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Question 1
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about the Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale?
Your Answer: It is a self rated scale used to assess major mental illness
Correct Answer: It consists of between 18 and 24 symptom constructs
Explanation:The BPRS is a tool used by clinicians to evaluate the level of psychopathology in patients with major psychiatric disorders, with a focus on psychosis. It involves rating between 18 and 24 symptom constructs on a scale of 1 to 7 based on their severity, with a minimum score of 18. Additionally, the patient’s behavior over the past 2-3 days can be reported by their family and taken into consideration.
In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 2
Correct
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What is the accurate formula for determining the likelihood ratio of a negative test result?
Your Answer: (1 - sensitivity) / specificity
Explanation:Clinical tests are used to determine the presence of absence of a disease of condition. To interpret test results, it is important to have a working knowledge of statistics used to describe them. Two by two tables are commonly used to calculate test statistics such as sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of people with a condition that the test correctly identifies, while specificity refers to the proportion of people without a condition that the test correctly identifies. Accuracy tells us how closely a test measures to its true value, while predictive values help us understand the likelihood of having a disease based on a positive of negative test result. Likelihood ratios combine sensitivity and specificity into a single figure that can refine our estimation of the probability of a disease being present. Pre and post-test odds and probabilities can also be calculated to better understand the likelihood of having a disease before and after a test is carried out. Fagan’s nomogram is a useful tool for calculating post-test probabilities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What is the most frequent adverse effect of atomoxetine?
Your Answer: Hypoaesthesia
Correct Answer: Headache
Explanation:ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is the cell type that offers structural support in the central nervous system?
Your Answer: Ependymal cell
Correct Answer: Astrocyte
Explanation:Glial Cells: The Support System of the Central Nervous System
The central nervous system is composed of two basic cell types: neurons and glial cells. Glial cells, also known as support cells, play a crucial role in maintaining the health and function of neurons. There are several types of glial cells, including macroglia (astrocytes and oligodendrocytes), ependymal cells, and microglia.
Astrocytes are the most abundant type of glial cell and have numerous functions, such as providing structural support, repairing nervous tissue, nourishing neurons, contributing to the blood-brain barrier, and regulating neurotransmission and blood flow. There are two main types of astrocytes: protoplasmic and fibrous.
Oligodendrocytes are responsible for the formation of myelin sheaths, which insulate and protect axons, allowing for faster and more efficient transmission of nerve impulses.
Ependymal cells line the ventricular system and are involved in the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and fluid homeostasis in the brain. Specialized ependymal cells called choroid plexus cells produce CSF.
Microglia are the immune cells of the CNS and play a crucial role in protecting the brain from infection and injury. They also contribute to the maintenance of neuronal health and function.
In summary, glial cells are essential for the proper functioning of the central nervous system. They provide structural support, nourishment, insulation, and immune defense to neurons, ensuring the health and well-being of the brain and spinal cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 5
Incorrect
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With what condition of disease are Hirano bodies commonly linked?
Your Answer: Retts disease
Correct Answer: Alzheimer's
Explanation:Hirano bodies are considered to be a general indication of neuronal degeneration and are primarily observed in cases of Alzheimer’s disease.
Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by both macroscopic and microscopic changes in the brain. Macroscopic changes include cortical atrophy, ventricular dilation, and depigmentation of the locus coeruleus. Microscopic changes include the presence of senile plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, gliosis, degeneration of the nucleus of Meynert, and Hirano bodies. Senile plaques are extracellular deposits of beta amyloid in the gray matter of the brain, while neurofibrillary tangles are intracellular inclusion bodies that consist primarily of hyperphosphorylated tau. Gliosis is marked by increases in activated microglia and reactive astrocytes near the sites of amyloid plaques. The nucleus of Meynert degenerates in Alzheimer’s, resulting in a decrease in acetylcholine in the brain. Hirano bodies are actin-rich, eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions which have a highly characteristic crystalloid fine structure and are regarded as a nonspecific manifestation of neuronal degeneration. These changes in the brain contribute to the cognitive decline and memory loss seen in Alzheimer’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following does not describe a typical trait of narcolepsy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anosognosia
Explanation:Narcolepsy is identified by a set of four symptoms, including excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, sleep paralysis, and hallucinations during sleep onset of awakening. While hypnagogic hallucinations have been traditionally linked to narcolepsy, both hypnagogic and hypnopompic hallucinations can occur.
Sleep Disorders
The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.
Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe an intense and brief emotional reaction to a minor trigger?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Emotional lability
Explanation:Understanding Emotional Lability
Emotional lability is a condition characterized by an excessive and brief emotional response to a minor stimulus. It is a common symptom of various neurological and psychiatric disorders, including traumatic brain injury, multiple sclerosis, Parkinson’s disease, bipolar disorder, and borderline personality disorder. People with emotional lability may experience sudden and intense mood swings, such as crying, laughing, anger, of irritability, that are out of proportion to the situation.
One of the most challenging aspects of emotional lability is the lack of control over one’s emotions. Pathological crying of laughing is a common manifestation of emotional lability, where a person may burst into tears of laughter without any apparent reason of context. This can be embarrassing, distressing, and socially isolating, as it may be perceived as a sign of weakness, instability, of immaturity.
Treatment for emotional lability depends on the underlying cause and severity of the symptoms. In some cases, medication, such as antidepressants, antipsychotics, of mood stabilizers, may be prescribed to regulate the mood and reduce the frequency and intensity of emotional outbursts. Psychotherapy, such as cognitive-behavioral therapy of dialectical behavior therapy, can also help individuals with emotional lability to develop coping skills, emotional regulation strategies, and interpersonal communication skills.
It is important to note that emotional lability is not a character flaw of a personal weakness, but a medical condition that requires proper diagnosis and treatment. Seeking professional help from a qualified healthcare provider can help individuals with emotional lability to improve their quality of life, enhance their relationships, and regain their emotional stability and resilience.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old male reports feeling distressed after hearing his deceased wife's voice in his head, asking him to come join her. He clarifies that he heard it internally and not as an external sound. What type of perceptual abnormality is reflected in his experience?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudohallucinations
Explanation:– Pseudohallucinations are figurative and not real
– They are located in the inner subjective space
– Auditory hallucinations are concrete, tangible, and real
– They are located in the outside objective space
– Autoscopy is the experience of seeing oneself
– Reflex hallucination is where a stimulus in one modality produces hallucination in another modality
– Hypnopompic hallucinations occur when waking up from sleep. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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The psychiatrist is using the technique of direct questioning to gather information about the patient's alcohol consumption.
Example of a similar question with different wording and age:
After a teenager mentions that they smoke cigarettes, the counselor asks, How many packs of cigarettes do you smoke in a week? One? Two?
The counselor is using the technique of direct questioning to gather information about the teenager's smoking habits.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Symptom exaggeration
Explanation:Symptom exaggeration is a method of suggesting a behavior that is more problematic than expected to help the patient feel less guilty and provide a more truthful response. Confrontation involves the doctor pointing out something that the patient may be denying of missing. Clarification is used to clarify something the patient has said. Open-ended questions encourage the patient to respond in their own words and cannot be answered with a simple yes of no. Validation is used to make the patient’s thoughts, feelings, of behaviors seem more acceptable by normalizing them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History And Mental State
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What percentage of individuals with Autism exhibit the following condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Macrocephaly
Explanation:Autism and Macrocephaly: A Common Neurobiological Finding
Macrocephaly, of an abnormally large head circumference, is a common occurrence in individuals with idiopathic autism, with approximately 20% of individuals with autism exhibiting this trait (Fombonne, 1999). This finding has been replicated in numerous studies and is considered one of the most consistent neurobiological findings in autism. However, it is important to note that macrocephaly is typically not present at birth but rather develops during childhood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What element was included in the original concept of the alcohol dependence syndrome by Edwards and Gross but is not present in the ICD-11 concept of the dependence syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rapid reinstatement of symptoms after a period of abstinence
Explanation:It is important to pay close attention to the question being asked. The question inquires about an item that was present in the original classification but not included in ICD-11. While salience is present in both classifications, the Edwards and Gross feature of ‘salience of drink seeking behaviour’ is equivalent to the ICD-11 feature of ‘Increasing precedence of alcohol use over other aspects of life’. The original classification included ‘rapid reinstatement of symptoms after a period of abstinence’, which is not present in ICD-11.
Alcohol Dependence Syndrome: ICD-11 and DSM 5 Criteria
The criteria for diagnosing alcohol dependence syndrome in the ICD-11 and DSM 5 are quite similar, as both are based on the original concept developed by Edwards and Gross in 1976. The original concept had seven elements, including narrowing of the drinking repertoire, salience of drink seeking behavior, tolerance, withdrawal symptoms, relief of withdrawal by further drinking, compulsion to drink, and rapid reinstatement of symptoms after a period of abstinence.
The DSM-5 Alcohol Use Disorder criteria include a problematic pattern of alcohol use leading to clinically significant impairment of distress, as manifested by at least two of the following occurring within a 12-month period. These include taking alcohol in larger amounts of over a longer period than intended, persistent desire of unsuccessful efforts to cut down of control alcohol use, spending a great deal of time in activities necessary to obtain alcohol, craving of a strong desire of urge to use alcohol, recurrent alcohol use resulting in a failure to fulfill major role obligations, continued alcohol use despite having persistent or recurrent social of interpersonal problems, giving up of reducing important social, occupational, of recreational activities due to alcohol use, recurrent alcohol use in physically hazardous situations, and continued alcohol use despite knowledge of having a persistent or recurrent physical or psychological problem caused or exacerbated by alcohol. Tolerance and withdrawal symptoms are also included in the criteria.
The ICD-11 Alcohol Dependence criteria include a pattern of recurrent episodic of continuous use of alcohol with evidence of impaired regulation of alcohol use, manifested by impaired control over alcohol use, increasing precedence of alcohol use over other aspects of life, and physiological features indicative of neuroadaptation to the substance, including tolerance to the effects of alcohol of a need to use increasing amounts of alcohol to achieve the same effect, withdrawal symptoms following cessation of reduction in use of alcohol, of repeated use of alcohol of pharmacologically similar substances to prevent of alleviate withdrawal symptoms. The features of dependence are usually evident over a period of at least 12 months, but the diagnosis may be made if use is continuous for at least 3 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What is the most effective way to distinguish between dementia and delirium?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluctuating consciousness
Explanation:The primary distinction between delirium and dementia is the variability of consciousness levels.
Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which part of the cerebellum is primarily responsible for equilibrium and eye movements?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vestibulocerebellum
Explanation:The vestibulocerebellum develops at the same time as the vestibular apparatus in the inner ear. Its regulates balance between agonist and antagonist muscle contractions of the spine, hips, and shoulders during rapid movements.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What drug acts as an alpha 2 antagonist?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:The pharmacodynamics of Mirtazapine are complex and have received conflicting feedback. However, according to the manufacturer’s leaflet and preclinical studies, Mirtazapine is a potent antagonist of 5-HT2 and 5-HT3 receptors, with no significant affinity for the 5-HT1A and 5-HT1B receptors. It is also a potent antagonist of histamine (H1) receptors, which may explain its sedative effects, and a moderate peripheral a1 adrenergic antagonist, which may cause occasional orthostatic hypotension. Additionally, it is a moderate antagonist at muscarinic receptors, which may explain the low incidence of anticholinergic side effects. Although not stated by the manufacturer, there is considerable evidence that Mirtazapine is also an alpha 2 antagonist, which was likely discovered after the preclinical studies.
Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which option is not advised by NICE for the treatment of delirium?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avoid regular visits from family
Explanation:Delirium Management
Pharmacological management of delirium includes the use of haloperidol as a prophylactic measure. NICE guidelines recommend short-term use of haloperidol in cases where delirium is associated with distress of risk to self/others. Quetiapine is also considered a first-choice option in many units. Lorazepam can be used as an alternative if haloperidol is contraindicated, but it is more likely to cause respiratory depression, over-sedation, and paradoxical excitement.
Non-pharmacological management of delirium includes appropriate lighting and clear signage, talking to the person to reorient them, cognitively stimulating activities, regular visits from family and friends, and promoting good sleep patterns. Additional options such as donepezil, rivastigmine, melatonin, trazodone, and sodium valproate are not recommended. It is important to carefully consider the individual’s needs and medical history when choosing a management plan for delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 16
Incorrect
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What factor is most likely to worsen a patient's psoriasis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which condition is linked to a lack of hypocretin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Narcolepsy
Explanation:Hypocretin deficiency has been linked to narcolepsy, as it is a neuropeptide hormone produced in the hypothalamus that plays a crucial role in regulating sleep, arousal, appetite, and energy expenditure (also known as orexin) (Mignot, 2000).
Sleep Disorders
The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.
Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man with a history of partial seizures is prescribed a second anticonvulsant due to inadequate control with his current medication. However, he experiences concentric visual field loss as a side effect. Which anticonvulsant is most likely responsible for this adverse reaction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vigabatrin
Explanation:Vigabatrin is known to cause visual field constriction in approximately 30% of its users. Although the majority of cases are asymptomatic, as the drug primarily affects peripheral fields and not central visual acuity, the effects are typically irreversible of only partially reversible after discontinuation of the medication. Patients who are over the age of 10 and are prescribed vigabatrin should undergo baseline threshold visual field testing and follow-up every six months. It is important for patients to report any new vision problems, such as blurring, double vision, of signs of peripheral vision impairment. Vigabatrin is only recommended for specialist use and is indicated for epilepsy that is not adequately controlled by other medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which syndrome is also referred to as Trisomy 18?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Edward's syndrome
Explanation:Aneuploidy: Abnormal Chromosome Numbers
Aneuploidy refers to the presence of an abnormal number of chromosomes, which can result from errors during meiosis. Typically, human cells have 23 pairs of chromosomes, but aneuploidy can lead to extra of missing chromosomes. Trisomies, which involve the presence of an additional chromosome, are the most common aneuploidies in humans. However, most trisomies are not compatible with life, and only trisomy 21 (Down’s syndrome), trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome), and trisomy 13 (Patau syndrome) survive to birth. Aneuploidy can result in imbalances in gene expression, which can lead to a range of symptoms and developmental issues.
Compared to autosomal trisomies, humans are more able to tolerate extra sex chromosomes. Klinefelter’s syndrome, which involves the presence of an extra X chromosome, is the most common sex chromosome aneuploidy. Individuals with Klinefelter’s and XYY often remain undiagnosed, but they may experience reduced sexual development and fertility. Monosomies, which involve the loss of a chromosome, are rare in humans. The only viable human monosomy involves the X chromosome and results in Turner’s syndrome. Turner’s females display a wide range of symptoms, including infertility and impaired sexual development.
The frequency and severity of aneuploidies vary widely. Down’s syndrome is the most common viable autosomal trisomy, affecting 1 in 800 births. Klinefelter’s syndrome affects 1-2 in 1000 male births, while XYY syndrome affects 1 in 1000 male births and Triple X syndrome affects 1 in 1000 births. Turner syndrome is less common, affecting 1 in 5000 female births. Edwards syndrome and Patau syndrome are rare, affecting 1 in 6000 and 1 in 10,000 births, respectively. Understanding the genetic basis and consequences of aneuploidy is important for diagnosis, treatment, and genetic counseling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following does the statement I saw a man shut his car door today and instantly knew this was a sign that I had to kill the queen exemplify?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delusional perception
Explanation:Types of Delusions
Delusions come in many different forms. It is important to familiarize oneself with these types as they may be tested in an exam. Some of the most common types of delusions include:
– Folie a deux: a shared delusion between two or more people
– Grandiose: belief that one has special powers, beliefs, of purpose
– Hypochondriacal: belief that something is physically wrong with the patient
– Ekbom’s syndrome: belief that one has been infested with insects
– Othello syndrome: belief that a sexual partner is cheating on them
– Capgras delusion: belief that a person close to them has been replaced by a double
– Fregoli delusion: patient identifies a familiar person (usually suspected to be a persecutor) in other people they meet
– Syndrome of subjective doubles: belief that doubles of him/her exist
– Lycanthropy: belief that one has been transformed into an animal
– De Clérambault’s syndrome: false belief that a person is in love with them
– Cotard’s syndrome/nihilistic delusions: belief that they are dead of do not exist
– Referential: belief that others/TV/radio are speaking directly to of about the patient
– Delusional perception: belief that a normal percept (product of perception) has a special meaning
– Pseudocyesis: a condition whereby a woman believes herself to be pregnant when she is not. Objective signs accompany the belief such as abdominal enlargement, menstrual disturbance, apparent foetal movements, nausea, breast changes, and labour pains.Remembering these types of delusions can be helpful in understanding and diagnosing patients with delusional disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 21
Incorrect
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From which amino acid is serotonin synthesized?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tryptophan
Explanation:Serotonin: Synthesis and Breakdown
Serotonin, also known as 5-Hydroxytryptamine (5-HT), is synthesized in the central nervous system (CNS) in the raphe nuclei located in the brainstem, as well as in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract in enterochromaffin cells. The amino acid L-tryptophan, obtained from the diet, is used to synthesize serotonin. L-tryptophan can cross the blood-brain barrier, but serotonin cannot.
The transformation of L-tryptophan into serotonin involves two steps. First, hydroxylation to 5-hydroxytryptophan is catalyzed by tryptophan hydroxylase. Second, decarboxylation of 5-hydroxytryptophan to serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine) is catalyzed by L-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase.
Serotonin is taken up from the synapse by a monoamine transporter (SERT). Substances that block this transporter include MDMA, amphetamine, cocaine, TCAs, and SSRIs. Serotonin is broken down by monoamine oxidase (MAO) and then by aldehyde dehydrogenase to 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Who is credited with introducing the concept of endophenotypes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gottesman & Shields
Explanation:Delay and Deniker are credited with introducing chlorpromazine, a medication used to treat various mental illnesses, including schizophrenia. This drug was a breakthrough in the field of psychiatry and helped to revolutionize the treatment of mental illness.
Rutter is often referred to as the ‘father of child psychiatry’ due to his significant contributions to the field. He was instrumental in developing new approaches to the diagnosis and treatment of childhood mental health disorders, and his work has had a lasting impact on the field.
Cerletti is known for his role in the development of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), a treatment for severe mental illness that involves passing an electric current through the brain to induce a seizure. While controversial, ECT has been shown to be effective in treating certain mental health conditions, and Cerletti’s work helped to establish it as a viable treatment option.
Understanding Endophenotypes in Psychiatry
Endophenotypes are measurable components that are not visible to the naked eye, but are present along the pathway between disease and distal genotype. These components may be neurophysiological, biochemical, endocrinological, neuroanatomical, cognitive, of neuropsychological. They provide simpler clues to genetic underpinnings than the disease syndrome itself, making genetic analysis more straightforward and successful.
Endophenotypes are important in biological psychiatry research as they specifically require heritability and state independence. They must segregate with illness in the general population, be heritable, manifest whether illness is present of in remission, cosegregate with the disorder within families, be present at a higher rate within affected families than in the general population, and be a characteristic that can be measured reliably and is specific to the illness of interest.
Understanding endophenotypes is crucial in delineating the pathophysiology of mental illness, as genes are the biological bedrock of these disorders. By identifying and measuring endophenotypes, researchers can gain insight into the underlying genetic causes of mental illness and develop more effective treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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In the basal ganglia, the Lentiform nucleus is formed by which two nuclei?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Putamen and Globus pallidus
Explanation:The Basal Ganglia are composed of the following structures: Caudate, putamen, Globus pallidus, subthalamic nucleus and substantia nigra. The lentiform nucleus comprises of the putamen and the Globus pallidus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
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Question 24
Incorrect
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The term used to describe the ability of a 25 year old man to smell music is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Synaesthesia
Explanation:Synaesthesia is a condition in which stimulation of one sensory pathway results in experiences in another sensory pathway, such as perceiving a scent as a sound of visualizing a sound as a color.
Altered Perceptual Experiences
Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.
Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.
Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which BMI classification is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: BMI 32 = obesity class I
Explanation:Assessment and Management of Obesity
Obesity is a condition that can increase the risk of various health problems, including type 2 diabetes, coronary heart disease, some types of cancer, and stroke. The body mass index (BMI) is a commonly used tool to assess obesity, calculated by dividing a person’s weight in kilograms by their height in meters squared. For adults over 20 years old, BMI falls into one of the following categories: underweight, normal of healthy weight, pre-obesity/overweight, obesity class I, obesity class II, and obesity class III.
Waist circumference can also be used in combination with BMI to guide interventions. Diet and exercise are the main interventions up to a BMI of 35, unless there are comorbidities such as type 2 diabetes, hypertension, cardiovascular disease, osteoarthritis, dyslipidemia, and sleep apnea. Physical activity recommendations suggest that adults should accumulate at least 150 minutes of moderate intensity activity of 75 minutes of vigorous intensity activity per week. Dietary recommendations suggest diets that have a 600 kcal/day deficit.
Pharmacological options such as Orlistat of Liraglutide may be considered for those with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 of more, of 28 if associated risk factors. Surgical options such as bariatric surgery may be considered for those with a BMI of 40 kg/m2 of more, of between 35 kg/m2 and 40 kg/m2 with other significant diseases that could be improved with weight loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 7-year-old girl who presents with facial features such as a flat and broad head, a prominent forehead, heavy brows, up-slanting eyes, a depressed nasal bridge, and a wide mouth with a fleshy and inverted central portion of the upper lip. Additionally, you observe short and broad hands, short stature, a hoarse deep voice, speech delay, and hearing loss. During follow-up, you notice a predominance of various self-injurious behaviors, including self-biting, head-banging, and picking sores. The patient also exhibits self-hugging behavior. What is your preferred diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Smith-Magenis syndrome
Explanation:Smith-Magenis syndrome is characterized by a behavioural phenotype that often involves severe self harm, but it is distinguished by a unique behaviour known as self-hugging. The syndrome is caused by a deletion on chromosome 17 (17p11.2) and is estimated to occur in one out of every 25,000 births. Due to its prevalence and distinct features, Smith-Magenis syndrome is frequently tested on the Royal College examinations and is important to understand in detail.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry Of Learning Disability
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What type of lesion is most likely to cause bitemporal hemianopia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pituitary tumour
Explanation:Bitemporal hemianopia is a condition in which an individual experiences a loss of vision in the outer (temporal of lateral) half of both their left and right visual fields. This condition is typically caused by damage to the optic chiasm.
Cerebral Dysfunction: Lobe-Specific Features
When the brain experiences dysfunction, it can manifest in various ways depending on the affected lobe. In the frontal lobe, dysfunction can lead to contralateral hemiplegia, impaired problem solving, disinhibition, lack of initiative, Broca’s aphasia, and agraphia (dominant). The temporal lobe dysfunction can result in Wernicke’s aphasia (dominant), homonymous upper quadrantanopia, and auditory agnosia (non-dominant). On the other hand, the non-dominant parietal lobe dysfunction can lead to anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect, and constructional apraxia. Meanwhile, the dominant parietal lobe dysfunction can result in Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lastly, occipital lobe dysfunction can lead to visual agnosia, visual illusions, and contralateral homonymous hemianopia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You are reviewing a child's records. They have been diagnosed with Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder.
Under which axis of the DSM IV does this fall?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Axis II
Explanation:The DSM-IV-TR uses a multi-axial system to diagnose mental disorders. Axis II covers developmental and personality disorders, such as autism and borderline personality disorder. Axis I covers clinical syndromes, like depression and schizophrenia. Axis III includes physical conditions that may contribute to mental illness, such as brain injury of HIV/AIDS. Axis IV rates the severity of psychosocial stressors, such as job loss of marriage, that may impact the person’s mental health. Finally, Axis V rates the person’s level of functioning, both currently and in the past year, to help the clinician understand how the other axes are affecting the person and what changes may be expected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A middle-aged man with memory impairment is observed to wear his watch on his left wrist and then to put on another watch and wear it on his right wrist.
What phenomenon is being demonstrated in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perseveration
Explanation:Common Behavioral Symptoms in Dementia
Perseveration is a behavior where a person repeatedly carries out an action beyond its normal usefulness. This behavior is often observed in individuals with dementia. Another behavior seen in dementia is Ambitendency, where a person alternates between two different actions. Echopraxia is an automatic imitation of the interviewer’s movement, even when asked not to. Mannerism is a repetitive action that appears to have some functional significance, such as saluting. Lastly, stereotypy is a repeated, regular movement that appears to have no significance. These behaviors can be challenging for caregivers to manage and may require specialized interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Who proposed a categorical model for schizophrenia that categorized patients into types I and II?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crow
Explanation:Historical Classification of Schizophrenia
The classification of schizophrenia has evolved over time, with various individuals contributing to its development. In 1801, Phillippe Pinel used the term ‘demencé’ to describe the loss of mental abilities in chronically ill patients. Benedict Morel coined the term ‘demencé precocé’ in 1852 to describe young patients with premature dementia. Kahlbaum was the first to describe ‘paraphrenia hebetica’ in the 1860s, which was later elaborated as ‘hebephrenia’ by Hecker in 1871.
In 1893, Emil Kraepelin used the term dementia praecox to describe the condition, emphasizing the importance of delusions, hallucinations, impaired attention, thought incoherence, stereotyped movements and expressions, deterioration of emotional life, and a loss of drive as key symptoms. In 1908, Eugen Bleuler coined the term ‘schizophrenia’ to replace dementia praecox, denoting ‘a splitting of the psychic functions.’ Bleuler expanded the concept to include presentations that did not include a ‘terminal state.’
Bleuler introduced a distinction between basic and accessory symptoms and primary and secondary symptoms. Basic symptoms are necessarily present in any case of schizophrenia, while accessory symptoms may of may not occur. The fundamental features of schizophrenia were loosening of associations, disturbances of affectivity, ambivalence, and autism. The alteration of associations is the only symptom that Bleuler regarded as both basic and primary, and can thus be described as the core disturbance in the Bleulerian conception of schizophrenia.
In 1939, Langfeldt introduced the term ‘schizophreniform psychosis’ to describe patients with Bleulerian schizophrenia who did not follow a progressively deteriorating course. In the 1960s, Rado/Meehl introduced the term ‘schizotypy’ to recognize the concept of a continuum of spectrum of schizophrenia-related phenotypes. In the 1980s, Crow proposed a subclassification of schizophrenia, dividing patients into types I and II. Type I patients present with positive symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, while type II patients present with negative symptoms such as affective flattening and poverty of speech.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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