00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 6-year-old boy arrives at the clinic seven hours after having injured his...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy arrives at the clinic seven hours after having injured his hand with a metal spike. Examination reveals a puncture wound 0.5 cm deep. His immunization schedule is uptodate. How will you manage this patient?

      Your Answer: Tetanus Ig + antibiotics

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune System
      57.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 52-year-old gentleman known with rheumatoid arthritis presented with a 5 day history...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old gentleman known with rheumatoid arthritis presented with a 5 day history of red, painful swollen knee joint. He was afebrile and the joint was warm on touch. Hamstring muscles were spastic. Which of the following tests should be done next?

      Your Answer: Joint aspiration for cytology and culture and sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis can affect any joint of the body. Aspirate will reveal increased TLC, and it will be sterile.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune System
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The immunoglobulin found in the highest concentration in humans is ...

    Incorrect

    • The immunoglobulin found in the highest concentration in humans is

      Your Answer: IgM

      Correct Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      Representing approximately 75% of serum antibodies in humans, IgG is the most common type of antibody found in the circulation. IgG molecules are created and released by plasma B cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune System
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism, presents with ptosis and muscle...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism, presents with ptosis and muscle weakness. She's noticed that her muscle weakness becomes worse towards the end of the day. Clinical examination reveals fatigable ptosis and proximal limb weakness. Myasthenia gravis is suspected. Which receptor is implicated in the pathophysiology of this condition?

      Your Answer: Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors

      Correct Answer: Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

      Explanation:

      Myasthenia gravis (MG) is an organ-specific autoimmune disease caused by an antibody-mediated assault on the muscle nicotinic acetylcholine receptor (AChR) at the neuromuscular junction. Binding of antibodies to the AChR leads to loss of functional AChRs and impairs the neuromuscular signal transmission, resulting in muscular weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune System
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Choose the molecule that acts as the co-receptor for cells expressing antigens linked...

    Correct

    • Choose the molecule that acts as the co-receptor for cells expressing antigens linked with MHC class I molecules:

      Your Answer: CD8

      Explanation:

      CD8+ T cells recognize antigens in the form of short peptide fragments bound to major histocompatibility complex class I (MHCI) molecules on the target cell surface.1 Specific engagement of peptide-MHCI (pMHCI) complexes via the clonotypically expressed ?β T-cell receptor (TCR) triggers a range of effector functions that play a critical role in protective immunity against intracellular infections and various malignancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune System
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 62 year-old male presents with exertional chest pain and is found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year-old male presents with exertional chest pain and is found to have extensive coronary artery disease on angiogram. Which of the following cell types is most implicated in the development of coronary artery plaques?

      Your Answer: Platelets

      Correct Answer: Macrophages

      Explanation:

      An atheroma is an accumulation of degenerative material in the tunica intima (inner layer) of artery walls. The material consists of (mostly) macrophage cells, or debris, containing lipids (cholesterol and fatty acids), calcium and a variable amount of fibrous connective tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune System
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following immune responses occurs in Coeliac disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following immune responses occurs in Coeliac disease?

      Your Answer: Type III hypersensitivity

      Correct Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      Celiac disease is classified as a Type IV hypersensitivity mediated by T-cell response. Negatively charged gliadin has been shown to induce interleukin 15 in the enteric epithelial cells, stimulating the proliferation of the natural killer cells and intraepithelial lymphocytes to express NK-G2D, a marker for natural killer T lymphocytes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune System
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Type 2 hypersensitivity is mediated by: ...

    Correct

    • Type 2 hypersensitivity is mediated by:

      Your Answer: IgG, IgM & complement

      Explanation:

      In type II hypersensitivity the antibodies, IgG and IgM bind to antigens to form complexes that activate the classical pathway of complement to eliminate cells presenting foreign antigens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune System
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old lady, known with rheumatoid arthritis, complains of increasing numbness and tingling...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old lady, known with rheumatoid arthritis, complains of increasing numbness and tingling in her feet and hands. She has recently developed an ulcer on her left heel, after having burnt her foot in a hot bath. A number of depigmented areas are readily seen over her upper limbs.

      She is currently taking low-dose prednisolone (7.5 mg daily), alendronic acid, lansoprazole, paracetamol, indomethacin, methotrexate and rituximab.

      Her blood tests demonstrate:
      Haemoglobin 9.9 g/l
      MCV 102 fl
      Platelets 410 x 109/l
      White blood cells 12.3 x 109/l
      Vitamin B12 97 pg/ml
      Folate 12.3ng/ml
      Random blood glucose 9.9 mmol/l
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone 4.7 mU/ml
      Thyroxine 12.8 pmol/l

      Which autoantibody would be most diagnostic for the underlying disease?

      Your Answer: Anti-intrinsic factor (IF)

      Explanation:

      This clinical scenario describes pernicious anaemia. Anti-intrinsic factor (IF) antibodies are most specific for pernicious anaemia. Antigastric parietal cell antibodies have a higher sensitivity but are less specific for pernicious anaemia. The other antibodies listed are not related to pernicious anaemia. Anti-TTG is seen with Celiac’s disease, anti-TPO is seen with thyroid disease, GAD is seen with type I diabetes, but this does not explain her anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune System
      66.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 13-year-old male, who is otherwise healthy, has presented with recurrent episodes of...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old male, who is otherwise healthy, has presented with recurrent episodes of swelling in his face and tongue. He also complains of abdominal pain. His father has had similar episodes. Choose the most likely diagnosis for this patient.

      Your Answer: C1 esterase deficiency

      Explanation:

      C1 esterase deficiency is most often associated with swelling of the peripheries and laryngeal oedema. Severe pain in the abdomen is also consistent with this diagnosis. It is also an autosomal dominant condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune System
      15.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Immune System (6/10) 60%
Passmed