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  • Question 1 - A 25 year old women is pregnant with her second child. She is...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old women is pregnant with her second child. She is A- blood group. Her first child was Rh+ and the father is also Rh+. The second child is at a risk of developing which condition?

      Your Answer: Haemolytic disease of the new-born

      Explanation:

      This infant is at risk for haemolytic disease of the new born also known as erythroblastosis fetalis. In the pregnancy, Rh-positive RBC’s cross the placenta and enter the mothers blood system. She then becomes sensitised and forms IgG antibodies/anti-Rh antibodies against them. The second child is at a greater risk for this disease than the first child with Rh-positive blood group as during the second pregnancy, a more powerful response is produced. IgG has the ability to cross the placenta and bind to the fetal RBCs (type II hypersensitivity reaction) which are phagocytosed by the macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Haematology
      • Pathology
      46.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old-female is suspected to have a pulmonary mass. Supposing that she has...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old-female is suspected to have a pulmonary mass. Supposing that she has a neoplasm, which of the following are most commonly found to involve the lung:

      Your Answer: Pulmonary metastases

      Explanation:

      Lung metastases occur when a cancer started in another part of the body (primary site) spreads to the lungs. The lungs are among the most common site where cancer can spread due to its rich systemic venous drainage, almost every type of cancer can spread to the lung. The most common types of cancer that spread to the lung are breast, colorectal, kidney, testicular, bladder, prostate, head and neck cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is a true statement regarding secretion of gastric acid?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a true statement regarding secretion of gastric acid?

      Your Answer: Acetylcholine increases gastric acid secretion

      Explanation:

      Gastric acid secretion is increased by acetylcholine, histamine and gastrin, with the help of cAMP as a secondary messenger. They increase H+ and Cl- secretion by increasing the number of H+/K+ ATPase molecules and Cl- channels. In contrast, gastric acid secretion is decreased by somatostatin, epidermal growth factor and prostaglandins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The pleural cavity is the space between the two pulmonary pleurae which cover...

    Correct

    • The pleural cavity is the space between the two pulmonary pleurae which cover the lungs. What is the normal amount of pleural fluid?

      Your Answer: 10 ml

      Explanation:

      Pleural fluid is a serous fluid produced by the serous membrane covering normal pleurae. Most fluid is produced by the parietal circulation (intercostal arteries) via bulk flow and reabsorbed by the lymphatic system. The total volume of fluid present in the intrapleural space is estimated to be only 2–10 ml. A small amount of protein is present in intrapleural fluid. Normally, the rate of reabsorption increases as a physiological response to accumulating fluid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 4-year-old child was brought to a paediatrician for consult due to a...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old child was brought to a paediatrician for consult due to a palpable mass in his abdomen. The child has poor appetite and regularly complains of abdominal pain. The child was worked up and diagnosed with a tumour. What is the most likely diagnosis ?

      Your Answer: Nephroblastoma

      Explanation:

      Nephroblastoma is also known as Wilms’ tumour. It is a cancer of the kidneys that typically occurs in children. The median age of diagnose is approximately 3.5 years. With the current treatment, approximately 80-90% of children with Wilms’ tumour survive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What will the destruction of endoplasmic reticulum stop? ...

    Correct

    • What will the destruction of endoplasmic reticulum stop?

      Your Answer: Synthesis of proteins

      Explanation:

      The rough endoplasmic reticulum is the factory for the manufacturing of proteins. It contains ribosomes attached to it and transports proteins that are destined for membranes and secretions. The rough ER is connected to the nuclear envelope and to the cisternae of the Golgi apparatus by vesicles that shuttle between the two compartments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The third branch of the maxillary artery lies in which fossa? ...

    Correct

    • The third branch of the maxillary artery lies in which fossa?

      Your Answer: Pterygopalatine fossa

      Explanation:

      The maxillary artery supplies deep structures of the face. It branches from the external carotid artery just deep to the neck of the mandible. It is divided into three portions:

      – The first or mandibular portion (or bony portion) passes horizontally forward, between the neck of the mandible and the sphenomandibular ligament.

      – The second or pterygoid portion (or muscular portion) runs obliquely forward and upward under cover of the ramus of the mandible, on the surface of the lateral pterygoid muscle; it then passes between the two heads of origin of this muscle and enters the fossa.

      – The third portion lies in the pterygopalatine fossa in relation to the pterygopalatine ganglion. This is considered the terminal branch of the maxillary artery. Branches from the third portion includes: the sphenopalatine artery, descending palatine artery, infraorbital artery, posterior superior alveolar artery, artery of pterygoid canal, pharyngeal artery, middle superior alveolar artery and anterior superior alveolar artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      41.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28 year gang member was shot in the chest. The bullet hit...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year gang member was shot in the chest. The bullet hit a vessel that courses horizontally across the mediastinum. Which of the following vessels is it likely to be?

      Your Answer: Left subclavian vein

      Correct Answer: Left brachiocephalic vein

      Explanation:

      The superior vena cava that empties blood into the right atrium is formed by the right and the left brachiocephalic veins. Hence, the left brachiocephalic has to course across the mediastinum horizontally to join with its right ‘counterpart’. The left subclavian artery and vein being lateral to the mediastinum do not cross the mediastinum while the left jugular and the common carotid artery course vertically.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      75.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Glucose is not secreted by the kidneys, and is filtered without a limit....

    Incorrect

    • Glucose is not secreted by the kidneys, and is filtered without a limit. What is the transport maximum for glucose?

      Your Answer: 700 mg/dl

      Correct Answer: 300 mg/dl

      Explanation:

      Transport maximum (or Tm) refers to the point at which increases in concentration do not result in an increase in movement of a substance across a membrane. Glucose is not secreted, thus excretion = filtration – reabsorption. Both filtration and reabsorption are directly proportional to the concentration of glucose in the plasma. However, reabsorption has a transport maximum of about 300 mg/dl in healthy nephrons, while filtration has effectively no limit (within reasonable physiological ranges). So, if the concentration rises above 300 mg/dl, the body cannot retain all the glucose, leading to glucosuria. Glucosuria is nearly always caused by elevated blood glucose levels, most commonly due to untreated diabetes mellitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      52.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the mostly likely cause of prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPPT)...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mostly likely cause of prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPPT) ?

      Your Answer: Warfarin therapy

      Correct Answer: Heparin therapy

      Explanation:

      The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is an indicator for measuring the efficacy of both the intrinsic and common coagulation pathway. Prolonged aPTT may indicate: use of heparin, antiphospholipid antibody and coagulation factor deficiency (e.g., haemophilia). Deficiencies of factors VIII, IX, XI and XII and rarely von Willebrand factor (if causing a low factor VIII level) may lead to a prolonged aPTT correcting on mixing studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      99.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - After a cerebral infarction, which of these histopathogical findings is most likely to...

    Incorrect

    • After a cerebral infarction, which of these histopathogical findings is most likely to be found?

      Your Answer: Coagulative necrosis

      Correct Answer: Liquefactive necrosis

      Explanation:

      The brain has a high lipid content and typically undergoes liquefaction with ischaemic injury, because it contains little connective tissue but high amounts of digestive enzymes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      66.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 38-year old woman presents to the clinic with a 2 cm eczema-like...

    Correct

    • A 38-year old woman presents to the clinic with a 2 cm eczema-like lesion on the areolar region of her left breast, for 5 months. Biopsy of the lesion showed large cells at the dermal-epidermal junction with positive staining for mucin. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paget’s disease of the breast

      Explanation:

      Paget’s disease of the breast or nipple resembles eczema in appearance with an underlying carcinoma typically. The disease is usually unilateral and presents with inflammation, oozing and crusting along with a non-healing ulcer. Treatment is often delayed due to the innocuous appearance but can be fatal. It results due to spread of neoplastic cells from the ducts of the mammary gland to the epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      53.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 72-year-old male presents with dysuria and chronic haematuria. He was diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old male presents with dysuria and chronic haematuria. He was diagnosed with bladder cancer and tumour invasion of the perivesical fat. What is the stage of the patient's bladder cancer?

      Your Answer: T3

      Explanation:

      Bladder cancer is the growth of abnormal or cancerous cells on the inner lining of the bladder wall. The staging is as follows; stage 0is (Tis, N0, M0): Cancerous cells in the inner lining tissue of the bladder only, stage I (T1, N0, M0): tumour has spread onto the bladder wall, stage II (T2, N0, M0): tumour has penetrated the inner wall and is present in muscle of the bladder wall, stage III (T3, N0, M0): tumour has spread through the bladder to fat around the bladder and stage IV: (T4, N0, M0): tumour has grown through the bladder wall and into the pelvic or abdominal wall. The stage of cancer in the case presented is T3 because of the invasion of perivesical fat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      73.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A lesion involving the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus is likely to...

    Incorrect

    • A lesion involving the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus is likely to affect:

      Your Answer: Hearing

      Correct Answer: Vision

      Explanation:

      The lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus is the primary processor of visual information in the central nervous system. The LGN receives information directly from the retina and sends projections directly to the primary visual cortex. The LGN likely helps the visual system focus its attention on the most important information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      79.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which foramen contains the vertebral artery? ...

    Correct

    • Which foramen contains the vertebral artery?

      Your Answer: Foramen magnum

      Explanation:

      The foramen magnum is found in the most inferior part of the posterior cranial fossa. It is traversed by vital structures including the medulla oblongata. Its contents include the following: medulla oblongata, meninges, spinal root of the accessory nerve, vertebral arteries, anterior and posterior spinal arteries, tectorial membrane and alar ligaments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which name is given to the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which name is given to the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm?

      Your Answer: Obturator fascia

      Correct Answer: Perineal membrane

      Explanation:

      The urogenital fascia is mostly commonly referred to as the perineal membrane. This term refers to an anatomical fibrous membrane in the perineum. It is triangular in shape, and thus at times referred to as the triangular ligament. It is about 4 cm in depth. Its The perineal membrane’s apex is anterior and is separated from the arcuate pubic ligament by an oval opening for the passage of the deep dorsal vein of the penis. The lateral marginas of this triangular ligament are attached on either side to the inferior rami of the pubis and ischium, above the crus penis. Its base faces the rectum, and connects to the central tendinous point of the perineum. The pelvic fascia and Colle’s fascia is fused to the base of this triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      35
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 30-year-old man is brought to the emergency department suffering from extreme dehydration,...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is brought to the emergency department suffering from extreme dehydration, and subsequent hypotension and tachycardia. Which part of the kidney will compensate for this loss?

      Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Correct Answer: Collecting ducts

      Explanation:

      The collecting duct system of the kidney consists of a series of tubules and ducts that physically connect nephrons to a minor calyx or directly to the renal pelvis. The collecting duct system is the last component of the kidney to influence the body’s electrolyte and fluid balance. In humans, the system accounts for 4–5% of the kidney’s reabsorption of sodium and 5% of the kidney’s reabsorption of water. At times of extreme dehydration, over 24% of the filtered water may be reabsorbed in the collecting duct system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      101.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 42 year old man presents with end stage renal failure and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old man presents with end stage renal failure and is prepared to receive a kidney from his best friend. HLA testing showed that they are not a 100% match and he is given immunosuppressant therapy for this. Three months later when his renal function is assessed, he showed signs of deteriorating renal function, with decreased renal output, proteinuria of +++ and RBCs in the urine. He was given antilymphocyte globulins and his condition reversed. During the crisis period the patient is likely to be suffering from?

      Your Answer: Graft-versus-host disease

      Correct Answer: Acute rejection

      Explanation:

      This patients is most likely experiencing an acute rejection. It is a cell mediated attack against the organ that has been transplanted. Antigens are either presented by blood borne cells with in the graft or antigen presenting cells in the body may be presenting class I and class II molecules that have been shed by the graft. Class I will activate CD8 and class II, CD4 cells, both of which will attack the graft.

      Chronic rejection is a slow process which occurs months to years after the transplant. The exact mechanism is not very well understood but it probably involves a combination of Type III and Type IV hypersensitivity directed against the foreign MHC molecules which look like self-MHC presenting a foreign antigen.

      Hyperacute Transplant Rejection occurs almost immediately and is often evident while you are still in surgery. It is caused by accidental ABO Blood type mismatching of the donor and recipient which almost never happens anymore. This means the host has preformed antibodies against the donated tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Renal
      • Pathology
      181.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 79-year-old has been bedridden for 2 months after suffering from a stroke....

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old has been bedridden for 2 months after suffering from a stroke. She suddenly developed shortness of breath and chest pain, and was diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following is most likely to increase in this case?

      Your Answer: Arterial CO2

      Correct Answer: Ventilation/perfusion ratio

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a blockage of an artery in the lungs by an embolus that has travelled from elsewhere in the body through the bloodstream. The change in cardiopulmonary function is proportional to the extent of the obstruction, which varies with the size and number of emboli obstructing the pulmonary arteries. The resulting physiological changes may include pulmonary hypertension with right ventricular failure and shock, dyspnoea with tachypnoea and hyperventilation, arterial hypoxaemia and pulmonary infarction. Consequent alveolar hyperventilation is manifested by a lowered pa(CO2). After occlusion of the pulmonary artery, areas of the lung are ventilated but not perfused, resulting in wasted ventilation with an increased ventilation/perfusion ratio – the physiological hallmark of PE – contributing to a further hyperventilatory state. The risk of blood clots is increased by cancer, prolonged bed rest, smoking, stroke, certain genetic conditions, oestrogen-based medication, pregnancy, obesity, and post surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      59.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 25 year old primi gravida lady was scheduled for a regular antenatal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old primi gravida lady was scheduled for a regular antenatal check up. During the vaginal exam of this lady, the registrar discovered a malignant growth on the anterior wall of her vagina. Which of the following structures, adjacent to the vagina, is likely to be involved as well?

      Your Answer: Rectovesical fascia

      Correct Answer: Fundus of the bladder

      Explanation:

      The fundus of the bladder is related anatomically to the anterior surface of the vagina and the urethra as well. If there was a malignant growth in the anterior surface of the vagina, then most likely the fundus of the bladder would be involved as well aspotentially the urethra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      222.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the:

      Your Answer: Central sulcus

      Correct Answer: Postcentral gyrus

      Explanation:

      The primary somatic sensory cortex is located in the postcentral gyrus and is the largest cortical receiving area for information from somatosensory receptors. Through corticocortical fibres, it then sends the information to other areas of the neocortex and further analysis takes place in the posterior parietal association cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      67.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - In which of the following compartments of the femoral sheath is the femoral...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following compartments of the femoral sheath is the femoral artery located?

      Your Answer: Medial compartment

      Correct Answer: Lateral compartment

      Explanation:

      The femoral sheath also known as the crural sheath is made up of three compartments; lateral, intermediate and the medial. The femoral artery is contained in the lateral compartment of the femoral sheath while the femoral vein is in the intermediate compartment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      60.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is the likely course of a pulmonary embolism arising from the leg...

    Incorrect

    • What is the likely course of a pulmonary embolism arising from the leg veins and ending in the apical segmental pulmonary artery that supplies the superior lobe of left lung?.

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava – right atrium – mitral valve – right ventricle – pulmonary trunk – left pulmonary artery – left superior lobar artery – left apical segmental artery

      Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava – right atrium – tricuspid valve – right ventricle – pulmonary trunk – left pulmonary artery – left superior lobar artery – left apical segmental artery

      Explanation:

      A clot originating in the leg vein will go to the inferior vena cava, into the right atrium, through the tricuspid valve, into the right ventricle, through the pulmonary trunk, into the left pulmonary artery, into the left superior lobar artery and then finally reach the left apical segmental artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      38.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A cell is classified on the basis of its regenerative ability. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A cell is classified on the basis of its regenerative ability. Which of the following cells represent a permanent cell?

      Your Answer: Osteocyte

      Correct Answer: Erythrocyte

      Explanation:

      An erythrocyte is the last cell in the progeny of RBC cell division and is not capable of further division and regeneration. Hepatocytes, osteocytes and epithelium of kidney tubules are all stable cells. Colonic mucosa and pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells are all labile cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Myoglobin is released as a result of rhabdomyolysis from damaged skeletal muscles. What...

    Correct

    • Myoglobin is released as a result of rhabdomyolysis from damaged skeletal muscles. What function do they perform in the muscle?

      Your Answer: Acts like haemoglobin and binds with O2

      Explanation:

      Myoglobin is a pigmented globular protein made up of 153 amino acids with a prosthetic group containing haem around which the apoprotein folds. It is the primary oxygen carrying protein of the muscles. The binding of oxygen to myoglobin is unaffected by the oxygen pressure as it has an instant tendency to bind given its hyperbolic oxygen curve. It releases oxygen at very low pO2 levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      121.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - If a 68-year-old man is diagnosed with a testicular seminoma that reaches the...

    Incorrect

    • If a 68-year-old man is diagnosed with a testicular seminoma that reaches the tunica albuginea and involves the tunica vaginalis, with retroperitoneal lymph nodes greater than 5cm, LDH 1.4 times the reference levels, β-hCG 4250 mIU/ml and AFP 780 ng/ml, what's the clinical stage in this case?

      Your Answer: Stage IIB

      Correct Answer: Stage IIC

      Explanation:

      According to the AJCC, the clinical staging for testicular seminoma is:
      Stage IA: T1 N0 M0 S0
      Stage IB: T2/3/4 N0 M0 S0
      Stage IC: any T N0 M0 S1/2/3
      Stage IIA: any T N1 M0 S0/1
      Stage IIB: any T N2 M0 S0/1
      Stage IIC: any T N3 M0 S0/1
      Stage IIIA: any T any N M1a S0/1
      Stage IIIB: any T any N M0/1a S2
      Stage IIIC: any T any N M1a/1b S3.
      The patient in this case has IIC stage

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      71.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Choose the most correct answer regarding the common peroneal nerve. ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the most correct answer regarding the common peroneal nerve.

      Your Answer: While part of the sciatic nerve, it innervates nothing in the posterior thigh

      Correct Answer: It gives rise to the nerve that supplies the anterior compartment leg muscles

      Explanation:

      The common peroneal nerve divides beneath the peroneus longus muscle and gives off articular and lateral sural cutaneous nerves which supply muscular branches to the muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg which are the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum, peroneus tertius and extensor hallucis longus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      64.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which nerve mediates the sensation to itch from the skin that is just...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve mediates the sensation to itch from the skin that is just over the base of the spine of your scapula?

      Your Answer: Ventral root of T1

      Correct Answer: Dorsal primary ramus of C7

      Explanation:

      The first branches off spinal nerves are called the dorsal and ventral rami. The dorsal rami mediate sensation of the skin over the back and motor supply to the true muscles of the back whilst the ventral rami gives sensation to the skin over the limbs and the skin that is over the ventral side of the trunk. It also gives motor supply to the skeletal muscles of the neck, the trunk and extremities. Hence, itchiness of the part of the skin that is over the spine of the scapula would be mediated by the primary ramus of C7. Accessory nerve doesn’t have any sensory innervation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Neurology
      42.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The otic ganglion receives its preganglionic sympathetic fibres from which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • The otic ganglion receives its preganglionic sympathetic fibres from which of the following nerves?

      Your Answer: Optic nerve

      Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The otic ganglion is a small (2–3 mm), oval shaped, flattened parasympathetic ganglion of a reddish-grey colour, located immediately below the foramen ovale in the infratemporal fossa and on the medial surface of the mandibular nerve. The preganglionic parasympathetic fibres originate in the inferior salivatory nucleus of the glossopharyngeal nerve. They leave the glossopharyngeal nerve by its tympanic branch and then pass via the tympanic plexus and the lesser petrosal nerve to the otic ganglion. Here, the fibres synapse, and the postganglionic fibres pass by communicating branches to the auriculotemporal nerve, which conveys them to the parotid gland. They produce vasodilator and secretomotor effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      117.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The dural venous sinuses are venous channels that drain blood from the brain....

    Correct

    • The dural venous sinuses are venous channels that drain blood from the brain. This sinuses are located between which structures?

      Your Answer: Meningeal and periosteal layers of the dura mater

      Explanation:

      The dural venous sinuses lies between the periosteal and meningeal layer of the dura mater. Dural venous sinuses is unique because it does not run parallel with arteries and allows bidirectional flow of blood intracranially as it is valve-less.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      49.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Inflammation & Immunology; Haematology (1/1) 100%
Pathology (5/9) 56%
Respiratory (2/3) 67%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Physiology (3/10) 30%
Neoplasia (2/2) 100%
General (1/3) 33%
Anatomy (3/11) 27%
Head & Neck (2/4) 50%
Thorax (0/2) 0%
Renal (0/2) 0%
Neurology (1/4) 25%
Women's Health (1/1) 100%
Pelvis (0/2) 0%
Inflammation & Immunology; Renal (0/1) 0%
Lower Limb (0/2) 0%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (0/1) 0%
Urology (0/1) 0%
Passmed