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  • Question 1 - If both the noradrenergic and the cholinergic systems are blocked in the heart,...

    Correct

    • If both the noradrenergic and the cholinergic systems are blocked in the heart, the rate will be approximately:

      Your Answer: 100/min

      Explanation:

      The normal heart beat is about 70/min. This is due to a predominant parasympathetic activity. If sympathetic activity was unopposed the heart rate would have been 150/min. When both the noradrenergic and cholinergic systems are blocked the heart rate is 100/min. This is the normal firing rate of the SA node.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Transport of Iron into enterocytes occurs via which membrane transporter? ...

    Correct

    • Transport of Iron into enterocytes occurs via which membrane transporter?

      Your Answer: Divalent metal transporter 1(dmt1)

      Explanation:

      To be absorbed, dietary iron can be absorbed as part of a protein such as haem protein or iron must be in its ferrous Fe2+ form. A ferric reductase enzyme on the enterocytes’ brush border, duodenal cytochrome B (Dcytb), reduces ferric Fe3+ to Fe2+. A protein called divalent metal transporter 1 (DMT1), which can transport several divalent metals across the plasma membrane, then transports iron across the enterocyte’s cell membrane into the cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which mechanism of action do Quinolones use? ...

    Correct

    • Which mechanism of action do Quinolones use?

      Your Answer: Inhibit DNA gyrase

      Explanation:

      The quinolones are a family of synthetic broad-spectrum antibiotic drugs. Quinolones exert their antibacterial effect by preventing bacterial DNA from unwinding and duplicating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 43 year old man with hemochromatosis presents with a painful and swollen...

    Incorrect

    • A 43 year old man with hemochromatosis presents with a painful and swollen right knee. X-ray shows extensive chondrocalcinosis but no fracture. Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following would be present in the joint fluid aspirate?

      Your Answer: Bipyramidal oxalate crystals

      Correct Answer: Positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals

      Explanation:

      Pseudogout is a paroxysmal joint inflammation due to calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate). Arthrocentesis should be performed, especially in acute cases. Polarized light microscopy: detection of rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent CPPD crystals. Synovial fluid findings: 10,000-50,000 WBCs/μL with > 90% neutrophils. X-ray findings: cartilage calcification of the affected joint (chondrocalcinosis). Fibrocartilage (meniscus, annulus fibrosus of intervertebral disc) and hyaline cartilage (joint cartilage) may be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the toxin secretion pathways in the cell membrane of gram– bacteria...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the toxin secretion pathways in the cell membrane of gram– bacteria delivers the toxin extracellular in a 2 stage process to the host?

      Your Answer: IV

      Correct Answer: II

      Explanation:

      Gram negative bacteria contain two membranes and there are about six specialized secretion systems. The secreted proteins play a key role in pathogenesis. Type II secretion systems (T2SS) are conserved in most Gram-negative bacteria, where they transport proteins from the periplasm into the extracellular environment. Because the T2SS channel is only found in the outer membrane, proteins secreted through this apparatus must first be delivered to the periplasm via the Sec or Tat secretion pathways and then to the extracellular environment making it a two-stage process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 55 year old cardiac patient is comfortable at rest but heavy housework...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year old cardiac patient is comfortable at rest but heavy housework results in fatigue, palpitations or dyspnoea. What New York Heart Association class best describes the severity of their disease?

      Your Answer: NYHA Class I

      Correct Answer: NYHA Class II

      Explanation:

      New York Heart Association functional classification:

      Class I: no limitation is experienced in any activities; there are no symptoms from ordinary activities.

      Class II: slight, mild limitation of activity; the patient is comfortable at rest or with mild exertion.

      Class III: marked limitation of any activity; the patient is comfortable only at rest.

      Class IV: any physical activity brings on discomfort and symptoms occur at rest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Tunica intima is made up of? ...

    Incorrect

    • Tunica intima is made up of?

      Your Answer: Smooth muscle cells

      Correct Answer: Endothelial cells

      Explanation:

      Tunica intima is a single cell thick lining of endothelial cells that lines the inside of the blood vessels. It is the inner most layer of the blood vessel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following stimulates glucagon release? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following stimulates glucagon release?

      Your Answer: Exercise

      Explanation:

      Studies have shown a small increase in glucagon levels during stress tests and exercise. This occurs in response to the reduction of blood glucose levels during physical activity; epinephrine levels are also a stimulus for the release of glucagon during exercise, since it suppresses insulin, which accounts for its stimulatory effects on glucagon. The use of stored fats for energy during exercise also stimulates the release of glucagon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the average life span of red blood cells? ...

    Correct

    • What is the average life span of red blood cells?

      Your Answer: 4 months

      Explanation:

      Approximately 2.4 million new erythrocytes are produced per second in human adults. The cells develop in the bone marrow and circulate for about 100–120 days (4 months) in the body before their components are recycled by macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Most of the venous blood returns to the heart through the: ...

    Incorrect

    • Most of the venous blood returns to the heart through the:

      Your Answer: Right ventricle

      Correct Answer: Coronary sinus and anterior cardiac veins

      Explanation:

      Most of the venous blood returns to the heart via the coronary sinus and the anterior cardiac veins which drain into the right atrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      56.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following has the shortest duration: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following has the shortest duration:

      Your Answer: PR interval

      Correct Answer: Atrial systole

      Explanation:

      Atrial systole: 0.1s

      Atrial diastole: around 0.4s

      Ventricular diastole: 0.4-0.53s

      Ventricular systole: 0.27s

      PR interval: 0.12-0.2 s

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the principle site of action of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)? ...

    Correct

    • What is the principle site of action of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)?

      Your Answer: Adrenal gland

      Explanation:

      Adrenocorticotropic hormone, also known as ACTH or corticotropin, is a polypeptide tropic hormone. It is synthesized by the corticotropic cells of the anterior pituitary. It works by regulating the secretion of glucocorticoid hormones from the cortex cells in the adrenal gland. It binds to the melanocortin (MC) 2 receptors on the surface of the adrenal zona glomerulosa cells, producing cortisol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the effect of oxytocin on the breast? ...

    Correct

    • What is the effect of oxytocin on the breast?

      Your Answer: Milk ejection

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin is a peptide hormone and neuropeptide, produced by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary. It causes the milk ejection or let-down reflex, causing the milk to be transported to the subareolar sinuses, allowing it to be released through the nipple. This response is initiated by the act of suckling by the baby, but it can be conditioned to be triggered by different stimuli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The ENaC Transporter occurs in which part of the renal tubule? ...

    Incorrect

    • The ENaC Transporter occurs in which part of the renal tubule?

      Your Answer: Apical surface of thick ascending limb

      Correct Answer: Collecting duct

      Explanation:

      The epithelial sodium channel (ENaC) is a membrane-bound ion channel that is selectively permeable to Na+ ions. It is involved primarily in the reabsorption of sodium ions at the collecting ducts of the kidney’s nephrons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following are responsible for the 4th heart sound? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following are responsible for the 4th heart sound?

      Your Answer: Ventricular hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      The fourth heart sound is not normally audible in a normal adult. It occurs as a consequence of ventricular hypertrophy. It is caused by filling of the ventricle in atrial systole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is a precursor to the tissue macrophage? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a precursor to the tissue macrophage?

      Your Answer: Monocyte

      Explanation:

      Monocytes are a type of white blood cell, or leukocyte. They are the largest type of leukocyte and can differentiate into macrophages or dendritic cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The average end diastolic volume in a healthy individual’s ventricle is? ...

    Correct

    • The average end diastolic volume in a healthy individual’s ventricle is?

      Your Answer: 130 ml

      Explanation:

      The end diastolic volume in a healthy individual is about 130 ml.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Among the following which is the beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine? ...

    Correct

    • Among the following which is the beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine?

      Your Answer: Dilation of systemic veins

      Explanation:

      Dilation of systemic veins is a beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine.Administration of nitro-glycerine results in the dilation of systemic veins and decrease of myocardial wall tension and oxygen demand. Dilatation of systemic veins can cause reduced systemic vascular resistance leading to reduced cardiac workload thus reducing anginal symptoms secondary to demand ischemia.This is accompanied by vasodilation of large and medium-sized coronary arteries with increased coronary blood flow to the sub endocardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Choose the correct statement about Aminoglycosides and Chloramphenicol ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct statement about Aminoglycosides and Chloramphenicol

      Your Answer: Both antibiotics is bactericidal

      Correct Answer: Chloramphenicol works on Ribosome 50 S peptidyl transferase

      Explanation:

      Aminoglycoside is a category of traditional Gram-negative antibacterial therapeutic agents that inhibit protein synthesis. Aminoglycoside antibiotics display bactericidal activity against gram-negative aerobes and some anaerobic bacilli where resistance has not yet arisen, but generally not against Gram-positive and anaerobic Gram-negative bacteria.Chloramphenicol is a bacteriostatic by inhibiting protein synthesis. It prevents protein chain elongation by inhibiting the peptidyl transferase activity of the bacterial ribosome. It specifically binds to A2451 and A2452 residues in the 23S rRNA of the 50S ribosomal subunit, preventing peptide bond formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with confusion and agitation for...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with confusion and agitation for the past four hours. He is a known alcoholic who has abstained from drinking for the past three days.On examination, he is sweating, agitated and disorientated. His temperature is 37.7°C, pulse 112 bpm regular and blood pressure is 150/76 mmHg. Blood investigations performed in the emergency department reveal:FBC: NormalU&E: NormalPlasma glucose: 4.6 mmol/l (3.6-6)Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate treatment for this man?

      Your Answer: Oral lorazepam

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient is delirium tremens due to alcohol withdrawal, which should be treated as a medical emergency. Delirium tremens is a hyperadrenergic state and is often associated with tachycardia, hyperthermia, hypertension, tachypnoea, tremor, and mydriasis.Treatment:- The most common and validated treatment for alcohol withdrawal is benzodiazepine: first-line treatment includes oral lorazepam. – If the symptoms persist, or the medication is refused, parenteral lorazepam, haloperidol or olanzapine should be given.- Central-acting, alpha-2 agonists such as clonidine and dexmedetomidine should not be used alone for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal.- It is also recommended to avoid using alcohol, antipsychotics, anticonvulsants, beta-adrenergic receptor blockers, and baclofen for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal as there are not enough studies to support the safety of these.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - B1 adrenergic stimulation produces: ...

    Incorrect

    • B1 adrenergic stimulation produces:

      Your Answer: Decrease adenylate cyclase

      Correct Answer: Increase in calcium cytosolic concentration

      Explanation:

      Norepinephrine secreted by the sympathetic endings binds to B1 receptors, and the resulting increase in intracellular cAMP facilitates the opening of L channels, increasing Ica and the rapidity of the depolarization phase of the impulse and activates PKA which leads to phosphorylation of the voltage-gated Ca2+ channels, causing them to spend more time in the open state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which one of the following leads to decreased prolactin levels? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following leads to decreased prolactin levels?

      Your Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Dopamine has an important effect on the regulation of prolactin secretion. Dopamine binds to type-2 dopamine receptors of the lactotroph cells that are functionally linked to membrane channels and G proteins and suppresses the high secretory activity of the pituitary lactotrophs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The thalamic nuclei that project over wide regions of the neocortex are: ...

    Incorrect

    • The thalamic nuclei that project over wide regions of the neocortex are:

      Your Answer: Midline and intralaminar nuclei

      Correct Answer: Specific relay nuclei

      Explanation:

      The thalamus is considered the relay station for sensory and motor stimuli. There are three basic types of thalamic nuclei: relay nuclei, association nuclei and non-specific nuclei. Relay nuclei receive very well defined inputs and project this signal to functionally distinct areas of the cerebral cortex. These include the nuclei that relay primary sensations and also the nuclei involved in feedback of cerebellar signals and basal gangliar output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      19165.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The areas of extensive series of sarcoplasmic folds known as intercalated discs always...

    Correct

    • The areas of extensive series of sarcoplasmic folds known as intercalated discs always occur at what portion of the muscle fiber?

      Your Answer: Z lines

      Explanation:

      The muscle fibers of the heart branch and interdigitate, but one complete unit is surrounded by a cell membrane. The place where one muscle fiber abuts the other, the cell membrane of both the fibers run parallel to each other through a series of extensive folds. These areas always occur on the Z lines and are known as intercalated discs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 28 year old man was rushed to the hospital after experiencing sudden...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old man was rushed to the hospital after experiencing sudden onset chest pain while playing football. He has never felt such pain in the past. However, one of his uncles had a similar sudden discomfort at a young age and he passed away following a heart problem. The following vitals are recorded on examination:BP: 101/74 mmHgRR: 22 breaths/minPR: 87 beats/min Physical examination reveals abnormally long fingers and on asking the man to hold the opposite wrist, the thumb and little finger overlap each other. He is not taking any medication regularly and past medical/surgical history is not significant. He admits to smoking half pack of cigarettes/day for the last 10 years but denies abusing any illicit drugs. Which of the following explanation most likely explains the disease process in this man?

      Your Answer: A defect of the glycoprotein structure which usually wraps around elastin

      Explanation:

      Aortic dissection is defined as separation of the layers within the aortic wall. Tears in the intimal layer result in the propagation of dissection (proximally or distally) secondary to blood entering the intima-media space. This can be caused as a result of both congenital or acquired factors like chronic uncontrolled hypertension. This patient shows no sign of hypertension but his physical examination hints towards Marfan Syndrome. Marfan syndrome (MFS) is an autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder affecting the microfibrils and elastin in connective tissue throughout the body. MFS is associated with pathological manifestations in the cardiovascular system (e.g., mitral valve prolapse, aortic aneurysm, and dissection), the musculoskeletal system (e.g., tall stature with disproportionately long extremities, joint hypermobility), and the eyes (e.g., subluxation of the lens of the eye). Decreased collagen production occurs in ageing, hydroxylation defects are present in vitamin C deficiency, copper deficiency affecting lysyl oxidase enzyme occurs in Menke’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The internodal tract of Bachman: ...

    Incorrect

    • The internodal tract of Bachman:

      Your Answer: Does not contain purkinje fibers

      Correct Answer: Connects the SA node to the AV node

      Explanation:

      Internodal tract of Bachman connects the SA node to the AV node conducting the electrical impulses generated from the SA node to the AV node and from the AV node to the rest of the electrical complex of the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 36 year old man arrives at the clinic complaining of pain and...

    Correct

    • A 36 year old man arrives at the clinic complaining of pain and swelling of the left knee, ankles and right hallux. He has acute conjunctivitis, and dysuria. He suffered from an episode of gastroenteritis two weeks back. Clinical examination shows left Achilles tendonitis and right plantar fasciitis. Radiological examination reveals left sacroiliitis, with evidence of enthesitis, joint erosions and periostitis. HLA-B27 is positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reiter’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Vasodilatation of coronary arteries is caused by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Vasodilatation of coronary arteries is caused by:

      Your Answer: None of options provided

      Correct Answer: Hypoxia

      Explanation:

      The heart is highly metabolically active and boasts the highest oxygen consumption by mass of any organ. This demand for oxygen is met by the coronary circulation, which is responsible for delivering blood to the myocardium and represents approximately 5% of cardiac output. Vasodilation may be due to the local effect of hypoxia on coronary vessels, or local metabolic vasodilation, or the activation of β-adrenoceptors or some combination of these mechanisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which factors increase the end-diastolic volume? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which factors increase the end-diastolic volume?

      Your Answer: Myocardial infarction

      Correct Answer: Constriction of veins

      Explanation:

      End diastolic volume is also known as preload. It is the amount of blood the heart contracts against. Constriction of veins will decrease venous pooling and increase venous return, hence increasing the end diastolic volume. Standing will increase venous pooling hence decreasing venous return and end diastolic volume. Raised intrapericardial pressure will also decrease venous return and hence end diastolic volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - One function of the liver is synthesis and storage of protein. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • One function of the liver is synthesis and storage of protein. Which of the following will result in hypoalbuminemia?

      Your Answer: Nephropathy

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Both trauma and sepsis cause an acute inflammatory response causing plasma leakage of albumin. Nephropathy causes leakage of albumin from glomeruli and excretion of albumin in urine known as albuminuria. A hypercatabolic state is characterized by increased circulating catabolic hormones and increase break down of proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      24.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (4/12) 33%
Medicine (16/30) 53%
Haematology (3/3) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/3) 33%
Connective Tissue (2/3) 67%
Endocrinology (4/4) 100%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal (0/1) 0%
Passmed