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Question 1
Correct
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What is the most effective tool to use when suspecting a brain hemorrhage in an emergency situation?
Your Answer: CT
Explanation:Neuroimaging techniques can be divided into structural and functional types, although this distinction is becoming less clear as new techniques emerge. Structural techniques include computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), which use x-rays and magnetic fields, respectively, to produce images of the brain’s structure. Functional techniques, on the other hand, measure brain activity by detecting changes in blood flow of oxygen consumption. These include functional MRI (fMRI), emission tomography (PET and SPECT), perfusion MRI (pMRI), and magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS). Some techniques, such as diffusion tensor imaging (DTI), combine both structural and functional information to provide a more complete picture of the brain’s anatomy and function. DTI, for example, uses MRI to estimate the paths that water takes as it diffuses through white matter, allowing researchers to visualize white matter tracts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 2
Correct
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What is the main region of the brain responsible for 'Working memory'?
Your Answer: Prefrontal cortex
Explanation:– Different structures are involved in working memory.
– The prefrontal cortex is the main structure that is expected to be known.
– The hippocampus main role is to consolidate short-term memories to long-term storage.Memory: Encoding, Storage, Retrieval, and Failure
Memory is a complex process that involves encoding, storage, and retrieval of information. Encoding refers to how information is placed into memory, and it can be improved by organizing data using techniques such as chunking and mnemonics. Storage refers to keeping information in memory, which can be short-term of long-term. Retrieval refers to getting information back from memory when needed, and it can be affected by primacy and recency effects.
However, memory is not infallible, and there are seven ways in which it tends to fail. Transience refers to the decreasing accessibility of memory over time, while absent-mindedness is characterized by lapses of attention and forgetting to do things. Blocking is the temporary inaccessibility of stored information, while suggestibility involves the incorporation of misinformation into memory due to leading questions of deception.
Bias refers to retrospective distortions produced by current knowledge and beliefs, while persistence involves unwanted recollections that people cannot forget, such as the intrusive memories of post-traumatic stress disorder. Finally, misattribution refers to the attribution of memories to incorrect sources of believing that one has seen of heard something that they have not, such as in the case of deja vu of cryptomnesia.
Overall, memory is a complex and active process that can be affected by various factors, leading to failures in encoding, storage, retrieval, and attribution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman accompanied by her husband was seen by her GP. Over several months she had begun to hear voices. These voices could be heard at any time. Sometimes the voices would demand her to do things; sometimes they would hum of laugh. Over the months she had developed the notion that her husband was having an affair and was planning to leave her. In addition, she believed that she had a deadly illness and was unlikely to live for more than a year.
The arguments that followed these 'ideas' had caused a huge rift between her and her husband, as he had been unable to convince her that they were not true. She had lost over a stone in weight, had become increasingly nervous and was neglecting her appearance. She had no known medical problems and was not taking any regular medication. She was a smoker of 10 cigarettes per day and drank 10 units of alcohol per week. She worked as a teacher, but had recently taken time off sick. She had a brother with schizophrenia, but there were no other known family illnesses.
On examination, she appeared withdrawn and unkempt. She continued to fidget with her clothes and continually commented she could smell smoke. She was able to talk fluently about her childhood and university years which appeared to be happy times. The death of her father three years ago had been 'difficult'. She scored 28/30 on mini-mental state examination. Cranial nerve and peripheral nervous system examination did not reveal any abnormalities. An MRI scan of her brain was normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer: Psychotic depression
Correct Answer: Paranoid schizophrenia
Explanation:Paranoid Schizophrenia Diagnosis
This patient’s symptoms include hearing hallucinatory voices that command him to do things of non-verbal forms such as humming of laughing. He also experiences delusions with a persecutory of jealousy theme, as well as hallucinations of smell, changes in weight, and neglect of personal hygiene. These symptoms are consistent with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia.
The patient’s clinical picture is dominated by fixed delusions, with less emphasis on mood changes, making diagnoses of psychotic depression and bipolar disease less likely. There is no evidence of epileptic-form activity of altered awareness during episodes of delusions or hallucinations.
It is important to differentiate paranoid schizophrenia from other disorders, such as schizoid personality disorder, which is characterized by emotional coldness, detachment, limited capacity to express emotion, and subsequently, few friends of close relationships.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 4
Incorrect
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How does the prevalence of a condition impact a particular aspect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Positive predictive value
Explanation:The characteristics of precision, sensitivity, accuracy, and specificity are not influenced by the prevalence of the condition and remain stable. However, the positive predictive value is affected by the prevalence of the condition, particularly in cases where the prevalence is low. This is because a decrease in the prevalence of the condition leads to a decrease in the number of true positives, which in turn reduces the numerator of the PPV equation, resulting in a lower PPV. The formula for PPV is TP/(TP+FP).
Clinical tests are used to determine the presence of absence of a disease of condition. To interpret test results, it is important to have a working knowledge of statistics used to describe them. Two by two tables are commonly used to calculate test statistics such as sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of people with a condition that the test correctly identifies, while specificity refers to the proportion of people without a condition that the test correctly identifies. Accuracy tells us how closely a test measures to its true value, while predictive values help us understand the likelihood of having a disease based on a positive of negative test result. Likelihood ratios combine sensitivity and specificity into a single figure that can refine our estimation of the probability of a disease being present. Pre and post-test odds and probabilities can also be calculated to better understand the likelihood of having a disease before and after a test is carried out. Fagan’s nomogram is a useful tool for calculating post-test probabilities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A clinician wishes to assess the perceived impact of antipsychotic medications on their adolescent patient with a diagnosis of schizophrenia. Which rating scale is most commonly utilized for this purpose?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drug attitude inventory
Explanation:The Drug Attitude Inventory assesses the subjective effects of antipsychotic drugs in patients with schizophrenia. The ASK-20 Adherence Barrier Survey measures barriers to treatment adherence with 20 clinical items. The Brief Evaluation of Medication Influences and Beliefs (BEMIB) Scale is an eight-item Likert-type scale that evaluates the costs and benefits of medication use based on the health belief model. The Medication Adherence Rating Scale (MARS) is a 10-item self-report scale that combines elements of the Drug Attitude Inventory and Medication Adherence Questionnaire for use in patients with schizophrenia and psychosis. The Rating of Medication Influences (ROMI) Scale is a 20-item interviewer-rated scale that assesses adherence attitudes in psychiatric patients, particularly those with schizophrenia, with good inter-rater reliability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male is admitted with fatigue, nausea and weight loss. He has a history of heavy alcohol use and has experienced delirium tremens in the past. He has abstained from alcohol for the past two days.
During examination, he appears thin, alert and oriented. He displays signs of chronic liver disease, but there is no evidence of a flapping tremor. His pulse is regular at 88 bpm, his blood pressure is 106/74 mmHg, and his temperature is 37°C.
What medication would be recommended for preventing acute alcohol withdrawal in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral lorazepam
Explanation:This patient, who exhibits signs of chronic liver disease due to alcohol consumption, is at high risk of experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal, especially considering her history of delirium tremens. To prevent this, benzodiazepines are appropriate agents, with oral medications like lorazepam and diazepam being recommended. While benzodiazepines can cause hepatic encephalopathy in patients with liver cirrhosis, it is not yet known if this patient has cirrhosis, and the risk of alcohol withdrawal is significant. Therefore, she should be given benzodiazepines and closely monitored for any signs of encephalopathy. In cases of hepatic impairment, benzodiazepines with a shorter half-life, such as lorazepam and oxazepam, are preferred.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is the definition of sleep latency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The time taken to fall asleep after going to bed
Explanation:Sleep Stages
Sleep is divided into two distinct states called rapid eye movement (REM) and non-rapid eye movement (NREM). NREM is subdivided into four stages.
Sleep stage
Approx % of time spent in stage
EEG findings
CommentI
5%
Theta waves (4-7 Hz)
The dozing off stage. Characterized by hypnic jerks: spontaneous myoclonic contractions associated with a sensation of twitching of falling.II
45%
Theta waves, K complexes and sleep spindles (short bursts of 12-14 Hz activity)
Body enters a more subdued state including a drop in temperature, relaxed muscles, and slowed breathing and heart rate. At the same time, brain waves show a new pattern and eye movement stops.III
15%
Delta waves (0-4 Hz)
Deepest stage of sleep (high waking threshold). The length of stage 3 decreases over the course of the night.IV
15%
Mixed, predominantly beta
High dream activity.The percentage of REM sleep decreases with age.
It takes the average person 15-20 minutes to fall asleep, this is called sleep latency (characterised by the onset of stage I sleep). Once asleep one descends through stages I-II and then III-IV (deep stages). After about 90 minutes of sleep one enters REM. The rest of the sleep comprises of cycles through the stages. As the sleep progresses the periods of REM become greater and the periods of NREM become less. During an average night’s sleep one spends 25% of the sleep in REM and 75% in NREM.
REM sleep has certain characteristics that separate it from NREM
Characteristics of REM sleep
– Autonomic instability (variability in heart rate, respiratory rate, and BP)
– Loss of muscle tone
– Dreaming
– Rapid eye movements
– Penile erectionDeafness:
(No information provided on deafness in relation to sleep stages)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following has the shortest half-life?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Zopiclone
Explanation:The ‘Z drugs’ (zopiclone, zolpidem, zaleplon) are beneficial for nighttime sedation due to their relatively brief half-lives.
Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs commonly used to treat anxiety and sleep disorders. It is important to have a working knowledge of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life. Half-life refers to the amount of time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body.
Some of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life include diazepam with a half-life of 20-100 hours, clonazepam with a half-life of 18-50 hours, chlordiazepoxide with a half-life of 5-30 hours, nitrazepam with a half-life of 15-38 hours, temazepam with a half-life of 8-22 hours, lorazepam with a half-life of 10-20 hours, alprazolam with a half-life of 10-15 hours, oxazepam with a half-life of 6-10 hours, zopiclone with a half-life of 5-6 hours, zolpidem with a half-life of 2 hours, and zaleplon with a half-life of 2 hours. Understanding the half-life of these drugs is important for determining dosages and timing of administration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about neurofibrillary tangles?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They are composed of Tau protein
Explanation:Neurofibrillary tangles consist of insoluble clumps of Tau protein, which are made up of multiple strands. Since Tau is a microtubule-associated protein that plays a role in the structural processes of neurons, these tangles are always found within the cell.
Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by both macroscopic and microscopic changes in the brain. Macroscopic changes include cortical atrophy, ventricular dilation, and depigmentation of the locus coeruleus. Microscopic changes include the presence of senile plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, gliosis, degeneration of the nucleus of Meynert, and Hirano bodies. Senile plaques are extracellular deposits of beta amyloid in the gray matter of the brain, while neurofibrillary tangles are intracellular inclusion bodies that consist primarily of hyperphosphorylated tau. Gliosis is marked by increases in activated microglia and reactive astrocytes near the sites of amyloid plaques. The nucleus of Meynert degenerates in Alzheimer’s, resulting in a decrease in acetylcholine in the brain. Hirano bodies are actin-rich, eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions which have a highly characteristic crystalloid fine structure and are regarded as a nonspecific manifestation of neuronal degeneration. These changes in the brain contribute to the cognitive decline and memory loss seen in Alzheimer’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which adult and child attachment style pairs are mismatched?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enmeshed - Obsessed
Explanation:Attachment (Ainsworth)
Psychologist Mary Ainsworth developed the ‘Strange Situation procedure’ to study and categorize attachment in children aged 12 to 18 months. The procedure involves seven steps, including two separations and two reunions, and takes place in one room. The child’s attachment is classified into one of three styles: secure, anxious-resistant, and anxious-avoidant. A fourth category, disorganized, is sometimes observed. Ainsworth suggested that the child’s attachment style is determined by the primary caregiver’s behavior.
Mary Main later developed the Adult Attachment Interview and identified four categories of attachment in adults that correspond to those observed in the strange situation. The distribution of adult attachment styles correlates with those of the strange situation, with 70% of children and adults having secure attachment. Attachment styles also seem to be passed on to subsequent generations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents with cognitive impairment, perseveration, and disinhibition. What neurological signs are likely to be observed during her examination?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Palmomental reflex
Explanation:Frontal lobe pathology can result in the elicitation of frontal release signs, such as palmomental reflexes. Ataxia may be present in conditions like normal pressure hydrocephalus, while cogwheel rigidity is commonly found in extrapyramidal syndromes. Contralateral hemisphere dysfunction can lead to postural arm drift. These signs occur when the frontal lobe’s normal inhibition of these responses is released. For more information, see Kipps and Hodges’ article Cognitive assessment for clinicians.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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Question 12
Incorrect
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How can a group of genetic defects causing a single condition be described?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heterogeneity
Explanation:Pleiotropy refers to a genetic phenomenon where a single gene has an impact on multiple observable traits. This occurs because the gene produces a product that is utilized by various cells. An instance of pleiotropy is the human condition known as PKU (phenylketonuria).
Understanding Heterogeneity in Genetic Diseases
Heterogeneity is a term used to describe the presence of different genetic defects that can cause the same disease. This phenomenon is commonly observed in genetic disorders, where multiple mutations can lead to the same clinical presentation. For instance, the ABO blood group system is an example of heterogeneity, where different combinations of alleles can result in the same blood type.
Understanding heterogeneity is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of genetic diseases. Identifying the specific genetic defect responsible for a particular disease can help tailor therapies and predict disease progression. However, the presence of heterogeneity can also complicate diagnosis and treatment, as different mutations may require different approaches.
Overall, heterogeneity highlights the complexity of genetic diseases and underscores the need for personalized medicine approaches that take into account individual genetic variations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A typical sleep cycle from stage 1 to the end of REM sleep in a normal adult is approximately how long?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 90 min
Explanation:A single sleep cycle has stages 1, 2, 3, 4 and REM (Rapid eye movement). These stages progress cyclically from 1 through to REM and then begin again with stage 1. A complete sleep cycle takes an average of 90-110 minutes, with each stage lasting between 5 to 15 minutes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A middle-aged individual who has been struggling with addiction for several years successfully completes a rehabilitation program and begins to pursue career opportunities. Which of Rapoport's principles would this situation align with?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Democracy
Explanation:The culture of empowerment in a therapeutic community involves democratisation, which is demonstrated through voting, decision-making, and achieving seniority. This is essential in developing an individual’s sense of agency and ability to carry out meaningful actions. Rapoport’s four principles, which define the work of a therapeutic community, include permissiveness, democracy, reality confrontation, and communalism. These principles are updated by Haigh, with containment corresponding to permissiveness, communication to communalism, involvement to reality confrontation, and agency to democracy. Overall, the therapeutic community aims to provide support, establish rules and boundaries, confront reality, and foster a sense of shared responsibility among its members.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not classified as a distinct personality disorder in the DSM-5?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple personality disorder
Explanation:Personality Disorder Classification
A personality disorder is a persistent pattern of behavior and inner experience that deviates significantly from cultural expectations, is inflexible and pervasive, and causes distress of impairment. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different approaches to classifying personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into 10 categories, grouped into clusters A, B, and C, while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. To diagnose a personality disorder, the general diagnostic threshold must be met before determining the subtype(s) present. The criteria for diagnosis include inflexibility and pervasiveness of the pattern, onset in adolescence of early adulthood, stability over time, and significant distress of impairment. The disturbance must not be better explained by another mental disorder, substance misuse, of medical condition.
Course
Borderline and antisocial personality disorders tend to become less evident of remit with age, while others, particularly obsessive-compulsive and schizotypal, may persist.
Classification
The DSM-5 divides personality disorders into separate clusters A, B, and C, with additional groups for medical conditions and unspecified disorders. The ICD-11 dropped the separate categories and instead lists six trait domains that can be added to the general diagnosis.
UK Epidemiology
The prevalence of personality disorders in Great Britain, according to the British National Survey of Psychiatric Morbidity, is 4.4%, with cluster C being the most common at 2.6%, followed by cluster A at 1.6% and cluster B at 1.2%. The most prevalent specific personality disorder is obsessive-compulsive (anankastic) at 1.9%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 16
Incorrect
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What is the embryonic structure that gives rise to the cerebellum and pons?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metencephalon
Explanation:During fetal development, the neural tube at the cranial end gives rise to three major parts: the prosencephalon, mesencephalon, and rhombencephalon. The prosencephalon further divides into the telencephalon and diencephalon, forming the forebrain. The mesencephalon forms the midbrain, while the rhombencephalon splits into the metencephalon (which gives rise to the cerebellum and pons) and myelencephalon (which forms the medulla oblongata and spinal cord).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of confusion, paranoia, dizziness. She and her next of kin (daughter) do not report any head injury, fever, cough, chest pain, dysuria, urinary frequency, abdominal discomfort of weight loss. Thorough investigations for causes of delirium are all normal.
Her past medical history was of benign endometrial polypectomy and hiatus hernia only.
She was admitted to a psychiatric ward. An attempt to address her paranoia with a small dose of risperidone precipitates pronounced extrapyramidal side-effects, her mobility declines and she begins to experience falls. Discontinuation of the risperidone leads to an improvement of her mobility.
During the course of her admission, she was noted to have bilateral cogwheel rigidity and bradykinesia which was not detected at the point of admission.
Which of the following would you most suspect?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:DLB is typically diagnosed when cognitive impairments of hallucinations occur before of within one year of Parkinsonism onset, while Parkinson’s disease dementia is diagnosed when Parkinsonism precedes dementia by more than a year. Neither vascular nor frontotemporal dementia typically present with psychosis of neuroleptic sensitivity. Pseudo-dementia refers to cases of depression that mimic dementia, but there is no indication of depression in the given scenario. It is crucial to identify depression when present to provide timely treatment and avoid unnecessary investigations.
Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that is becoming more recognized and accounts for up to 20% of cases. It is characterized by the presence of alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions (Lewy bodies) in certain areas of the brain. The relationship between Parkinson’s disease and Lewy body dementia is complex, as dementia is often seen in Parkinson’s disease and up to 40% of Alzheimer’s patients have Lewy bodies. Neuroleptics should be avoided in Lewy body dementia, except in cases of psychosis of aggression. Cholinesterase inhibitors are the first line of treatment for psychosis with Lewy body dementia, and antipsychotics are the second line. Clozapine is the preferred antipsychotic for Lewy body dementia, but if it is not appropriate, quetiapine is a reasonable choice. The features of Lewy body dementia include progressive cognitive impairment, parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, and other symptoms such as delusions and non-visual hallucinations. Additional features that support the diagnosis include fluctuating cognition, repeated falls, syncope, and neuroleptic sensitivity. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) is increasingly used with a sensitivity of around 90% and a specificity of 100%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which antipsychotic is commonly linked to priapism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlorpromazine
Explanation:Priapism: A Painful and Persistent Erection
Priapism is a condition characterized by a prolonged and painful erection, which can occur in males and even in the clitoris. Although rare, certain medications such as antipsychotics and antidepressants have been known to cause priapism. The primary mechanism behind this condition is alpha blockade, although other mechanisms such as serotonin-mediated pathways have also been suggested. Some of the drugs most commonly associated with priapism include Trazodone, Chlorpromazine, and Thioridazine. Treatment involves the use of alpha-adrenergic agonists, which can be administered orally of injected directly into the penis. Priapism is a serious condition that can lead to complications such as penile amputation, although such cases are extremely rare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which language assessment is considered a neuropsychological test?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Token test
Explanation:The neuropsychological assessment includes the token test, which is a language test that uses various tokens, such as differently coloured rectangles and circular discs. The subject is given verbal instructions of increasing complexity to perform tasks with these tokens, and it is a sensitive measure of language comprehension impairment, particularly in cases of aphasia. Additionally, there are several tests of executive function that assess frontal lobe function, including the Stroop test, Tower of London test, Wisconsin card sorting test, Cognitive estimates test, Six elements test, Multiple errands task, and Trails making test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following forms the language areas of the cerebral cortex?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the above
Explanation:Broca’s area, Wernicke’s area, the submarginal sulcus and the angular gyrus all form the language areas of the cerebral cortex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
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Question 21
Incorrect
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In what century did psychiatry become established as a distinct medical field?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 18th century
Explanation:Psychiatry emerged as a distinct medical field in the late 1700s, leading to the establishment of specialized asylums designed to provide therapeutic care for individuals with mental illnesses who were previously confined in institutions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is a typical developmental milestone in children?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Begins to sit unsupported at 8 months of age
Explanation:Starting to sit unsupported at 8 months is considered normal as it falls within the expected range of achieving this milestone by 9 months. However, the other choices suggest a delay in development.
The Emergence of Social Smiling in Infants
Wormann (2014) discusses the emergence of social smiling in infants, which is usually interpreted as the first positive expression directed towards a cause. This occurs when an infant with an initially expressionless face examines the face of another person, and their face and eyes light up while the corners of their mouth pull upward. The age of the first appearance of the social smile varies across cultures, ranging from the fifth to seventh week. Additionally, there are differences in its duration and frequency between the second and seventh month of life. Understanding these milestones is important for a basic understanding of normal child development.
Child Development Milestones:
4 weeks Responds to noise (either by crying, of quieting), follows an object moved in front of eyes
6 weeks Begins social smiling*
3 months Holds head steady on sitting
6 months Rolls from stomach to back, starts babbling
7 months Transfers objects from hand to hand, looks for dropped object
9 months Sits unsupported, begins to crawl
12 months Cruising (walking by holding furniture)
18 months Walks without assistance, speaks about 10-20 words
2 years Runs, climbs up and down stairs alone, makes 2-3 word sentences
3 years Dresses self except for buttons and laces, counts to 10, feeds themself well
4 years Hops on one foot, copies a cross
5 years Copies a triangle, skips -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What is the definition of the term 'prolixity'?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A less severe form of flight of ideas
Explanation:Prolixity is a minor form of flight of ideas that can occur during hypomania. It is characterized by a decrease in clang and verbal associations, and a more focused direction of thought. The speed of thought is also not as rapid as in other forms of flight of ideas.
Formal Thought Disorders
In formal thought disorders, changes in the speed, coherence, and cogency of thought can be observed from a patient’s speech. These disorders can also be self-reported and may be accompanied by enhanced use of nonverbal language. One possible indication is a lack of an adequate connection between two consecutive thoughts, which is called ‘asyndesis’.
There are several types of formal thought disorders, including inhibited thinking, retarded thinking, circumstantial thinking, restricted thinking, perseverative thinking, rumination, pressured thinking, flight of ideas, tangential thinking, thought blocking, disruption of thought, incoherence/derailment, and neologisms.
Inhibited thinking is about the subjective experience of the patient, who may feel that their thinking process is slowed down of blocked by an inner wall of resistance. Retarded thinking, on the other hand, is about the observed quality of thought as inferred through speech, where the flow of thought processes is slowed down and sluggish.
Circumstantial thinking refers to an inability to separate the essential from the unessential during a conversation without rendering the conversation incoherent. Restricted thinking involves a limited range of thought content, fixation on one particular topic of a small number of topics only, and a stereotyped pattern of thinking.
Perseverative thinking is characterized by the persistent repetition of previously used words, phrases, of details to the point where they become meaningless in the context of the current stage of the interview. Rumination is the endless mental preoccupation with, of excessive concern over, mostly unpleasant thoughts.
Pressured thinking, also known as crowding of thought, is when the patient feels helplessly exposed to the pressures of floods of different ideas of thoughts. Flight of ideas involves an increasing multitude of thoughts and ideas which are no longer firmly guided by clear goal-directed thinking.
Tangential thinking occurs when the patient appears to understand the contents of the questions addressed to them but provides answers which are completely out of context. Thought blocking of disruption of thought refers to sudden disruption of an otherwise normal flow of thought of speech for no obvious reason.
Incoherence of derailment is when the interviewer is unable to establish sensible connections between the patient’s thinking and verbal output, which is sometimes also called derailment. Neologisms involve the formation of new words of usage of words which disregard normal conventions and are generally not easily understandable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is the antidepressant classification of a SARI?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trazodone
Explanation:Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following rating scales would be most suitable for evaluating the effectiveness of a new antipsychotic medication in reducing delusional beliefs among individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PANSS- Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale
Explanation:The PANSS is commonly utilized in clinical trials to assess positive and negative symptoms as well as general psychopathology (30 items in total). To measure extrapyramidal side effects, the Simpson Angus Scale, Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS), and Barnes Akathisia Scale are frequently employed. While the Clinical Global Impression (CGI) scale provides a general score of 1 to 5 for a patient’s overall presentation, it may not be as useful for evaluating a specific positive symptom of schizophrenia as the question suggests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Description And Measurement
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What is the pathway for cerebrospinal fluid to return from the subarachnoid space to the vascular system?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subarachnoid villi
Explanation:Cerebrospinal Fluid: Formation, Circulation, and Composition
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced by ependymal cells in the choroid plexus of the lateral, third, and fourth ventricles. It is constantly reabsorbed, so only a small amount is present at any given time. CSF occupies the space between the arachnoid and pia mater and passes through various foramina and aqueducts to reach the subarachnoid space and spinal cord. It is then reabsorbed by the arachnoid villi and enters the dural venous sinuses.
The normal intracerebral pressure (ICP) is 5 to 15 mmHg, and the rate of formation of CSF is constant. The composition of CSF is similar to that of brain extracellular fluid (ECF) but different from plasma. CSF has a higher pCO2, lower pH, lower protein content, lower glucose concentration, higher chloride and magnesium concentration, and very low cholesterol content. The concentration of calcium and potassium is lower, while the concentration of sodium is unchanged.
CSF fulfills the role of returning interstitial fluid and protein to the circulation since there are no lymphatic channels in the brain. The blood-brain barrier separates CSF from blood, and only lipid-soluble substances can easily cross this barrier, maintaining the compositional differences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What is included in the basal ganglia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Putamen
Explanation:The Basal Ganglia: Functions and Disorders
The basal ganglia are a group of subcortical structures that play a crucial role in controlling movement and some cognitive processes. The components of the basal ganglia include the striatum (caudate, putamen, nucleus accumbens), subthalamic nucleus, globus pallidus, and substantia nigra (divided into pars compacta and pars reticulata). The putamen and globus pallidus are collectively referred to as the lenticular nucleus.
The basal ganglia are connected in a complex loop, with the cortex projecting to the striatum, the striatum to the internal segment of the globus pallidus, the internal segment of the globus pallidus to the thalamus, and the thalamus back to the cortex. This loop is responsible for regulating movement and cognitive processes.
However, problems with the basal ganglia can lead to several conditions. Huntington’s chorea is caused by degeneration of the caudate nucleus, while Wilson’s disease is characterized by copper deposition in the basal ganglia. Parkinson’s disease is associated with degeneration of the substantia nigra, and hemiballism results from damage to the subthalamic nucleus.
In summary, the basal ganglia are a crucial part of the brain that regulate movement and some cognitive processes. Disorders of the basal ganglia can lead to significant neurological conditions that affect movement and other functions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Who are the co-authors of the book 'Social origins of depression'?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: George Brown
Explanation:The objective of the book ‘Social origins of Depression’ was to identify the societal elements that play a role in the onset of depression, particularly in women.
History of major works in psychiatry
Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
Ronald Laing – The divided self
Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
Tom Main – The Ailment
Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Where are the cell bodies to the preganglionic neurons located?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Midbrain
Explanation:The cell bodies of the preganglionic neurons are located in the lateral grey column of the spinal cord and in the motor nuclei of the 3rd, 7th, 9th and 10th cranial nerves. These cranial nerves take origin from the midbrain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What is the structure that divides which parts of the brain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The lateral ventricles
Explanation:The septum pellucidum is a thin layer that divides the front sections of the left and right lateral ventricles in the brain. It extends as a flat structure from the corpus callosum to the fornix.
Dementia Pugilistica: A Neurodegenerative Condition Resulting from Neurotrauma
Dementia pugilistica, also known as chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE), is a neurodegenerative condition that results from neurotrauma. It is commonly seen in boxers and NFL players, but can also occur in anyone with neurotrauma. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as gait ataxia, slurred speech, impaired hearing, tremors, disequilibrium, neurobehavioral disturbances, and progressive cognitive decline.
Most cases of dementia pugilistica present with early onset cognitive deficits, and behavioral signs exhibited by patients include aggression, suspiciousness, paranoia, childishness, hypersexuality, depression, and restlessness. The progression of the condition leads to more prominent behavioral symptoms such as difficulty with impulse control, irritability, inappropriateness, and explosive outbursts of aggression.
Neuropathological abnormalities have been identified in CTE, with the most unique feature being the abnormal accumulation of tau in neurons and glia in an irregular, focal, perivascular distribution and at the depths of cortical sulci. Abnormalities of the septum pellucidum, such as cavum and fenestration, are also a common feature.
While the condition has become increasingly rare due to the progressive improvement in sports safety, it is important to recognize the potential long-term consequences of repeated head injuries and take steps to prevent them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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