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  • Question 1 - An infant of 2 months is diagnosed with a ventricular septal defect. This...

    Correct

    • An infant of 2 months is diagnosed with a ventricular septal defect. This congenital anomaly is most likely due to a developmental failure of which embryological structure?

      Your Answer: Endocardial cushions

      Explanation:

      The heart is the first organ to form and become functional, emphasizing the importance of transport of material to and from the developing infant. It originates about day 18 or 19 from the mesoderm and begins beating and pumping blood about day 21 or 22. It forms from the cardiogenic region near the head and is visible as a prominent heart bulge on the surface of the embryo. Originally, it consists of a pair of strands called cardiogenic cords that quickly form a hollow lumen and are referred to as endocardial tubes. These then fuse into a single heart tube and differentiate into the truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, primitive ventricle, primitive atrium, and sinus venosus, starting about day 22. The primitive heart begins to form an S shape within the pericardium between days 23 and 28. The internal septa begin to form about day 28, separating the heart into the atria and ventricles, although the foramen ovale persists until shortly after birth. Between weeks five and eight, the atrioventricular valves form. The semilunar valves form between weeks five and nine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 10-year-old boy presented to the ophthalmology clinic with a painless swelling on...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy presented to the ophthalmology clinic with a painless swelling on the superotemporal aspect of his orbit. It was smooth on examination and produced no visual disturbances. Following excision, it was found to be lined by squamous epithelium and hair follicles.Which lesion is most probably associated with these findings?

      Your Answer: Desmoid tumour

      Correct Answer: Dermoid cyst

      Explanation:

      The most probable lesion in the patient is a dermoid cyst.Rationale:Dermoid cysts are embryological remnants and may be lined by hair and squamous epithelium (like teratomas). They are often located in the midline and may be linked to deeper structures resulting in a dumbbell shape to the lesion. Complete excision is required as they have a propensity to local recurrence if not excised.Note:Desmoid tumours are a different entity entirely. These lesions most commonly develop in ligaments and tendons. They are also referred to as aggressive fibromatosis and consist of dense fibroblastic lesions (resembling scar tissue). They should be managed in a similar manner to soft tissue sarcomas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 1 year old baby boy is taken to the doctor by his...

    Correct

    • A 1 year old baby boy is taken to the doctor by his mother who is concerned that she cannot feel his testis. On examination by the doctor, his testis are not palpable either in the scrotum or the inguinal region and cannot be seen on ultrasound either. Which of the following is the most appropriate next stage in management?

      Your Answer: Laparoscopy

      Explanation:

      Answer: LaparoscopyThe diagnostic accuracy of laparoscopy for impalpable testis is well recognized. Approximately 20% of undescended testes are truly impalpable, and laparoscopy is actually regarded as the gold standard for their localization| none of the currently available imaging techniques (ultrasound, computerized tomography, or magnetic resonance imaging) has proven to be 100% reliable in predicting the presence or absence of a testis.In this respect, not only can laparoscopy be considered the most reliable tool to provide information on the location of the testis but also to confirm its absence.Undescended testes in boys is a very common congenital abnormality in which one or both testes does not reach the bottom of the scrotum prior to birth. The incidence of the condition is 3–5% among all boys at birth, and decreases to 0.8–1% after 6 months of age.Males with undescended testes have a lower sperm count, poorer quality sperm, and lower fertility rate, compared to males whose testicles descend normally| the rate of subfertility increases with bilateral involvement and increasing age at the time of orchidopexy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      43.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A thin 16-year-old girl has bilateral parotid swelling with thickened calluses on the...

    Correct

    • A thin 16-year-old girl has bilateral parotid swelling with thickened calluses on the dorsum of her hand. What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Bulimia nervosa is a condition in which a person is involved in binge eating and then purging. This patient has swollen parotid glands. The glands swell in order to increase saliva production so that the saliva lost in the vomiting is compensated. This patient also has thickened calluses on the back of her hand. This is known as Russell’s sign. This occurs because of putting fingers in the mouth again and again to induce the gag reflex and vomit. The knuckles get inflamed in the process after coming in contact with the teeth multiple times.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The use of prostaglandin to keep the ductus arteriosus open is necessary for...

    Incorrect

    • The use of prostaglandin to keep the ductus arteriosus open is necessary for which of the following?

      Your Answer: Total anomalous pulmonary venous return with obstruction

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid atresia

      Explanation:

      Tricuspid atresia is the third most common form of cyanotic congenital heart disease, with a prevalence of 0.3-3.7% in patients with congenital heart disease. The deformity consists of a complete lack of formation of the tricuspid valve with the absence of a direct connection between the right atrium and right ventricle.The following 3 considerations guide the treatment of infants with tricuspid atresia:- The amount of pulmonary blood flow must be regulated to decrease hypoxemia or symptoms of congestive heart failure.- Myocardial function, the integrity of the pulmonary vascular bed, and pulmonary vascular integrity must be preserved to optimize conditions for a later Fontan operation.- The risk of bacterial endocarditis and thromboembolism must be minimized.Infants with decreased pulmonary blood flow: encompasses most of the infants with tricuspid atresia.Marked cyanosis and hypoxemia characterize the clinical course. Acidaemia may occur if the hypoxemia is profound, and death can ensue.Promptly treat infants with severe hypoxemia with prostaglandin E infusions to maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus and improve pulmonary blood flow.Infants with increased pulmonary blood flow: These infants have an associated unrestrictive ventricular septal defect and transposed great vessels.They present with severe congestive heart failure and benefit from digitalis and diuretic therapy until an operative intervention can be undertaken to restrict the pulmonary blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      51.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - In females, precocious puberty may be defined as the development of secondary sexual...

    Correct

    • In females, precocious puberty may be defined as the development of secondary sexual characteristics before which of the following ages?

      Your Answer: 8 years of age

      Explanation:

      Precocious puberty is the development of secondary sexual characteristics before the age of 8 in females, and 9 in males. The first sign of early puberty in females is breast enlargement, followed by the appearance of pubic and axillary hair, and finally menarche, 2-3 years after the onset of thelarche. Precocious puberty is caused by the premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis where FSH and LH levels are raised. Less common is the gonadotrophin independent form, which is due to excess sex hormones, but low FSH and LH levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      853.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 10-month-old girl is brought to the hospital with a history of atrial...

    Correct

    • A 10-month-old girl is brought to the hospital with a history of atrial septal defect and duplex kidneys and has had a successful repair of her cleft lip and palate. A cranial ultrasound scan revealed multiple choroid plexus cysts. On examination, you find a small child with micrognathia, low-set ears, and a prominent forehead and occiput. She has hypoplastic nails with an overlapping index and middle finger. Her rocker-bottom feet show no evidence of lymphoedema. Cardiovascular examination reveals a short sternum with a 2/6 pan-systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge radiating to the apex. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Edward syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Edward syndrome.Edward syndrome results from trisomy 18. It is the second most common syndrome after Down syndrome. 60% of cases die within 48 hours, and 90% within the first year due to apnoeas. Cardiovascular abnormalities include atrial septal defect, ventricular septal defect and a persistent ductus arteriosus. There is no association with exophthalmos, but it may occur. Right choroid plexus cysts are found on coronal imaging, and 40–70% at post mortem are shown to have multiple large bilateral choroid plexus cysts (>10 mm). These may not become pathological but usually trigger an anomaly scan. Around 1% of cases may present with only a cyst, but 4% may present with other abnormalities.Other options:- Children with the velocardiofacial syndrome have a classic facial appearance with hypertelorism, a tubular nose, a cleft lip/palate abnormality and cardiac anomalies. – Children with Patau syndrome usually present with midline defects and are less likely to have rocker-bottom feet. – Children with Treacher Collins syndrome present with abnormalities of the branchial arches and pharyngeal pouches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      49
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 12 year old female presents at her local emergency room with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 12 year old female presents at her local emergency room with a complete loss of consciousness, intercostal retractions, no residual signs and no post-ictal phase. She later went on to have a full recovery. From the list of options, choose the most probable diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Atonic seizure

      Correct Answer: Partial generalized seizure

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of a partial generalized seizure are consistent with this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      422.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm? ...

    Correct

    • Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm?

      Your Answer: Epithelial part of the tympanic cavity

      Explanation:

      Endoderm derivatives include the epithelium of the following: gastrointestinal tract and its glands, glandular cells of the liver and pancreases, urachus and urinary bladder, pharynx, trachea and alveoli, part of the tonsils, thyroid and parathyroid, tympanic cavity and thymus and part of the anterior pituitary gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A previously well 7-week-old infant was admitted complaining of projectile vomiting following each...

    Correct

    • A previously well 7-week-old infant was admitted complaining of projectile vomiting following each feed. He was dehydrated on admission and IV fluids were started. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      Projectile vomiting is the hallmark symptom of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. It is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in infancy, which has a male-to-female predominance of 4-5:1. Current management recommendations include ultrasonography for diagnosis, correction of electrolytes, and surgical intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of fever, painful joints,...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of fever, painful joints, and a rash. Her parents insist that she was otherwise well except for a history of sore throat 2 weeks before.On examination, she appears quite unwell with a temperature reading of 38.5°C. She was found to be tachycardic, hypertensive and with an erythematous rash with raised edges noted on the anterior aspect of her abdomen. Her left ankle and right elbow joints are swollen, and she has multiple painless subcutaneous nodules under her skin. Auscultation revealed an apical mid-diastolic murmur. Blood investigations reveal leucocytosis and raised C-reactive protein (CRP) levels. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) was also above normal limits for her gender and age. An ECG confirms the presence of a tachycardia, a prolonged PR interval, and flat inverted T waves.What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer: Subacute bacterial endocarditis

      Correct Answer: Rheumatic fever

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this child would be rheumatic fever due to a previous history of rheumatic fever, evidence of streptococcal disease from a throat swab, a raised ASO titre and a positive streptococcal antigen test or a leukocytosis.Acute Rheumatic Fever:ARF occurs because of an abnormal immune response to a streptococcal antigenic component. It has a latent period of 1–3 weeks and is more common in the lower socio-economic classes. It peaks at around 5–15 years of age and affects the blood vessels, joints, nervous system and subcutaneous tissues. It is characterised as an autoimmune disease, and there is a risk of rheumatic fever occurring after infection in 3% of the population. The recurrence is greater in younger children and increases with each attack. Duckett-Jones criteria:The diagnostic criteria for acute rheumatic fever.Major: – Pancarditis- Chorea (Sydenham’s) – Polyarthritis (flitting)- Erythema marginatum- Subcutaneous nodulesMinor criteria include the presence of arthralgia, fever, prolonged PR interval, raised ESR, raised CRP.Note that:To make the diagnosis of rheumatic fever: Two major and/or one major with two minor criteria are required. Evidence of a recent streptococcal infection with a raised ASO titre or an antiribonuclease B level is sufficient. Exceptions to this rule are mentioned below:- Chorea alone is diagnostic.- Insidious or late-onset carditis with no other explanation.- Rheumatic recurrence: The presence of one major and one minor criterion with a prior streptococcal disease that is recurring.Consequences of pericarditis include heart block, pericardial effusion, tachycardia, cardiomegaly, pericardial friction rub, congestive cardiac failure, valvular disease and a Carey–Coombes apical mid-diastolic rumbling murmur.New heart murmurs are often audible, including those of mitral regurgitation and aortic regurgitation. Skin nodules affect the perivascular tissues and are non-specific lesions resulting from fibroid degeneration.Management:Medication includes aspirin for the acute phase, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for arthritis, prednisolone for severe carditis, and high-dose penicillin for immediate management with antibiotic prophylaxis in the long term. Antibiotics may include penicillin V, erythromycin or benzylpenicillin. Diazepam and haloperidol may be required to control the chorea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 7-year-old boy was brought to the ED in an unconscious and apnoeic...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy was brought to the ED in an unconscious and apnoeic state. What is your immediate management of this case?

      Your Answer: Secure airway

      Explanation:

      ABC : Airway, breathing, circulation is the order of assessment in any patient that is unconscious and apnoeic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 10-year-old boy presents with severe abdominal pain and jaundice. His family is...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy presents with severe abdominal pain and jaundice. His family is originally from Ghana.An ultrasound shows evidence of gallstones. What is the most likely risk factor for the child to develop gallstones?

      Your Answer: Sickle cell disease

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most likely risk factor in this child to develop gallstones is sickle cell disease.Note:Haemolysis is the most frequent cause for gallstones in children and the likeliest cause because of his ethnicity would be sickle cell disease. The gallstones are pigmented which form from bilirubin. 70% of patients with sickle cell disease will develop gallstones| the prevalence of gallstones is related to the rate of haemolysis.Other options:- Gilbert’s syndrome: it is a common condition in which bilirubin glucuronidation (i.e. converting bilirubin into a water-soluble form) is affected. During times of stress (viral illness, fasting, etc.) there is an excess bilirubin production, and jaundice may develop. It is a benign condition but there is some evidence of an increased risk of developing gallstones. However, sickle cell disease is a more likely risk factor in this case.- Hereditary spherocytosis: Hereditary spherocytosis is a disease of the white population and is less likely to be the underlying cause in this case.- Male gender: After puberty, the incidence of gallstones is higher in women. Before puberty, the incidence is equal.- Obesity: Obesity is a risk factor for gallstones and is thought to be behind the rising incidence among young adults. Nevertheless, haemolytic states remain the most common reason for gallstones in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of weight loss, diarrhoea,...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of weight loss, diarrhoea, and abdominal pain. Her food intake has drastically reduced but she is drinking normally. She also complains that she feels tired all the time.On examination, the presence of aphthous ulcers and generalized abdominal tenderness was noted. Considering the clinical presentation, what could be the most probable underlying disorder causing the child's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Crohn’s disease

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Crohn’s disease.Crohn’s disease:An inflammatory bowel disease which can affect any part of the bowel from the mouth to the anus. Symptoms include abdominal pain, diarrhoea, pyrexia and weight loss. Extra-intestinal manifestations include arthritis, uveitis, fatigue, anaemia and rashes including pyoderma gangrenosum and erythema nodosum.Other options:- Anorexia nervosa is an important diagnosis to consider. There are no indicators in the description that she has a fear of gaining weight or a strong desire to be thin.- Diabetic ketoacidosis is incorrect because there is no polydipsia or polyuria. A patient in DKA is more likely to present with vomiting and not diarrhoea.- Recurrent aphthous stomatitis is not a correct answer because it does not explain all of the symptoms described, only the mouth ulcers.- Ulcerative colitis (UC) is also incorrect. UC is a form of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the colon. The main symptom is bloody stools, which is not mentioned as a feature in history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The ophthalmic branch exits the skull from which of the following foramina? ...

    Correct

    • The ophthalmic branch exits the skull from which of the following foramina?

      Your Answer: Superior orbital fissure

      Explanation:

      The trigeminal nerve is responsible for the sensory innervation of the head, and the muscles of mastication. The nerve is divided into three branches, the ophthalmic nerve (V1) the mandibular nerve (V2) and the maxillary nerve (V3) which all exit the skull through their respective foramina. An easy way to remember these foramina is with the following mnemonic:Standing Room Only, for V1-V3 respectivelyV1- Superior orbital FissureV2- foramen RotundumV3 foramen Ovale

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 8 year old male child presents with frequent and recurrent headaches and...

    Correct

    • An 8 year old male child presents with frequent and recurrent headaches and a history of dark-coloured urine. He has a blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg and normal serum urea and creatinine levels. Urine microscopy reveals erythrocytes and erythrocyte casts. His 24-hour urine protein is about 2 g. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute nephritic syndrome

      Explanation:

      The child most likely has nephritic syndrome which is characterised by a reduced renal function, proteinuria of non-nephrotic range, haematuria, erythrocyte casts, and oedema. Polyarteritis nodosa usually occurs in middle-aged men but can also be seen in young children. It is accompanied by severe systemic manifestations such as fever, malaise, weight loss and myalgia.Renal cell carcinoma usually presents around 55 years with the classic triad of haematuria, loin pain and a unilateral mass in the flank.Polycystic kidney disease usually presents in adult life with acute loin pain and palpation of masses in the flanks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following conditions is due to a deletion of chromosome 15q...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is due to a deletion of chromosome 15q inherited from the father?

      Your Answer: Duchenne muscular dystrophy

      Correct Answer: Prader-Willi

      Explanation:

      Most cases of Prader-Willi syndrome are not inherited, particularly those caused by a deletion in the paternal chromosome 15 or by maternal uniparental disomy. These genetic changes occur as random events during the formation of reproductive cells (eggs and sperm) or in early embryonic development. Affected people typically have no history of the disorder in their family.Rarely, a genetic change responsible for Prader-Willi syndrome can be inherited. For example, it is possible for a genetic change that abnormally inactivates genes on the paternal chromosome 15 to be passed from one generation to the next.Prader-Willi syndrome is a complex genetic condition that affects many parts of the body. In infancy, this condition is characterized by weak muscle tone (hypotonia), feeding difficulties, poor growth, and delayed development. Beginning in childhood, affected individuals develop an insatiable appetite, which leads to chronic overeating (hyperphagia) and obesity. Some people with Prader-Willi syndrome, particularly those with obesity, also develop type 2 diabetes (the most common form of diabetes).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most often found in patients suffering...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most often found in patients suffering from Marfan syndrome?

      Your Answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy

      Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Marfan syndrome is a disorder that affects the connective tissue found throughout the body, Marfan syndrome can affect many systems, often causing abnormalities in the heart, blood vessels, eyes, bones, and joints. The two primary features of Marfan syndrome are vision problems caused by a dislocated lens (ectopia lentis) in one or both eyes and aortic root disease, leading to aneurysmal dilatation, aortic regurgitation and dissection is the main cause of morbidity and mortality in Marfan syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 16 year old patient was admitted with walking difficulties and knee pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year old patient was admitted with walking difficulties and knee pain. Upon examination, his leg is externally rotated and is 2cm shorter. His ability to flex, abduct and medially rotate his leg is limited and when he flexes his hip, external rotation is increased. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osgood-Schlatter disease

      Correct Answer: Slipped femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation is typical of a slipped femoral epiphysis, which refers to a fracture through the growth plate (physis), resulting in slippage of the overlying end of the femur. It is the most common hip disorder in adolescence. SCFEs usually cause groin pain on the affected side, but sometimes cause knee or thigh pain. The range of motion in the hip is restricted in internal (medial) rotation, abduction, and flexion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following is true regarding pubic lice? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding pubic lice?

      Your Answer: Pubic lice are larger and more resistant to treatment compared with head lice

      Correct Answer: Tiny dark-brown or black specks of lice excrement can be seen in the underwear

      Explanation:

      Pubic lice are commonly referred to as ‘crabs’ because of their short, broad body (about 1 mm), and large front claws. Pubic lice infestation is diagnosed by finding a “crab” louse or eggs on hair in the pubic region or, less commonly, elsewhere on the body (eyebrows, eyelashes, beard, moustache, armpit, perianal area, groin, trunk, scalp). Although pubic lice and nits can be large enough to be seen with the naked eye, a magnifying lens may be necessary to find lice or eggs.Pubic lice are transmitted from person to person most-commonly via sexual contact, although fomites (bedding, clothing) may play a minor role in their transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      25.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (1/4) 25%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Genitourinary (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (4/4) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (1/2) 50%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Neurology And Neurodisability (1/1) 100%
Nephro-urology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Adolescent Health (0/1) 0%
Passmed