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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is NOT a heritable risk factor for venous thrombosis:...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a heritable risk factor for venous thrombosis:

      Your Answer: Von Willebrand disease

      Explanation:

      Approximately one-third of patients who suffer DVT or PE have an identifiable heritable risk factor, although additional risk factors are usually present when they develop the thrombosis. The history of a spontaneous DVT in a close relative increases an individual’s risk of DVT even if no known genetic predisposition can be identified.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old female arrives after taking an unknown chemical in excess. She is tired...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female arrives after taking an unknown chemical in excess. She is tired and her speech is slurred. The following are her observations and results:HR 118,BP 92/58,SaO2 96%
      HR 118,  11/15 The following are the results  of his arterial blood gas (ABG):
      pH: 7.24pO 2 : 9.4kPa PCO2 : 3.3kPa HCO 3 -: 22 mmol/lNa + : 143 mmol/lCl – : 99 mmol/lLactate: 5 IU/l

      Which of the following statements about this patient is TRUE?

      Your Answer: Her anion gap is elevated

      Explanation:

      The interpretation of arterial blood gas (ABG) aids in the measurement of a patient’s pulmonary gas exchange and acid-base balance.
      The normal values on an ABG vary a little depending on the analyser, but they are roughly as follows:
      Variable
      Range
      pH
      7.35 – 7.45
      PaO2
      10 – 14 kPa
      PaCO2
      4.5 – 6 kPa
      HCO3-
      22 – 26 mmol/l
      Base excess
      -2 – 2 mmol/l

      The patient’s history indicates that she has taken an overdose in this case. Because her GCS is 11/15 and she can communicate with slurred speech, she is clearly managing her own airway, there is no current justification for intubation.

      The following are the relevant ABG findings:

      Hypoxia (mild)
      pH has been lowered (acidaemia)
      PCO2 levels are low.
      bicarbonate in its natural state
      Lactate levels have increased

      The anion gap represents the concentration of all the unmeasured anions in the plasma. It is the difference between the primary measured cations and the primary measured anions in the serum. It can be calculated using the following formula:
      Anion gap = [Na+] – [Cl-] – [HCO3-]

      The reference range varies depending on the technique of measurement, but it is usually between 8 and 16 mmol/L.

      The following formula can be used to compute her anion gap:
      Anion gap = [143] – [99] – [22]
      Anion gap = 22

      As a result, it is clear that she has a metabolic acidosis with an increased anion gap.

      The following are some of the causes of type A and type B lactic acidosis:
      Type A lactic acidosis
      Type B lactic acidosis
      Shock (including septic shock)
      Left ventricular failure
      Severe anaemia
      Asphyxia
      Cardiac arrest
      CO poisoning
      Respiratory failure
      Severe asthma and COPD
      Regional hypoperfusion
      Renal failure
      Liver failure
      Sepsis (non-hypoxic sepsis)
      Thiamine deficiency
      Alcoholic ketoacidosis
      Diabetic ketoacidosis
      Cyanide poisoning
      Methanol poisoning
      Biguanide poisoning

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following problems is associated with Helicobacter pylori infection? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following problems is associated with Helicobacter pylori infection?

      Your Answer: Gastric malignancy

      Explanation:

      Helicobacter pylori is a ubiquitous organism that is present in about 50% of the global population. Chronic infection with H pylori causes atrophic and even metaplastic changes in the stomach, and it has a known association with peptic ulcer disease. The most common route of H pylori infection is either oral-to-oral or faecal-to-oral contact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of opioid analgesics: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of opioid analgesics:

      Your Answer: Raised intracranial pressure

      Explanation:

      Opioids should be avoided in people who have:
      A risk of paralytic ileus (opioids reduce gastric motility)
      Acute respiratory depressionAn acute exacerbation of asthma (opioids can aggravate bronchoconstriction as a result of histamine release)
      Conditions associated with increased intracranial pressure including head injury (opioids can interfere with pupillary response making neurological assessment difficult and may cause retention of carbon dioxide aggravating the increased intracranial pressure)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is? ...

    Correct

    • The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is?

      Your Answer: Ampulla of Fallopian tube

      Explanation:

      Nearly 95% of ectopic pregnancies are implanted in the various segments of the fallopian tube and give rise to fimbrial, ampullary, isthmic, or interstitial tubal pregnancies. The ampulla is the most frequent site, followed by the isthmus. The remaining 5% of non tubal ectopic pregnancies implant in the ovary, peritoneal cavity, cervix, or prior caesarean scar.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You examine a 48-year-old patient who has had proximal weakness, hypertension, and easy...

    Correct

    • You examine a 48-year-old patient who has had proximal weakness, hypertension, and easy bruising in the past. She exhibits considerable face fullness and truncal obesity on examination. You diagnose her�with Cushing's syndrome.
      When would her random cortisol level likely be abnormal?

      Your Answer: 2400 hrs

      Explanation:

      Cortisol levels fluctuate throughout the day, with the greatest levels occurring around 0900 hours and the lowest occurring at 2400 hrs during sleep.

      The diurnal swing of cortisol levels is lost in Cushing’s syndrome, and levels are greater throughout the 24-hour period. In the morning, levels may be normal, but they may be high at night-time, when they are generally repressed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 53 year old male is found to have megaloblastic anaemia secondary to...

    Correct

    • A 53 year old male is found to have megaloblastic anaemia secondary to folate deficiency. He has a known history of alcohol abuse. Which of the following is characteristic of this condition?

      Your Answer: Increased mean corpuscular volume (MCV)

      Explanation:

      Megaloblastic anaemia occurs when there is inhibition of DNA synthesis as red blood cells are produced. Impairment of DNA synthesis causes the cell cycle to be unable to progress from the growth stage to the mitosis stage. As a result, there is continuous cell growth without division, with an increase in mean corpuscular volume (MCV), which presents as macrocytosis. The most common cause of this defect in red cell DNA synthesis is hypovitaminosis, in particular, vitamin B12 deficiency or folate deficiency.
      Folate is an essential vitamin that can be found in most foods, and is highest in liver, green vegetables and yeast. 200 – 250 μg is found in the normal daily diet, and about 50% is absorbed. The daily adult requirement is about 100 μg and its absorption is principally from the duodenum and jejunum. Folate stores are normally only adequate for 4 months and so clinical features of folate deficiency usually become evident after this time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A young 20-year-old boy is a known case of type I diabetes mellitus....

    Correct

    • A young 20-year-old boy is a known case of type I diabetes mellitus. Today, he presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and abdominal pain in the emergency department. His blood sugar is drawn, which is markedly elevated to 7 mmol/L. Quick ABGs are drawn, which show metabolic acidosis. You diagnose the patient to be suffering from diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and immediately commence its treatment protocol in which insulin is also administered.

      Out of the following, which parameter is MOST likely to change due to initiating insulin?

      Your Answer: Potassium

      Explanation:

      Diabetes ketoacidosis is an acute complication of diabetes mellitus. Insulin is administered to achieve euglycemia, and crystalloids or colloidal solution is administered to achieve euvolemia and euelectrolytaemia.

      Potassium levels severely fluctuate during the treatment of DKA, hypokalaemia being more common. Insulin promotes the cell to take up potassium from the extracellular space via increased sodium-potassium pump activity.

      It is important to monitor potassium levels during the treatment of DKA regularly. It is widely suggested that the normal saline shall be used for initial resuscitation, and once the potassium level is retrieved, the patient can be started on potassium replacement should the serum potassium level be between 3.3 and 4.5 mmol/L
      If potassium levels fall below 3.3 mmol/l, insulin administration may need to be interrupted to correct the hypokalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You review a sick patient in resus who has been prescribed mannitol as...

    Correct

    • You review a sick patient in resus who has been prescribed mannitol as part of his treatment protocol.
      Which SINGLE statement regarding mannitol is true?

      Your Answer: It is irritant to veins and causes phlebitis

      Explanation:

      Mannitol is a low molecular weight compound and is therefore freely filtered at the glomerulus and is not reabsorbed. It, therefore, increases the osmolality of the glomerular filtrate and tubular fluid, increasing urinary volume by an osmotic effect. It also does not cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB).
      Mannitol is primarily used to reduce the pressure and volume of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). It decreases the volume of CSF by:
      Decreasing the rate of CSF formation,and;
      Withdrawing extracellular fluid from the brain across the BBB
      Other uses of mannitol include:
      Short-term management of glaucoma
      Treatment of rhabdomyolysis
      Preserve renal function in peri-operative jaundiced patients
      To initiate diuresis in transplanted kidneys
      Bowel preparation prior to colorectal procedures
      The recommended dose of mannitol for the reduction of CSF pressure/cerebral oedema is 0.25-2g/kg as an intravenous infusion over 30-60 minutes. This can be repeated 1-2 times after 4-8 hours if needed.
      Circulatory overload and rebound increases in intracranial pressure may occur following the use of mannitol. It is irritant to tissues and veins and can cause inflammation and phlebitis.
      Mannitol causes an expansion of the extracellular fluid space, which may worsen congestive cardiac failure. Contraindications to the use of mannitol include:
      Anuria
      Intracranial bleeding (except during craniotomy)
      Severe cardiac failure
      Severe dehydration
      Severe pulmonary oedema

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. He was...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. He was recently released from the hospital after receiving abciximab during coronary angioplasty.

      Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to abciximab (ReoPro) treatment?

      Your Answer: Major surgery within the last 6 months

      Explanation:

      Abciximab (ReoPro) is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that is a chimeric monoclonal antibody. It is primarily used during and after coronary artery procedures such as angioplasty to inhibit platelet aggregation.

      The use of abciximab is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Internal bleeding is present.
      Within the last two months, you’ve had major surgery, intracranial surgery, or trauma.
      Stroke in the previous two years
      Intracranial tumour
      Aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation
      Haemorrhagic diathesis is a type of haemorrhagic diathesis.
      Vasculitis
      Retinopathy caused by hypertension

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - When an elderly dehydrated patient is moved from a supine to a standing...

    Correct

    • When an elderly dehydrated patient is moved from a supine to a standing position, her heart rate increases. Which of the following accounts for the increase in heart rate upon standing:

      Your Answer: Decreased venous return

      Explanation:

      On standing from a prone position, gravity causes blood to pool in veins in the legs. Central venous pressure (CVP) falls, causing a fall in stroke volume and cardiac output (due to Starling’s law) and thus a fall in blood pressure. Normally this fall in BP is rapidly corrected by the baroreceptor reflex which causes venoconstriction (partially restoring CVP), and an increase in heart rate and contractility, so restoring cardiac output and blood pressure. Impaired autonomic nervous activity in the elderly accounts for the greater likelihood of postural hypotension. Any symptoms of dizziness, blurred vision or syncope is due to a transient fall in cerebral perfusion that occurs before cardiac output and mean arterial pressure (MAP) can be corrected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 58-year-old woman presents with symptoms of increase in weight, proximal muscular weakening...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman presents with symptoms of increase in weight, proximal muscular weakening and withering, easy bruising, and acne. You notice that she has a full, plethoric aspect to her face, as well as significant supraclavicular fat pads, when you examine her. She has previously been diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome.

      Cushing's syndrome is most commonly caused by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Iatrogenic administration of corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs brought on by long-term exposure to high amounts of endogenous or exogenous glucocorticoids. Cushing’s syndrome affects about 10-15 persons per million, and it is more common in those who have had a history of obesity, hypertension, or diabetes.

      Iatrogenic corticosteroid injection is the most prevalent cause of Cushing’s syndrome. Cushing’s illness is the second most prevalent cause of Cushing’s syndrome. Cushing’s disease is distinct from Cushing’s syndrome in that it refers to a single cause of the illness, a pituitary adenoma that secretes high quantities of ACTH, which raises cortisol levels.

      Cushing’s syndrome has several endogenous sources, including:
      Cushing’s disease is caused by a pituitary adenoma.
      Adrenal adenoma Ectopic corticotropin syndrome, e.g. small cell cancer of the lung
      Adrenal carcinoma is a cancer of the adrenal gland.
      Hyperplasia of the adrenal glands

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 47-year old male comes to the out-patient department for a painful, right-sided...

    Correct

    • A 47-year old male comes to the out-patient department for a painful, right-sided groin mass. Medical history reveals a previous appendectomy 10 years prior. On physical examination, the mass can be reduced superiorly. Also, the mass extends to the scrotum. The initial diagnosis is a hernia.

      Among the types of hernia, which is the most likely diagnosis of the case above?

      Your Answer: Indirect inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      Inguinal hernias can present with an array of different symptoms. Most patients present with a bulge in the groin area, or pain in the groin. Some will describe the pain or bulge that gets worse with physical activity or coughing. Symptoms may include a burning or pinching sensation in the groin. These sensations can radiate into the scrotum or down the leg. It is important to perform a thorough physical and history to rule out other causes of groin pain. At times an inguinal hernia can present with severe pain or obstructive symptoms caused by incarceration or strangulation of the hernia sac contents. A proper physical exam is essential in the diagnosis of an inguinal hernia. Physical examination is the best way to diagnose a hernia. The exam is best performed with the patient standing. Visual inspection of the inguinal area is conducted first to rule out obvious bulges or asymmetry in groin or scrotum. Next, the examiner palpates over the groin and scrotum to detect the presence of a hernia. The palpation of the inguinal canal is completed last. The examiner palpates through the scrotum and towards the external inguinal ring. The patient is then instructed to cough or perform a Valsalva manoeuvre. If a hernia is present, the examiner will be able to palpate a bulge that moves in and out as the patient increases intra abdominal pressure through coughing or Valsalva.

      Groin hernias are categorized into 2 main categories: inguinal and femoral.

      Inguinal hernias are further subdivided into direct and indirect. An indirect hernia occurs when abdominal contents protrude through the internal inguinal ring and into the inguinal canal. This occurs lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. The hernia contents may extend into the scrotum, and can be reduced superiorly then superolaterally. A direct inguinal hernia is protrusion of abdominal contents through the transversalis fascia within Hesselbach’s triangle. The borders of Hesselbach’s triangle are the inferior epigastric vessels superolaterally, the rectus sheath medially, and inguinal ligament inferiorly.

      A femoral hernia is a protrusion into the femoral ring. The borders of the femoral ring are the femoral vein laterally, Cooper’s ligament posteriorly, the iliopubic tract/inguinal ligament anteriorly and lacunar ligament medially.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 69-year-old man with a history of chronic anaemia is transfused. He takes...

    Correct

    • A 69-year-old man with a history of chronic anaemia is transfused. He takes bisoprolol and furosemide for his cardiac failure, and his most recent BNP was 123 pmol/l. He developed shortness of breath and his pre-existing peripheral oedema became worse 5 hours after transfusion was commenced. His BP rises to 170/105 mmHg and a repeat measurement of his BNP is 192 pmol/l.

      What is the most likely transfusion reaction to have occurred?

      Your Answer: TACO

      Explanation:

      Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) presents as acute or worsening respiratory distress within 6 hours of transfusion of a large volume of blood. It is common in patients with diminished cardiac reserve or chronic anaemia. Elderly patients, infants and severely anaemic patients are particularly susceptible. Typical clinical features of TACO include: Acute respiratory distress, Tachycardia, Hypertension, Acute/worsening pulmonary oedema on chest X-ray. The BNP is usually raised to at least 1.5 times the pre-transfusion baseline.

      Febrile transfusion reaction presents with a 1 degree rise in temperature from baseline during transfusion. Patient may have chills and malaise. It is the most common transfusion reaction (1 in 8 transfusions) and is usually caused by cytokines released from leukocytes in transfused red cell or platelet components.

      TRALI (Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury) is a clinical syndrome with abrupt onset of non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema within 6 hours of transfusion not explained by another risk factor. Associated with the presence of antibodies in the donor blood to recipient leukocyte antigens. patients present with dyspnoea, hypertension, hypotension, acute leukopenia.

      Graft versus host disease(GVHD) is an immune mediated condition that arises from a complex interaction between donor and recipients adaptive immunity. It presents as dermatitis, hepatitis and enteritis developing within 100 days after stem cell or bone marrow transplant.

      Acute haemolytic reaction aka immediate haemolytic transfusion reaction presents with fever, chills, pain at transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, dark urine and feeling of ‘impending doom’. Often, it occurs due to ABO incompatibility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 12-year-old boy presents to the ED with symptoms suggesting an anaphylactic reaction.

    Which...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy presents to the ED with symptoms suggesting an anaphylactic reaction.

      Which of these statements about anaphylaxis is true?

      Your Answer: The immunoglobulin-antigen complex binds to Fc receptors on the surface of mast cells.

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis is an example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction.

      It is IgE mediated.

      It requires a prior exposure to the antigen. The initial exposure sensitizes the body to the antigen and a second exposure to that antigen leads to an anaphylactic reaction.

      Massive calcium influx into the cells leads to mast cell degranulation.

      The Immunoglobulin antigen complex binds to Fc receptors on the surface of mast cells. The result is mast cell degranulation and release of histamine, proteoglycans and serum proteases from cytoplasmic granules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You examine a 78-year-old man who has been diagnosed with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia...

    Correct

    • You examine a 78-year-old man who has been diagnosed with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL).

      What is the MAIN contributory factor in this condition's immunodeficiency?

      Your Answer: Hypogammaglobulinemia

      Explanation:

      Immunodeficiency is present in all patients with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL), though it is often mild and not clinically significant. Infections are the leading cause of death in 25-50 percent of CLL patients, with respiratory tract, skin, and urinary tract infections being the most common.

      Hypogammaglobulinemia is the most common cause of immunodeficiency in CLL patients, accounting for about 85 percent of all cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old woman was complaining of headaches. On examination, the patient is found...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman was complaining of headaches. On examination, the patient is found to have weakness on the left side of her body and her eyes are deviated towards the right hand side. These are signs of damage to which of the following areas?

      Your Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      Some potential symptoms of frontal lobe damage can include loss of movement, either partial or complete, on the opposite side of the body.

      In the patient’s case, it is a result of motor cortex damage on the right side since her left side of the body is affected. The conjugate eye deviation symptom towards the side of the lesion is a result of damage to the frontal eye field.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You have been called to review a patient and his management in the...

    Correct

    • You have been called to review a patient and his management in the resuscitation room. A very sick patient has been started on mannitol in his treatment protocol.

      Out of the following, what is NOT an FDA-recognized indication for the use of mannitol?

      Your Answer: Congestive cardiac failure

      Explanation:

      Mannitol is the most widely used osmotic diuretic that is most commonly used to reduce cerebral oedema and intracranial pressure.
      Mannitol has four FDA approved uses clinically:
      1. Reduction of intracranial pressure and brain mass
      2. reduce intraocular pressure if this is not achievable by other means
      3. promote diuresis for acute renal failure to prevent or treat the oliguric phase before irreversible damage
      4. promote diuresis to promote the excretion of toxic substances, materials, and metabolites

      It can be used in rhabdomyolysis-induced renal failure, especially in crush injuries. Mannitol reduces osmotic swelling and oedema in the injured muscle cells and helps restore skeletal muscle function.

      It is a low molecular weight compound and can be freely filtered at the glomerulus and not reabsorbed. This way increases the osmolality of the glomerular filtrate and tubular fluid, increasing urinary volume by an osmotic effect. It also does not cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB).

      Mannitol causes an expansion of the extracellular fluid space, which may worsen congestive cardiac failure. Contraindications to the use of mannitol include:

      1. Anuria due to renal disease
      2. Acute intracranial bleeding (except during craniotomy)
      3. Severe cardiac failure
      4. Severe dehydration
      5. Severe pulmonary oedema or congestion
      6. Known hypersensitivity to mannitol

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 39-year-old man who is suffering from a bacterial infection require antibiotic treatment....

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old man who is suffering from a bacterial infection require antibiotic treatment. You need to figure out which antibiotic is most suitable. Listed below are antimicrobial drugs.

      Which one is a nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Ciprofloxacin and other quinolone antibiotics work by blocking DNA gyrase, an enzyme that compresses bacterial DNA into supercoils, as well as a type II topoisomerase, which is required for bacterial DNA separation. As a result, they prevent nucleic acid synthesis.
      The following is a summary of the many modes of action of various types of antimicrobial agents:

      Action Mechanisms- Examples:

      Cell wall production is inhibited
      Vancomycin
      Vancomycin
      Cephalosporins

      The function of the cell membrane is disrupted
      Nystatin
      Polymyxins
      Amphotericin B 

      Inhibition of protein synthesis
      Chloramphenicol
      Macrolides
      Aminoglycosides
      Tetracyclines

      Nucleic acid synthesis inhibition
      Quinolones
      Trimethoprim
      Rifampicin
      5-nitroimidazoles
      Sulphonamides
      Anti-metabolic activity
      Isoniazid

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which lobe of the prostate gland is most commonly affected in prostatic carcinoma?...

    Correct

    • Which lobe of the prostate gland is most commonly affected in prostatic carcinoma?

      Your Answer: Posterior

      Explanation:

      The periurethral portion of the prostate gland increases in size during puberty and after the age of 55 years due to the growth of non-malignant cells in the transition zone of the prostate that surrounds the urethra. Most cancers develop in the posterior lobe, and cancers in this location may be palpated during a digital rectal examination (DRE).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - As a response to low blood pressure, the baroreceptor reflex will facilitate vasoconstriction...

    Correct

    • As a response to low blood pressure, the baroreceptor reflex will facilitate vasoconstriction by activating which receptor?

      Your Answer: Alpha1

      Explanation:

      The rate of baroreceptor firing slows down when blood pressure falls too low. This causes an increase in sympathetic stimulation of the heart, resulting in an increase in cardiac output. It also causes vasoconstriction by activating alpha 1 receptors in smooth muscle, which causes sympathetic stimulation of peripheral vessels.

      Alpha2 receptors can be found in both the brain and the peripheral nervous system. They control sympathetic outflow in the brain stem.

      Beta1 receptors, which are found on the cell membrane of cardiac muscle cells, stimulate heart rate and myocardial contractility. The smooth muscle cell membrane contains beta2 receptors, which promote smooth muscle relaxation in the lungs causing bronchodilation, GI tract, and peripheral blood vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - In patients who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure but are...

    Correct

    • In patients who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure but are requiring oxygen, the oxygen saturations should be maintained at which of the following?

      Your Answer: 94 - 98%

      Explanation:

      Oxygen saturation should be 94 – 98% in most acutely ill patients with a normal or low arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2). In some clinical situations, however, like cardiac arrest and carbon monoxide poisoning, it is more appropriate to aim for the highest possible oxygen saturation until the patient is stable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following blood groups is the universal donor: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following blood groups is the universal donor:

      Your Answer: O

      Explanation:

      Blood group O has no antigens, but both anti-A and anti-B antibodies and thus is the universal donor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - All of the following single clinical risk groups is considered eligible to receive...

    Correct

    • All of the following single clinical risk groups is considered eligible to receive the seasonal influenza vaccination, except:

      Your Answer: Patients with hypertension

      Explanation:

      The following is the list of all the health and age factors that are known to increase a person’s risk of getting serious complications from flu:
      – Adults 65 years and older
      – Children younger than 2 years old
      – Asthma
      – Neurological and neurodevelopmental conditions
      – Blood disorders (such as sickle cell disease)
      – Chronic lung disease (such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease [COPD] and cystic fibrosis)
      – Endocrine disorders (such as diabetes mellitus)
      – Heart disease (such as congenital heart disease, congestive heart failure and coronary artery disease)
      – Kidney diseases
      – Liver disorders
      – Metabolic disorders (such as inherited metabolic disorders and mitochondrial disorders)
      – People who are obese with a body mass index [BMI] of 40 or higher
      – People younger than 19 years old on long-term aspirin- or salicylate-containing medications.
      – People with a weakened immune system due to disease (such as people with HIV or AIDS, or some cancers such as leukaemia) or medications (such as those receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatment for cancer, or persons with chronic conditions requiring chronic corticosteroids or other drugs that suppress the immune system)
      – People who have had a stroke
      – Pregnant people and people up to 2 weeks after the end of pregnancy
      – People who live in nursing homes and other long-term care facilities

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 20-year-old boy took almost 25 tablets of paracetamol almost 4 hours ago....

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old boy took almost 25 tablets of paracetamol almost 4 hours ago. The boy is healthy and has no known comorbid or drug history.

      Out of the following metabolic pathways, which one is primarily responsible for the toxic effects of paracetamol?

      Your Answer: N-hydroxylation

      Explanation:

      Paracetamol is predominantly metabolized in the liver by three main metabolic pathways:
      1. Glucuronidation (45-55%)
      2. Sulphate conjugation (30-35%)
      3. N-hydroxylation via the hepatic cytochrome P450 enzyme system (10-15%)

      Cytochrome P450 enzymes catalyse the oxidation of acetaminophen to the reactive metabolite N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine (NAPQI). NAPQI primarily contributes to the toxic effects of acetaminophen. NAPQI is an intermediate metabolite that is further metabolized by fast conjugation with glutathione. The conjugated metabolite is then excreted in the urine as mercapturic acid. High doses of acetaminophen (overdoses) can lead to hepatic necrosis due to depleting glutathione and high binding levels of reactive metabolite (NAPQI) to important parts of liver cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A dermatological examination on a patient presenting with a lump shows a small...

    Correct

    • A dermatological examination on a patient presenting with a lump shows a small visible skin elevation containing an accumulation of pus.

      Which one of these best describes the lump you have found on examination?

      Your Answer: Pustule

      Explanation:

      A pustule is a small visible skin elevation containing an accumulation of pus.

      A carbuncle is a collection of individual boils clustered together.

      A bulla is a visible collection of clear fluid measuring greater than 0.5 cm in diameter.

      A furuncle, or boil, is a pyogenic infection of the hair follicle commonly caused by infection with Staphylococcus aureus.

      A vesicle is a visible collection of fluid measuring less than 0.5 cm in diameter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A young female was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection and was sent...

    Correct

    • A young female was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection and was sent home with medications. However, after 48 hours of discharge, she returned to the hospital because there had been no relief from her symptoms. The urine sensitivity test report is still unavailable. Fresh blood tests were sent, and her estimated GFR is calculated to be >60 ml/minute.

      She was prescribed nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release orally twice a day for two days.

      Out of the following, which antibiotic is most appropriate to be prescribed to this patient?

      Your Answer: Fosfomycin

      Explanation:

      The NICE guidelines for women with lower UTIs who are not pregnant are:
      1. Consider prescribing a different antibiotic if symptoms do not improve within 48 hours or worsen at any time
      2. If the urine culture and susceptibility test results are available, review the choice of antibiotic according to the results and change the antibiotic accordingly if symptoms are not improving or bacteria is resistant to the prescribed antibiotic

      The first choice of antibiotics for non-pregnant women aged 16 years and over is:
      1. Nitrofurantoin
      100 mg modified-release PO BD for 3 days – if eGFR >45 ml/minute
      2. Trimethoprim
      200 mg PO BD for three days

      The second-choice (no improvement in lower UTI symptoms on first-choice for at least 48 hours, or when first-choice is not suitable) are:
      1. Nitrofurantoin
      100 mg modified-release PO BD for three days – if eGFR >45 ml/minute
      2. Pivmecillinam
      400 mg PO initial dose, then 200 mg PO TDS for three days
      3. Fosfomycin 3 g single sachet dose

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following is the site of secretion of intrinsic factor: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the site of secretion of intrinsic factor:

      Your Answer: Stomach

      Explanation:

      Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption of the small amounts of vitamin B12 normally present in the diet from the terminal ileum. The parietal cells of the stomach produce intrinsic factor, and following a gastrectomy, the absorption of vitamin B12 will be markedly reduced, and a deficiency state will exist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which statement concerning aerosol transmission is true? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement concerning aerosol transmission is true?

      Your Answer: They can be spread via ventilation systems in hospitals

      Explanation:

      Aerosols are airborne particles less than 5 µm in size containing infective organisms.

      They usually cause infection of both the upper and/or lower respiratory tract.

      The organisms can remain suspended in the air for long periods and also survive outside the body.

      They can be transmitted through the ventilation systems and can spread over great distances.

      Some examples of organisms transmitted by the aerosol route include: Varicella zoster virus, Mycobacterium tuberculosis and measles virus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of an abducens nerve...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of an abducens nerve palsy:

      Your Answer: Inability to look up

      Explanation:

      CN VI palsies result in a convergent squint at rest (eye turned inwards) with inability to abduct the eye because of unopposed action of the rectus medialis. The patient complains of horizontal diplopia when looking towards the affected side. With complete paralysis, the eye cannot abduct past the midline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      7.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (4/4) 100%
Pathology (7/7) 100%
Physiology (6/6) 100%
Renal Physiology (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (3/3) 100%
Pathogens (1/1) 100%
Central Nervous System (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (9/9) 100%
Abdomen And Pelvis (3/3) 100%
Anatomy (5/5) 100%
Endocrine Physiology (2/2) 100%
Endocrine Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (3/3) 100%
Cardiovascular (2/2) 100%
General Pathology (2/2) 100%
Infections (2/2) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Immune Responses (1/1) 100%
Principles Of Microbiology (2/2) 100%
CNS Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal (1/1) 100%
Cranial Nerve Lesions (1/1) 100%
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