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  • Question 1 - A 28-year old lady comes to the surgical clinic with a recently detected...

    Correct

    • A 28-year old lady comes to the surgical clinic with a recently detected lump in her right breast. On examination, the lump is found to be 1cm, rubbery, mobile with no palpable axillary nodes. Mammography reveals no microcalcifications and the opposite breast appears normal. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fibroadenoma

      Explanation:

      A benign breast tumour, fibroadenoma is common below the age of 30 years and occurs due to oestrogenic excess. It is characterised by proliferation of both glandular and stromal elements. Fibroadenomas are usually solitary and are mobile, not fixed to surrounding structures. The tumour is elastic, nodular and encapsulated with a grey-white cut surface. The two main histological types include intracanalicular and pericanalicular types, with both types often present in the same tumour. In the intracanalicular type, the stromal proliferation component predominates causing compression of ducts making them appear slit-like. In pericanalicular type, the fibrous stroma dominates around the ductal spaces so that they remain oval on cross section.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A young female in the 15th week of pregnancy presented to the emergency...

    Correct

    • A young female in the 15th week of pregnancy presented to the emergency department with the passage of grape-like masses per vagina. Dilatation and curettage was done and microscopy revealed large avascular villi with trophoblastic proliferation. Which one of the following investigations is best recommended for her follow-up?

      Your Answer: Serum β-hCG

      Explanation:

      Trophoblast is the layer of cells surrounding the blastocyst and that later develops into the chorion and amnion. Gestational trophoblastic disease is a tumour arising from this trophoblast. It can occur during or after either an intrauterine or ectopic pregnancy. If it occurs in a pregnant woman, it usually leads to spontaneous abortion, eclampsia or fetal death. It can be either malignant or benign.

      In suspected cases, investigations include measurement of serum beta subunit of human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG) and pelvic ultrasound. Confirmatory test is a biopsy. Post-removal, the disease is classified clinically to assess further treatment. To assess the presence of metastases, further work-up includes computed tomography of the brain, chest, abdomen and pelvis. Chemotherapy is usually needed for persistent disease. If at least three consecutive, weekly serum β-hCG measurements are normal, treatment is considered successful. Follow-up is also done by measuring β-hCG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the most likely cause of bilateral gynaecomastia in a 55-year old...

    Correct

    • What is the most likely cause of bilateral gynaecomastia in a 55-year old male?

      Your Answer: Hepatic failure

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophy of breast tissue in males is known as gynaecomastia. It is normally due to proliferation of stroma and not of mammary ducts. Physiological gynaecomastia can occur during puberty and is often transient, bilateral, symmetrical and possibly tender. Gynaecomastia can occur during old age too, but is usually unilateral. Other causes include hepatic or renal failure, endocrinological disorders, drugs (anabolic steroids, antineoplastic drugs, calcium channel blockers, cimetidine, digitalis, oestrogens, isoniazid, ketoconazole, methadone, metronidazole, reserpine, spironolactone, theophylline), and marijuana. It should not be confused with malignancy which is often hard, asymmetric and fixed to the dermis or fascia. Treatment if indicated, includes withdrawal of the causative factor or treatment of the underlying disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia on Pap smear of a 34-year old lady is most...

    Correct

    • Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia on Pap smear of a 34-year old lady is most likely associated with which of the following?

      Your Answer: Human papillomavirus infection

      Explanation:

      CIN (Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia) is considered a precursor of cervical cancer and is likely caused due to infection with human papillomavirus (HPV) types 16, 18, 31, 33, 35 or 39. The risk factors for cervical cancer include multiple sex partners, young age at the time of first intercourse, intercourse with men whose previous partners had cervical cancer. Also, smoking and immunodeficient states are considered contributory. CIN is graded as mild (grade I), moderate (grade II) and severe dysplasia or carcinoma in situ (grade III). CIN III rarely regresses spontaneously and can lead to invasive carcinoma by invading the basement membrane. Squamous cell carcinomas are the commonest cervical cancer seen in 80-85% of all cases. Others are commonly adenocarcinomas. Cervical cancer can spread by direct extension, lymphatic spread to pelvic and para-aortic nodes or by hematogenous route.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 38-year old woman presents to the clinic with a 2 cm eczema-like...

    Correct

    • A 38-year old woman presents to the clinic with a 2 cm eczema-like lesion on the areolar region of her left breast, for 5 months. Biopsy of the lesion showed large cells at the dermal-epidermal junction with positive staining for mucin. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paget’s disease of the breast

      Explanation:

      Paget’s disease of the breast or nipple resembles eczema in appearance with an underlying carcinoma typically. The disease is usually unilateral and presents with inflammation, oozing and crusting along with a non-healing ulcer. Treatment is often delayed due to the innocuous appearance but can be fatal. It results due to spread of neoplastic cells from the ducts of the mammary gland to the epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following conditions of the breast is most often associated with...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions of the breast is most often associated with use of oral contraceptives?

      Your Answer: Cyst formation

      Explanation:

      Breast cysts are common and are smooth, firm, mobile lumps that can sometimes be tender. Cysts can also be bilateral and are known to recur in 10% of cases. They are more common in women in the third and fourth decades and most often disappear after menopause. Cysts are filled with fluid from the breast which occurs due to the normal menstrual cycle of a woman. The end of the menstrual cycle causes breast cells to swell. After the menses, the cells shrink and the released fluid disappears. However, in some cases this fluid forms a cyst. Incidence of cysts was also linked to use of oral contraceptives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 18-year old girl presents to her doctor with an excessively enlarged left...

    Correct

    • A 18-year old girl presents to her doctor with an excessively enlarged left breast as compared to the right breast since puberty. The most likely cause for this is:

      Your Answer: Virginal breast hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      Virginal breast hypertrophy’ is the term assigned to excessive growth of breasts during puberty and is a common phenomenon. It is also known as ‘juvenile macromastia’ or ‘ juvenile gigantomastia’. The breast hypertrophy often starts with menarche and occasionally occurs in growth spurts. These spurts can cause physical discomfort, red and itchy skin or pain in the breasts. The breasts can also grow continuously over several years and lead to overdevelopment of a normal breast. Nipples also undergo enlargement along with the breasts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Leakage from a silicone breast implant can lead to: ...

    Correct

    • Leakage from a silicone breast implant can lead to:

      Your Answer: Pain and contracture

      Explanation:

      Breast implants are mainly: saline-filled and silicone gel-filled. Complications include haematoma, fluid collections, infection at the surgical site, pain, wrinkling, asymmetric appearance, wound dehiscence and thinning of the breast tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 38-year old lady presented to the hospital with abnormal passing of blood...

    Correct

    • A 38-year old lady presented to the hospital with abnormal passing of blood per vagina. On examination, she was found to have an endocervical polypoidal mass. On enquiry, she gave history of oral contraceptive usage for 3 years. What finding is expected on the histopathology report of biopsy of the mass?

      Your Answer: Microglandular hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Endocervical polyps or microglandular hyperplasia are benign growths occurring in the endocervical canal, in about 2-5% women and occur secondary to use of oral contraceptives. They are usually < 1cm in size, friable and reddish-pink. Usually asymptomatic, they can cause bleeding or become infected, leading to leucorrhoea (purulent vaginal discharge). They are usually benign but need to be differentiated from adenocarcinomas by histology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is likely to result in hematocolpos in a 12-year...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is likely to result in hematocolpos in a 12-year old girl?

      Your Answer: Imperforate hymen

      Explanation:

      Hematocolpos means accumulation of blood in vagina and hematometra is accumulation of blood in the uterus. These are most likely seen with an imperforate hymen; which is seen I 1 in 2000 females. If spontaneous resolution does not occur, treatment involves making a hole in the hymen to allow discharge of menstrual blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      4.8
      Seconds

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Pathology (10/10) 100%
Women's Health (10/10) 100%
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