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  • Question 1 - On ambulatory blood pressure monitoring, a 48-year-old Caucasian man has an average BP...

    Incorrect

    • On ambulatory blood pressure monitoring, a 48-year-old Caucasian man has an average BP reading of 152/96 mmHg (ABPM).

      Which of the following would be the patient's first-line drug treatment?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      An ambulatory blood pressure reading of >150/95 is classified as stage 2 hypertension, according to the NICE care pathway for hypertension, and the patient should be treated with an antihypertensive drug.

      A calcium-channel blocker, such as amlodipine, would be the most appropriate medication for a 48-year-old Afro-Caribbean man.

      An ACE inhibitor, such as ramipril, or a low-cost angiotensin-II receptor blocker (ARB), such as losartan, would be the most appropriate medication for a 48-year-old Caucasian man.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      112.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A patient presents to ED complaining of pins and needles over the lateral...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents to ED complaining of pins and needles over the lateral three and a half digits. You suspect carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following clinical features would you most expect to see on examination:

      Your Answer: Atrophy of the adductor pollicis muscle

      Correct Answer: Inability to touch the pad of the little finger with the thumb

      Explanation:

      Compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel will result in weakness and atrophy of the thenar muscles – resulting in weakness of opposition, abduction and flexion of the thumb at the metacarpophalangeal joint and anaesthesia or paraesthesia over the distribution of the palmar digital branch of the median nerve (skin over the palmar surface and fingertips of the lateral three and a half digits). The adductor pollicis muscle is innervated by the ulnar nerve, and abduction of the fingers is produced by the interossei, also innervated by the ulnar nerve. Flexion of the interphalangeal joint of the thumb is produced by the flexor pollicis longus, and flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger is produced by the flexor digitorum profundus. Median nerve injury at the wrist will not affect the long flexors of the forearm as these are innervated by the anterior interosseous nerve which arises in the proximal forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The tetanus vaccination contains inactivated tetanus toxoid, which induces the body to produce...

    Incorrect

    • The tetanus vaccination contains inactivated tetanus toxoid, which induces the body to produce protective antibodies. How do these antibodies protect the body from tetanus?

      Your Answer: Bind C. tetani cells and activate complement

      Correct Answer: Neutralise the protein exotoxin of C. tetani

      Explanation:

      C. Tetanospasmin, an exotoxin produced by tetani, is responsible for the neurotoxic consequences of tetanus.

      The tetanus vaccination contains inactivated tetanus toxoid, which induces the body to produce protective antibodies that neutralize the tetanus toxin.

      It induces active immunization against Clostridium tetani exotoxin via toxoid-induced Ab generation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Fusidic acid is primarily indicated for infections caused by which of the following...

    Correct

    • Fusidic acid is primarily indicated for infections caused by which of the following microorganisms:

      Your Answer: Staphylococcal infections

      Explanation:

      Fusidic acid is a narrow spectrum antibiotic used for staphylococcal infections, primarily topically for minor staphylococcal skin (impetigo) or eye infection. It is sometimes used orally for penicillin-resistant staphylococcal infection, including osteomyelitis or endocarditis, in combination with other antibacterials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      47.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which anatomical structure is divided following an emergency department anterolateral thoracotomy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which anatomical structure is divided following an emergency department anterolateral thoracotomy?

      Your Answer: Subscapularis

      Correct Answer: Latissimus dorsi

      Explanation:

      Thoracotomy describes an incision made in the chest wall to access the contents of the thoracic cavity. Thoracotomies typically can be divided into two categories; anterolateral thoracotomies and posterolateral thoracotomies. These can be further subdivided into supra-mammary and infra-mammary and, of course, further divided into the right or left chest. Each type of incision has its utility given certain circumstances.

      A scalpel is used to sharply divide the skin along the inframammary crease overlying the fifth rib. Electrocautery is then used to divide the pectoralis major muscle and serratus anterior muscle. Visualization of the proper operative field can be achieved with the division and retraction of the latissimus dorsi. Either the fourth or fifth intercostal space is then entered after the division of intercostal muscles above the rib to ensure the preservation of the neurovascular bundle. Once the patient is properly secured to the operating table, the ipsilateral arm is raised and positioned anteriorly and cephalad to rest above the head. The incision is started along the inframammary crease and extended posterolaterally below the tip of the scapula. It is then extended superiorly between the spine and the edge of the scapula, a short distance. The trapezius muscle and the subcutaneous tissues are divided with electrocautery. The serratus anterior and latissimus dorsi muscles are identified and can be retracted. The intercostal muscles are then divided along the superior border of the ribs, and the thoracic cavity is accessed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      45.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 66-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his wife with the...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his wife with the complaint of increasing confusion and disorientation over the past three days, along with decreased urination. She reports that he has been complaining of increasing pain in his back and ribs over the past three months.

      On examination, the patient looks anaemic, is not oriented in time, place and person and has tenderness on palpation of the lumbar spine and the 10th, 11th and 12th ribs.

      Blood tests show anaemia which is normocytic, normochromic, raised urea and creatinine and hypercalcemia.

      Which one of the following diagnoses is most likely in this case?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Multiple myeloma is a clonal abnormality affecting plasma cells in which there is an overproduction of functionless immunoglobulins. The most common patient complaint is bone pain, especially in the back and ribs. Anaemia and renal failure are common, along with hypercalcemia. Hypercalcemia may lead to an altered mental status, as in this case.

      Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia occurs due to the overproduction of lymphocytes, usually B cells. CLL may present with an asymptomatic elevation of B cells. Patients are generally more than 50 years old and present with non-specific fatigue and weight loss symptoms.

      There is no history of alcohol abuse in this case. Furthermore, patients with a history of alcohol abuse may have signs of liver failure, which are not present here.

      Metastatic prostate cancer would most often cause lower backache as it metastasises first to the lumbar spine via the vertebral venous plexus.

      A patient with Vitamin B12 deficiency would have anaemia, megaloblastic, hypersegmented neutrophils, and signs of peripheral neuropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      74
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old athlete suffers an injury to the nerve that innervates the gluteus...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old athlete suffers an injury to the nerve that innervates the gluteus minimus muscle.

      Which of the following nerves innervates the gluteus minimus muscle?

      Your Answer: Inferior gluteal nerve

      Correct Answer: Superior gluteal nerve

      Explanation:

      Gluteus minimus is the smallest muscle of the glutei. It is located just beneath the gluteus medius muscle. Gluteus minimus predominantly acts as a hip stabilizer and abductor of the hip.
      The superior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus minimus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Glucagon is contraindicated in which of the following: ...

    Correct

    • Glucagon is contraindicated in which of the following:

      Your Answer: Pheochromocytoma

      Explanation:

      Glucagon is contraindicated in pheochromocytoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pharmacology
      53.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Where does carbohydrate digestion begin: ...

    Incorrect

    • Where does carbohydrate digestion begin:

      Your Answer: Duodenum

      Correct Answer: Mouth

      Explanation:

      Carbohydrate digestion begins in the mouth, by alpha-amylase produced in saliva.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Bordetella pertussis is spread via which of the following routes: ...

    Correct

    • Bordetella pertussis is spread via which of the following routes:

      Your Answer: Respiratory droplet route

      Explanation:

      Bordetella pertussis is a Gram negative coccobacillus that causes whooping cough. B. pertussis is spread via the respiratory droplet route and expresses fimbriae that aid their adhesion to the ciliated epithelium of the upper respiratory tract, and produce a number of exotoxins, causing the characteristic thickened bronchial secretions, paralysis of cilia and lymphocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 23-year-old man is discovered to have an infection from Helicobacter pylori.

    Which...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old man is discovered to have an infection from Helicobacter pylori.

      Which of the following types of cancer is mostly associated with Helicobacter pylori infection?

      Your Answer: Gastric cancer

      Explanation:

      H. pylori is recognized as a major cause of type B gastritis, a chronic condition formerly associated primarily with stress and chemical irritants. In addition, the strong association between long-term H. pylori infection and gastric cancer has raised more questions regarding the clinical significance of this organism. There is speculation that long-term H. pylori infection resulting in chronic gastritis is an important risk factor for gastric carcinoma resulting in H. pylori being classified as a carcinogen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A patient presents with nausea, anorexia, jaundice and right upper quadrant pain. A...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with nausea, anorexia, jaundice and right upper quadrant pain. A diagnosis of acute hepatitis B is suspected.
      Which of the following blood results is most suggestive of an acute hepatitis B infection? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: HBsAg positive, Anti-HBc negative

      Correct Answer: HBsAg positive, IgM anti-HBc positive

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is a protein on the surface of the hepatitis B virus, that is the first serologic marker to appear in a new acute infection.It can be detected as early as 1 week and as late as 9 weeks. It can be detected in high levels in serum during acute or chronic hepatitis B virus infection. The presence of HBsAg indicates that the person is infectious. The body normally produces antibodies to HBsAg as part of the normal immune response to infection. HBsAg is the antigen used to make hepatitis B vaccine.
      Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs) indicates recovery and immunity from the hepatitis B virus infection. Anti-HBs also develops in a person who has been successfully vaccinated against hepatitis B.
      Total hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBc): Appears at the onset of symptoms in acute hepatitis B and persists for life. The presence of anti-HBc indicates previous or ongoing infection with hepatitis B virus in an undefined time frame. It is not present following hepatitis B vaccination.
      IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen (IgM anti-HBc) indicates recent infection with hepatitis B virus (<6 months). Its presence indicates acute infection.
      The following table summarises the presence of hepatitis B markers according to each situation:
      Susceptible to infection:
      HBsAg = Negative
      Anti-HBc = Negative
      Anti-HBs = Negative

      Immune due to natural infection:
      HBsAg = Negative
      Anti-HBc = Positive
      Anti-HBs = Positive

      Immune due to vaccination:
      HBsAg = Negative
      Anti-HBc = Negative
      Anti-HBs = Positive

      Acute infection:
      HBsAg = Positive
      Anti-HBc = Positive
      Anti-HBs = Negative
      IgM anti-HBc = Positive

      Chronic infection:
      HBsAg = Positive
      Anti-HBc = Positive
      Anti-HBs = Negative
      IgM anti-HBc = Negative

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      178.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You received a patient with a 2-day history of diarrhoea and vomiting. Later,...

    Incorrect

    • You received a patient with a 2-day history of diarrhoea and vomiting. Later, after examination, the patient was found to have progressive symmetric descending flaccid paralysis, initial development of blurred vision, dysphagia, and weakness of the upper limbs. The patient is apyrexial and his observations are all normal. Which of the following pathogens is responsible for the said symptoms?

      Your Answer: Clostridium difficile

      Correct Answer: Clostridium botulinum

      Explanation:

      A botulism infection results in neuroparalysis caused by the neurotoxin generated by Clostridium botulinum.

      Food-borne botulism symptoms often appear 12-36 hours after ingestion of the toxin-containing food and may include nausea, vomiting, stomach discomfort, and diarrhoea at first. The most common neurological pattern is an acute onset of bilateral cranial neuropathies with symmetric declining weakening.

      Other distinguishing characteristics include the absence of fever, the absence of cognitive abnormalities, the presence of a normal heart rate and blood pressure, and the absence of sensory defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      41.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 24-year-old female visits her family physician to complain of painless lumps in...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old female visits her family physician to complain of painless lumps in her neck. Her physician notes several enlarged, rubbery, non-tender cervical lymph nodes on examination. He immediately refers the patient for a lymph node biopsy, the results of which show the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells.

      What is the diagnosis in this case based on the above scenario?

      Your Answer: Hodgkin’s lymphoma

      Explanation:

      The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells is pathognomonic for Hodgkin’s Lymphoma, which is a disease-causing neoplastic transformation of lymphocytes. There is a bimodal age distribution with peaks in the 20s and 60s. Patients typically present with enlarged, rubbery, non-tender lymph nodes. Symptoms such as fever, night sweats and weight loss may be present.

      Pain after alcohol consumption is a pathognomonic sign of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, it is, however, not a ‘B’ symptom. It is rare though, only occurring in 2-3% of patients with Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
      The Ann Arbour clinical staging is as follows:
      Stage I: one involved lymph node group
      Stage II two involved lymph node groups on one side of the diaphragm
      Stage III: lymph node groups involved on both sides of the diaphragm
      Stage IV: Involvement of extra-nodal tissues, such as the liver or bone marrow
      Diagnosis is made by lymph node biopsy, which should be taken from a sufficiently large specimen or excisional biopsy, as opposed to a fine needle biopsy.

      Multiple myeloma most commonly presents with bone pain, especially in the back and ribs.

      In non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Reed-Sternberg cells are not present.

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia will present with features of anaemia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia.

      The most common symptoms of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia are fatigue, night sweats and low-grade fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - All of the following statements is considered true regarding Streptococcus pneumoniae, except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements is considered true regarding Streptococcus pneumoniae, except:

      Your Answer: It is the commonest cause of erysipelas

      Explanation:

      Erysipelas is a rare infection of the skin and subcutaneous tissues observed frequently in elderly patients. It is characterized by an acute spreading skin lesion that is intensely erythematous with a plainly demarcated but irregular edge. It is most commonly caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Group A Streptococcus (GAS).

      GAS are susceptible to penicillin, which remains the drug of choice for treatment. For patients allergic to penicillin, erythromycin can be used.

      S. pyogenes colonizes the throat and skin on humans, making these sites the primary sources of transmission. Infections resulting from S. pyogenes include pharyngitis, scarlet fever, skin or pyodermal infections, and other septic infections. In addition, the sequelae rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis can occur as a result of infection with S. pyogenes.

      Agammaglobulinemia is mostly associated with S. pneumoniae.

      The M protein is attached to the peptidoglycan of the cell wall and extends to
      the cell surface. The M protein is essential for virulence. The polysaccharide capsule is characteristic of S. pneumoniae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which statement regarding skeletal muscle is true?
    ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement regarding skeletal muscle is true?

      Your Answer: Thin filaments contain more troponin than actin

      Correct Answer: Myosin is the major constituent of the thick filament

      Explanation:

      Myosin is the major constituent of the thick filament.

      Actin is the major constituent of the THIN filament.

      Thin filaments consist of actin, tropomyosin and troponin in the ratio 7:1:1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 49-year-old man known sickle cell disease patient received a blood transfusion and...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man known sickle cell disease patient received a blood transfusion and developed a mild fever and dark urine 6 days after transfusion. His investigations show raised bilirubin, raised LDH, and a positive Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT).

      Which transfusion reaction is most likely occurred?

      Your Answer: Acute haemolytic reaction

      Correct Answer: Delayed haemolytic reaction

      Explanation:

      Delayed haemolytic transfusion reactions (DHTRs) commonly occurs 4-8 days after blood transfusion, but can occur up to a month after. Signs and symptoms include jaundice, fever, an inadequate rise in PCV, reticulocytosis, a positive antibody screen and a positive Direct Antiglobulin Test (Coombs test). DHTRs usually have a benign course and require no treatment but sometimes, life-threatening haemolysis with severe anaemia and renal failure can occur so haemoglobin levels and renal function should be monitored.

      Acute haemolytic reaction aka immediate haemolytic transfusion reaction presents with fever, chills, pain at transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, dark urine and feeling of ‘impending doom’. Often, it occurs due to ABO incompatibility.

      Febrile transfusion reaction presents with a 1 degree rise in temperature from baseline during transfusion. Patient may have chills and malaise. It is the most common transfusion reaction (1 in 8 transfusions) and is usually caused by cytokines released from leukocytes in transfused red cell or platelet components.

      Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) presents as acute or worsening respiratory distress within 6 hours of transfusion of a large volume of blood. It is common in patients with diminished cardiac reserve or chronic anaemia. Elderly patients, infants and severely anaemic patients are particularly susceptible. Clinical features of TACO include: Acute respiratory distress, Tachycardia, Hypertension, Acute/worsening pulmonary oedema on chest X-ray. The BNP is usually raised to at least 1.5 times the pre-transfusion baseline.

      Graft versus host disease(GVHD) is an immune mediated condition that arises from a complex interaction between donor and recipients adaptive immunity. It presents as dermatitis, hepatitis and enteritis developing within 100 days after stem cell or bone marrow transplant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 58-year-old man with a traumatic brain injury is brought into the...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man with a traumatic brain injury is brought into the ER. A medical student asks you about the processes that occur in the brain following a traumatic injury.

      One of these best describes the central nervous systems response to injury.

      Your Answer: Axonal regeneration is carried out by Schwann cells in the brain

      Correct Answer: Degeneration of the axon occurs proximally before it occurs distally

      Explanation:

      Following neuronal injury, as seen in traumatic brain injury, the axon undergoes anterograde degeneration. Degradation starts from the cell body (proximally) and progresses distally. The axon becomes fragmented and degenerates.

      The brain shows no reactive changes to injury is incorrect. Following major injury such as stroke, the brain undergoes a process of liquefactive degeneration, which leaves cystic spaces within the brain.

      Axonal regeneration does not occur to any significant extent within the central nervous system unlike what is seen in the peripheral nervous system.

      Astrocytes undergo reactive gliosis, leaving behind a firm translucent tissue around sites of damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      140.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which ONE statement about homeostasis is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which ONE statement about homeostasis is true?

      Your Answer: The principle mechanism by which homeostasis occurs is via positive feedback

      Correct Answer: Negative feedback occurs via receptors, comparators and effectors

      Explanation:

      Homeostasis is the property of a system in which variables are regulated so that internal conditions remain relatively constant and stable. Homeostasis is achieved by a negative feedback mechanism.

      Negative feedback occurs based upon a set point through receptors, comparators and effectors.

      The ‘set point’ is a NARROW range of values within which normal function occurs.

      The two body systems that regulate homeostasis are the Nervous system and the Endocrine system.

      The smooth muscle of the uterus becomes more active towards the end of pregnancy. This is a POSITIVE feedback.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following muscles acts as an extensor of the shoulder joint?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles acts as an extensor of the shoulder joint?

      Your Answer: Coracobrachialis

      Correct Answer: Teres major

      Explanation:

      The glenohumeral joint possesses the capability of allowing an extreme range of motion in multiple planes.

      Flexion – Defined as bringing the upper limb anterior in the sagittal plane. The usual range of motion is 180 degrees. The main flexors of the shoulder are the anterior deltoid, coracobrachialis, and pectoralis major. Biceps brachii also weakly assists in this action.

      Extension—Defined as bringing the upper limb posterior in a sagittal plane. The normal range of motion is 45 to 60 degrees. The main extensors of the shoulder are the posterior deltoid, latissimus dorsi, and teres major.

      Internal rotation—Defined as rotation toward the midline along a vertical axis. The normal range of motion is 70 to 90 degrees. The internal rotation muscles are the subscapularis, pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, teres major, and the anterior aspect of the deltoid.

      External rotation – Defined as rotation away from the midline along a vertical axis. The normal range of motion is 90 degrees. Primarily infraspinatus and teres minor are responsible for the motion.

      Adduction – Defined as bringing the upper limb towards the midline in the coronal plane. Pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and teres major are the muscles primarily responsible for shoulder adduction.

      Abduction – Defined as bringing the upper limb away from the midline in the coronal plane. The normal range of motion is 150 degrees. Due to the ability to differentiate several pathologies by the range of motion of the glenohumeral joint in this plane of motion, it is essential to understand how different muscles contribute to this action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Regarding NSAIDs, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding NSAIDs, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Selective inhibition of COX-1 is associated with less gastrointestinal intolerance.

      Correct Answer: Diclofenac is contraindicated in people with ischaemic heart disease.

      Explanation:

      Due to their increased risk of cardiovascular adverse events, coxibs and diclofenac are contraindicated in people with ischaemic heart disease, cerebrovascular disease, peripheral arterial disease and mild, moderate, or severe heart failure. Other NSAIDs are only contraindicated in people with severe heart failure. Selective inhibition of COX-2 is associated with less gastrointestinal intolerance. In single doses NSAIDs have analgesic activity comparable to that of paracetamol, therefore given their side effect profile, paracetamol is preferred, particularly in the elderly. Pain relief starts soon after taking the first dose and a full analgesic effect should normally be obtained within a week, whereas an anti-inflammatory effect may not be achieved (or may not be clinically assessable) for up to 3 weeks. Mefenamic acid has only very mild anti-inflammatory properties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      • Pharmacology
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - You've been summoned to a young man in the resus area who is...

    Correct

    • You've been summoned to a young man in the resus area who is experiencing an SVT. You decide to use adenosine after trying several vagal manoeuvres without success.

      Which of the following is the correct adenosine mechanism of action?

      Your Answer: Opens K + channels in the heart

      Explanation:

      The purine nucleoside adenosine is used to diagnose and treat paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. Adenosine works by stimulating A1-adenosine receptors and opening potassium channels that are sensitive to acetylcholine. This causes the atrioventricular (AV) node’s cell membrane to become hyperpolarized, slowing conduction by inhibiting calcium channels.
      Patients who have had a heart transplant are extremely sensitive to the effects of adenosine and should start with a lower dose of 3 mg, then 6 mg, and finally 12 mg.

      Dipyridamole potentiates the effects of adenosine, so it should be used with caution in patients who are taking it.

      The use of adenosine is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Asthma
      COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)
      Decompensated heart failure 
      Long QT syndrome
      AV block in the second or third degree
      Sinusitis is a condition in which the sinuses become (unless pacemaker fitted)
      Hypotension that is severe

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - An increased anion gap metabolic acidosis is typically caused by which of the...

    Incorrect

    • An increased anion gap metabolic acidosis is typically caused by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Renal tubular acidosis

      Correct Answer: Propylene glycol overdose

      Explanation:

      Causes of a raised anion gap acidosis can be remember using the mnemonic MUDPILES:
      -Methanol
      -Uraemia (in renal failure)
      -Diabetic ketoacidosis
      -Propylene glycol overdose
      -Infection/Iron overdose/Isoniazid/Inborn errors of metabolism
      -Lactic acidosis
      -Ethylene glycol overdose
      -Salicylate overdose

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      49.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You're currently treating an infection in a patient and trying to figure out...

    Incorrect

    • You're currently treating an infection in a patient and trying to figure out which antibiotic would be best.

      Which of the following antimicrobial drugs inhibits the formation of cell walls?

      Your Answer: Gentamicin

      Correct Answer: Cefuroxime

      Explanation:

      Cefuroxime and other cephalosporin antibiotics are bactericidal ß-lactam antibiotics. They work similarly to penicillins in that they prevent cross-linking between the linear peptidoglycan polymer chains that make up the bacterial cell wall. As a result, they prevent the formation of cell walls.
      The following is a summary of the various mechanisms of action of various types of antimicrobial agents:

      1) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
      Penicillins
      Cephalosporins
      Vancomycin

      2) Disruption of cell membrane function
      Polymyxins
      Nystatin
      Amphotericin B

      3) Inhibition of protein synthesis
      Macrolides
      Aminoglycosides
      Tetracyclines
      Chloramphenicol

      4) Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
      Quinolones
      Trimethoprim
      5-nitroimidazoles
      Rifampicin

      5) Anti-metabolic activity
      Sulphonamides
      Isoniazid

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      45.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following factors does NOT decrease glucagon secretion: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors does NOT decrease glucagon secretion:

      Your Answer: Somatostatin

      Correct Answer: Catecholamines

      Explanation:

      Factors that increase glucagon secretion:
      ↓ Blood glucose
      ↑ Amino acids
      Cholecystokinin
      Catecholamines
      Acetylcholine

      Factors that decrease glucagon secretion:
      ↑ Blood glucose
      Insulin
      Somatostatin
      Fatty acids, ketoacids

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Regarding the abductor digiti minimi, which of the following statements is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the abductor digiti minimi, which of the following statements is false?

      Your Answer: It is an abductor of the fifth finger at the metacarpophalangeal joint

      Correct Answer: It assists with flexion of the fifth finger at the middle phalanx

      Explanation:

      Abductor digiti minimi is a short intrinsic muscle of the hand. It belongs to the group of muscles collectively called hypothenar muscles due to their acting on the 5th finger. Besides abductor digiti minimi, other hypothenar muscles include flexor digiti minimi brevis and opponens digiti minimi.

      The main function of abductor digiti minimi involves abduction of the 5th finger, as well as flexion of its proximal phalanx. Along with other hypothenar muscles, this muscle forms the hypothenar eminence on the medial side of the palm.

      Like other hypothenar muscles, abductor digiti minimi receives nervous supply from the deep branch of the ulnar nerve, derived from root values C8 and T1.

      Abductor digiti minimi receives arterial blood supply from the palmar branch of ulnar artery, palmar digital artery, as well as branches of the ulnar side of the superficial palmar arch. The venous blood from the muscle is drained via the venous networks of the palm into the deep veins of the arm (vv. ulnares).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old woman with history of blunt thoracic trauma develops hypotension chest pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with history of blunt thoracic trauma develops hypotension chest pain, and breathlessness. A bedside echocardiogram was performed and revealed a large pericardial effusion. Due to this finding, a pericardiocentesis was to be performed.

      Which of the following statements is considered true regarding pericardiocentesis?

      Your Answer: The standard approach is the parasternal approach

      Correct Answer: The needle should be aimed at the midpoint of the left clavicle

      Explanation:

      Pericardiocentesis is a procedure done to remove fluid build-up in the sac around the heart known as the pericardium. The pericardium can be tapped from almost any reasonable location on the chest wall. However, for the usual blind pericardiocentesis, the subxiphoid approach is preferred. Ideally, 2-D echocardiography is used to guide needle insertion and the subsequent path of the needle/catheter.

      In the subxiphoid approach, the needle is inserted 1 cm inferior to the left xiphocostal angle with an angle of 30 degrees from the patient’s chest with a direction towards the left mid-clavicle.

      The fingers may sense a distinct give when the needle penetrates the parietal pericardium. Successful removal of fluid confirms the needle’s position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      67.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following cytokines is important for the maintenance of granulomatous inflammation:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following cytokines is important for the maintenance of granulomatous inflammation:

      Your Answer: IL-5

      Correct Answer: TNF-alpha

      Explanation:

      Granulomatous inflammation is a distinctive pattern of chronic inflammation that is encountered in a limited number of infectious and some non-infectious conditions. Briefly, a granuloma is a cellular attempt to contain an offending agent that is difficult to eradicate. In this attempt, there is often strong activation of T lymphocytes leading to macrophage activation, which can cause injury to normal tissues. IL-1 is important in initiating granuloma formation, IL-2 can cause them to enlarge and TNF-α maintains them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Regarding saliva, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding saliva, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: At rest, saliva is predominantly produced by the parotid gland.

      Correct Answer: Saliva production is decreased by inhibition of the parasympathetic nervous system.

      Explanation:

      At rest, saliva is predominantly produced by the submandibular gland (65%) but when stimulated, the parotid glands produce a higher proportion of the total saliva production (50%) than at rest. Saliva is alkaline and hypotonic to plasma. The predominant digestive enzymes in saliva are alpha-amylase and lingual lipase; lingual lipase is not functionally very important, but alpha-amylase is important for the initiation of starch digestion. Saliva production is decreased by inhibition of the parasympathetic nervous system e.g. by sleep, dehydration, anticholinergic drugs and fear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      51.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Regarding the flexor digitorum profundus muscle, which of the following is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the flexor digitorum profundus muscle, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: The lateral aspect of the muscle is innervated by the radial nerve

      Correct Answer: The medial aspect of the muscle is innervated by the ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      Flexor digitorum profundus is a fusiform muscle located deep within the anterior (flexor) compartment of the forearm. Along with the flexor pollicis longus and pronator quadratus muscles, it comprises the deep flexor compartment of the forearm.

      Flexor digitorum profundus has a dual innervation:

      (1) The medial part of the muscle, that inserts to the fourth and fifth digits, is innervated by the ulnar nerve (C8-T1);

      (2) The lateral part, that inserts to the second and third digits, is innervated by the median nerve, via anterior interosseous branch (C8-T1).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      62
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (3/6) 50%
Anatomy (0/7) 0%
Upper Limb (0/4) 0%
Microbiology (3/6) 50%
Pathogens (1/3) 33%
Infections (1/2) 50%
Thorax (0/2) 0%
Haematology (1/3) 33%
Pathology (1/5) 20%
Lower Limb (0/1) 0%
Endocrine (1/2) 50%
Gastrointestinal (0/2) 0%
Physiology (0/6) 0%
Specific Pathogen Groups (2/3) 67%
Basic Cellular Physiology (0/2) 0%
General Pathology (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Inflammatory Responses (0/1) 0%
Passmed