sided tender preauricular lymphadenopathy. He attends the local eye casualty and is diagnosed with hyperacute conjunctivitis.
      What is the SINGLE most likely causatiave organism?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Correct Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      Hyperacute bacterial conjunctivitis is a severe, sight-threatening ocular infection that warrants immediate ophthalmic work-up and management. The infection has an abrupt onset and is characterized by a copious yellow-green purulent discharge that reaccumulates after being wiped away. Typically caused by infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following is NOT a feature characteristic of intravascular haemolysis: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a feature characteristic of intravascular haemolysis:

      Your Answer: Bilirubinuria

      Explanation:

      Features of intravascular haemolysis include:haemoglobinaemia, methaemalbuminaemia, haemoglobinuria (dark urine) and haemosiderinuria

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A patient presents with haemoptysis, weight loss, and night sweats. You suspect he...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with haemoptysis, weight loss, and night sweats. You suspect he may have tuberculosis. He works at an asylum seeker hostel, and has not received a BCG vaccination. In which of the following patient groups would the BCG vaccine be safe to administer?

      Your Answer: The patient is HIV positive and asymptomatic

      Correct Answer: The patient is asplenic

      Explanation:

      Persons with chronic diseases. Persons with chronic renal disease or undergoing dialysis, and those with hyposplenism or asplenia, may receive BCG vaccine if indicated.

      Only 2 absolute contraindications apply to all vaccines:

      • anaphylaxis following a previous dose of the relevant vaccine
      • anaphylaxis following any component of the relevant vaccine

      2 further contraindications apply to live vaccines (both parenteral and oral):

      • People who are significantly immunocompromised should not receive live vaccines. This is regardless of whether the immunocompromising condition is caused by disease or treatment.
      • Pregnant women should not receive live vaccines, in general. Women should be advised not to become pregnant within 28 days of receiving a live vaccine.

      Use of live vaccines in people who are immunocompromised:
      People who are immunocomprised are at risk of adverse events or vaccine-related disease if they receive a live vaccine.

      Live vaccines include:

      BCG (bacille Calmette–Guérin) vaccine
      oral cholera vaccine (Vaxchora)
      Some Japanese encephalitis virus vaccines
      MMR (measles-mumps-rubella) vaccine
      rotavirus vaccine
      oral typhoid vaccine
      varicella vaccine
      yellow fever vaccine
      zoster vaccine (Zostavax)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunological Products & Vaccines
      • Pharmacology
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Regarding Legionella species which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Legionella species which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: They are transmitted via the respiratory droplet route.

      Correct Answer: They are Gram-negative organisms.

      Explanation:

      Legionella pneumophilais a Gram negative bacterium that is found in natural water supplies and in the soil, transmitted predominantly via inhalation of aerosols generated from contaminated water (direct person-to-person spread of infected patients does not occur). It is the cause of Legionnaires’ disease. Outbreaks of Legionnaires’ disease have been linked to poorly maintained air conditioning systems, whirlpool spas and hot tubs.

      The clinical features of the pneumonic form of Legionnaires’ disease include:
      Mild flu-like prodrome for 1-3 days
      Cough (usually non-productive and occurs in approximately 90%)
      Pleuritic chest pain
      Haemoptysis
      Headache
      Nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea
      Anorexia
      Legionella pneumophilainfections can be successfully treated with macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, or quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, can also be used.
      The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) can occur with Legionnaires’ disease and will result in hyponatraemia as is seen in this case.
      Legionella pneumophilainfections are resistant to amoxicillin but can be successfully treated with macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, or quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, can also be used. The majority of cases of Legionnaires’ disease are caused by Legionella pneumophila, however many other species of Legionella have been identified.
      Legionella longbeachae is another less commonly encountered species that has also been implicated in outbreaks. It is predominantly found in soil and potting compost, and has caused outbreaks of Pontiac fever, the non-respiratory and less severe variant of Legionnaires’ disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Regarding diuretics, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding diuretics, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Spironolactone may cause hypokalaemia through increasing potassium secretion in the distal nephron.

      Correct Answer: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors have their effect by inhibiting bicarbonate reabsorption.

      Explanation:

      Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors e.g. acetazolamide block the reaction of carbon dioxide and water and so prevent Na+/H+exchange and bicarbonate reabsorption. The increased bicarbonate levels in the filtrate oppose water reabsorption. Proximal tubule sodium reabsorption is also reduced because it is partly dependent on bicarbonate reabsorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - On reviewing the ECG of a patient with a history of intermittent palpitations,...

    Incorrect

    • On reviewing the ECG of a patient with a history of intermittent palpitations, you observe prolonged QT interval.

      Which of these can cause prolongation of the QT interval on the ECG?

      Your Answer: Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Syncope and sudden death due to ventricular tachycardia, particularly Torsades-des-pointes is seen in prolongation of the QT interval.

      The causes of a prolonged QT interval include:
      Erythromycin
      Amiodarone
      Quinidine
      Methadone
      Procainamide
      Sotalol
      Terfenadine
      Tricyclic antidepressants
      Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome (autosomal dominant)
      Romano Ward syndrome (autosomal recessive)
      Hypothyroidism
      Hypocalcaemia
      Hypokalaemia
      Hypomagnesaemia
      Hypothermia
      Rheumatic carditis
      Mitral valve prolapse
      Ischaemic heart disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Regarding chemical control of respiration, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding chemical control of respiration, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Peripheral chemoreceptors are responsible for about 20% of the ventilatory response to increased PCO2.

      Correct Answer: The blood-brain barrier is freely permeable to HCO3 - ions.

      Explanation:

      CSF is separated from the blood by the blood-brain barrier. This barrier is impermeable to polar molecules such as H+and HCO3-but CO2can diffuse across it easily. The pH of CSF is therefore determined by the arterial PCO2and the CSF HCO3-and is not affected by blood pH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 26 year old horse rider has a bad fall and sustains a...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old horse rider has a bad fall and sustains a neck injury which displays the following signs:
      - ability to extend the wrist against gravity
      - paralysis of the hands, trunk, and legs
      - absent sensation in the fingers and medial upper arms
      - normal sensation over the thumbs
      - absent sensation in chest, abdomen, and legs

      What is the neurological level of the injury?

      Your Answer: C8

      Correct Answer: C6

      Explanation:

      C1 – C4 INJURY
      Most severe of the spinal cord injury levels; paralysis in arms, hands, trunk and legs; patient may not be able to breathe on his or her own, cough, or control bowel or bladder movements; ability to speak is sometimes impaired or reduced

      C5 INJURY
      Person can raise his or her arms and bend elbows; likely to have some or total paralysis of wrists, hands, trunk and legs; can speak and use diaphragm, but breathing will be weakened

      C6 INJURY
      Nerves affect wrist extension; paralysis in hands, trunk and legs, typically; should be able to bend wrists back; can speak and use diaphragm, but breathing will be weakened

      C7 INJURY
      Nerves control elbow extension and some finger extension; most can straighten their arm and have normal movement of their shoulders

      C8 INJURY
      Nerves control some hand movement; should be able to grasp and release objects

      C5 – Elbow flexors (biceps, brachialis)
      C6 – Wrist extensors (extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis)
      C7 – Elbow extensors (triceps)
      C8 – Finger flexors (flexor digitorum profundus) to the middle finger

      C5 – Elbow flexed at 90 degrees, arm at the patient’s side and forearm supinated
      C6 – Wrist in full extension
      C7 – Shoulder is neutral rotation, adducted and in 90 degrees of flexion with elbow in 45 degrees of flexion
      C8 –Full flexed position of the distal phalanx with the proximal finger joints stabilized in a extended position

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following types of food is most commonly implicated in anaphylactic...

    Correct

    • Which of the following types of food is most commonly implicated in anaphylactic reactions:

      Your Answer: Nuts

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis can be triggered by any of a very broad range of triggers, but those most commonly identified include food, drugs, latex and venom. Of foods, nuts are the most common cause; muscle relaxants, antibiotics, NSAIDs and aspirin are the most commonly implicated drugs. Food is the commonest trigger in children and drugs the commonest in adults. A significant number of cases are idiopathic. Most reactions occur over several minutes; rarely, reactions may be slower in onset. The speed of onset of the reaction depends on the trigger e.g. intravenous medications will cause a more rapid onset than stings which in turn will cause a more rapid onset than ingestion of food.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
      4.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (3/7) 43%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Physiology (1/9) 11%
Renal (1/2) 50%
Microbiology (1/7) 14%
Principles Of Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Central Nervous System (0/2) 0%
Infections (1/2) 50%
Anatomy (0/3) 0%
Thorax (0/1) 0%
Basic Cellular (0/1) 0%
Endocrine (0/2) 0%
Immunological Products & Vaccines (1/2) 50%
Specific Pathogen Groups (0/3) 0%
Evidence Based Medicine (0/1) 0%
Immune Responses (0/1) 0%
Pathology (1/3) 33%
Pathogens (0/2) 0%
Renal Physiology (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/2) 50%
Abdomen And Pelvis (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Physiology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (1/2) 50%
Passmed