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  • Question 1 - Which of the following statements is an accurate fact about the vertebral column?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is an accurate fact about the vertebral column?

      Your Answer: T10-T11 vertebrae have no facets on the transverse processes

      Correct Answer: Herniation of intervertebral disc between the fifth and sixth cervical vertebrae will compress the sixth cervical nerve root

      Explanation:

      The vertebral (spinal) column is the skeletal central axis made up of approximately 33 bones called the vertebrae.

      Cervical disc herniations occur when some or all of the nucleus pulposus extends through the annulus fibrosus. The most commonly affected discs are the C5-C6 and C6-C7 discs. Each vertebrae has a corresponding nerve root which arises at a level above it. This means that a hernation of the C5-C6 disc will cause a compression of the C6 nerve root.

      The foramen transversarium is a part of the transverse process of each cervical vertebrae, however, the vertebral artery only runs through the C1-C6 foramen transversarium.

      The costal facets are the point of joint formation between a rib and a vertebrae. As such, they are only present on the transverse processes of T1-T10.

      The lumbar vertebrae do not form a joint with the ribs, nor do they possess a foramina in their transverse process.

      Intervertebral discs are thickest in the cervical and lumbar regions of the spinal column. However, there are no discs between C1 and C2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      78.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Risk stratification is done prior to a major cardiac surgery using cardiopulmonary exercise...

    Correct

    • Risk stratification is done prior to a major cardiac surgery using cardiopulmonary exercise testing. Given the following options, which one is most likely to have the highest risk for post-operative cardiac morbidity?

      Your Answer: Anaerobic threshold (AT) of less than 11 mL/kg/minute

      Explanation:

      The ventilatory anaerobic threshold (VAT), formerly referred to as the anaerobic threshold, is an index used to estimate exercise capacity. During the initial (aerobic) phase of CPET, which lasts until 50–60% of Vo2max is reached, expired ventilation (VE) increases linearly with Vo2 and reflects aerobically produced CO2 in the muscles. Blood lactate levels do not change substantially during this phase, since muscle lactic acid production is minimal.

      During the latter half of exercise, anaerobic metabolism occurs because oxygen supply cannot keep up with the increasing metabolic requirements of exercising muscles. At this time, there is a significant increase in lactic acid production in the muscles and in the blood lactate concentration. The Vo2 at the onset of blood lactate accumulation is called the lactate threshold or the VAT. The VAT is also defined as the point at which minute ventilation increases disproportionately relative to Vo2, a response that is generally seen at 60–70% of Vo2max.

      The VAT is a useful measure as work below this level encompasses most daily living activities. The ability to achieve the VAT can help distinguish cardiac and non‐cardiac (pulmonary or musculoskeletal) causes of exercise limitation, since patients who fatigue before reaching VAT are likely to have a non‐cardiac problem.

      When VAT is detected, patients with PVo2 of ⩽10 ml/kg/min have a high event rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      117
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Regarding the basal metabolic rate (BMR), one of the following is correct. ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the basal metabolic rate (BMR), one of the following is correct.

      Your Answer: Is the single largest component of energy expenditure

      Explanation:

      BMR is lower in females than males.

      It decreases with increasing age.

      There is an increase in BMR with increased muscle (i.e. lean tissue)

      BMR is increased in stress and illness. There is also an catabolic state in these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old man presents to hospital complaining of dysphagia. He is scheduled for...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents to hospital complaining of dysphagia. He is scheduled for a rigid oesophagoscopy.

      On examination, He is noted to have severe osteoarthritis in his cervical spine resulting in limited rotation and flexion-extension. He has no other neurological signs or symptoms.

      He is given anaesthesia for the procedure, which is complicated by a difficult intubation (Cormack-Lehane 3), but was eventually achieved using a gum elastic bougie.

      After recovering from anaesthesia, he is examined and found to have severe motor weakness of upper limbs, and mild motor weakness of lower limbs, bladder dysfunction and sensory loss of varying degrees below the level of C5.

      What incomplete spinal cord lesion is most likely to be responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Central cord syndrome

      Explanation:

      Central cord syndrome is the most commonly occurring type of partial spinal cord lesion. It is more likely to occur in older patients with cervical spondylosis and a hyperextension injury. The injury to the spinal cord occurs in the grey matter causing the following symptoms:

      Disproportionally higher motor function weakness in the upper limbs than in lower limbs
      Dysfunction of the bladder
      Degrees of sensory loss below the level of the lesion

      An anterior spinal artery infarction will interrupt the corticospinal tract resulting in paralysis of motor function, loss of pain and temperature sensation, all occurring below the level of the injury.

      Brown-Sequard syndrome occurs as a result of the hemisection of the spinal cord. Its symptoms include ipsilateral upper motor neurone paralysis and loss of proprioception, with contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation.

      Spinal cord infarctions rarely occur in the posterior spinal artery.

      Cauda equina syndrome occurs as a result of compression of the lumbosacral spinal nerve roots below the level of the conus medullaris. Injury to these nerves will cause partial or complete loss of movement and sensation in this distribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      138
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 56-year old man, presents to emergency department following a cardiac arrest. On...

    Correct

    • A 56-year old man, presents to emergency department following a cardiac arrest. On history and examination, he is found to be suffering from both metabolic and respiratory acidosis as a result of his cardiac arrest.

      What is the best way to reduce the risk of acidaemia during cardiac arrest

      Your Answer: Chest compressions

      Explanation:

      Chest compressions are an essential part of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) which helps restore spontaneous circulation (ROSC).

      Sodium bicarbonate is only prescribed in patients with cardiac arrests as a result of an overdose of tricyclic antidepressants or hyperkalaemia. Its use causes the body to produce more CO2 which causes:

      Exacerbation of intracellular acidosis
      Negative inotropy to ischaemic myocardium
      Increased osmotic load of sodium into failing brain and body
      Shift of oxygen dissociation curve to the left.

      THAM is often used to treat metabolic acidosis as a result of cardiac bypass surgery and also cardiac arrest, when other standard methods have failed.

      Carbicarb (Na2CO3 0.33 molar NaHCO3 0.33 molar) has only mild effects on acidosis. It also causes an increase in arterial CO2 pressure and lactate concentration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following facts about T cells is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following facts about T cells is true?

      Your Answer: Recognise native antigen

      Correct Answer: Secrete IL-2 when activated

      Explanation:

      T cells function as a part of the body’s adaptive immune system. There are different types of T cells, including:

      Cytotoxic T cells: Function as killer cells by releasing cytotoxic granules into the membrane of targeted cells.

      T-Helper cells: When activated, they function to activate other immune cell types, assist in antibody production with B cells and releasing cytokines including IL-2.

      Memory T cells: Function as to provide immune memory against already encountered antigens.

      T cells possess specific glycoproteins and receptors on their surface.

      T-Helper cells work with HLA class II antigens on the cell surfaces in order to recognise foreign antigens

      T cells survive ranges from a few weeks, to a lifetime depending on the subtype in question.

      Immunoglobulins are expressed on the surface of, and secreted by B-lymphocytes.

      Native antigens are recognised by B cells. T cells only recognise antigens that have been processed by the cells and presented on the surface of the cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      43.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 27-year-old woman presents to emergency department. She is experiencing generalised seizures.

    She is...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to emergency department. She is experiencing generalised seizures.

      She is given emergency management of her symptoms before being referred to the neurologist who diagnoses her with new onset of tonic-clonic epilepsy.

      What is the most appropriate first line of treatment?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine should be offered as first line of treatment

      Explanation:

      Tonic-clonic (Grand mal) epilepsy is characterised by a general loss of consciousness with violent involuntary muscle contractions.

      The NICE guidelines for treatment indicates the use of sodium valproate and lamotrigine, but sodium valproate unsuitable in this case and she is a woman of reproductive age and it is known to have teratogenic effects. Lamotrigine is a more suitable choice, prescribed as 800mg daily.

      NICE guidelines also advice an additional prescription of 5mg of folic acid daily for women on anticonvulsant therapy looking to get pregnant. It also warns of the need for extra contraceptive precaution as there is a possibly that the anticonvulsant agent can reduce levels of contraceptive agents.

      Stimulation of the vagal nerve stimulation is only necessary in patients who are refractory to medical treatment and not candidates for surgical resection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Regarding thyroid hormones, one of the following is true. ...

    Correct

    • Regarding thyroid hormones, one of the following is true.

      Your Answer: Thyroid binding globulin (TBG) is increased in pregnancy

      Explanation:

      T3 is produced by peripheral de-iodination of T4. It is more active than T4.

      TBG, like most binding proteins, is increased in pregnancy. Because of this, measurement of free thyroid hormone concentration is more important than total.

      T4 and T3 concentrations are decreased in Illness and starvation.

      L-T4 that is the active molecule while D-T4 is inactive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The following statements are about the cervical plexus. Which one is true? ...

    Correct

    • The following statements are about the cervical plexus. Which one is true?

      Your Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve block is a complication of a cervical plexus block

      Explanation:

      The cervical plexus is a complex network of nerves within the head and neck region, providing nerve innervation to regions within the head, neck and trunk.

      It is comprised of nerves arising from the anterior primary rami of the C1-C4 nerve roots.

      The cervical plexus gives off superficial and deep branches. The superficial branches penetrate through the deep fascia at the centre point of the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid. It provides sensory innervation from the lower border of the mandible to the 2nd rib. The deep branches provide motor innervation to the neck and diaphragmatic muscles.

      Cervical plexus block is surgically relevant as it is used to provide regional anaesthesia for procedures in the neck region. The anaesthesia should be injected into the centre point of the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid. Complications arise when anaesthesia is instead injected into the wrong point, including into the vertebral artery, subarachnoid and epidural spaces, blockade of phrenic and recurrent laryngeal nerves, and the cervical sympathetic plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient under brachial plexus regional block complains of pain under the cuff...

    Incorrect

    • A patient under brachial plexus regional block complains of pain under the cuff after the torniquet is inflated.

      Which nerve was most probably 'missed' by the local anaesthetic?

      Your Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve

      Correct Answer: Intercostobrachial nerve

      Explanation:

      The area described in the question is supplied by the intercostobrachial nerve, which provides sensory innervation to the portions of the axilla, tail of the breast, lateral chest wall and medial side of the arm.

      It is a common for it to be ‘missed’ during administration of local anaesthesia because of its very superficial anatomic course. It may be anesthetized by giving an analgesia from the upper border of the biceps at the anterior axillary fold, to the margin of the triceps by the axillary floor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      19
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathophysiology (7/10) 70%
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