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Question 1
Incorrect
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A patient who is 36 weeks pregnant comes to see you as she has developed tingling to the right lateral thigh over the past 3 weeks. On examination there are no skin changes and no muscle weakness. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Obturator nerve entrapment
Correct Answer: Meralgia Paraesthetica
Explanation:Raised pressure with the pelvis can cause a number of nerve entrapment syndromes. This is entrapment of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh (or lateral femoral cutaneous nerve) also known as Meralgia Paraesthetica. Pregnancy is a risk factor. Shingles can effect this nerve but the rash would usually present itself within 14days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 2
Incorrect
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At the time of delivery, if there is a laceration of perineal body but not the anal sphincter, this type of laceration is classified as?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Second degree
Explanation:Perineal tears are common at the time of child birth. First degree perineal laceration means that the wound is so small that it doesn’t require any stitches and usually heals on its own. 2nd degree means that skin and smooth muscles are both torn. 3rd degree tear means that the tear is beyond the perineal muscles and the muscles surrounding the anal canal, while in 4th degree, the perineal tear goes through the anal sphincter up to the rectum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which two nerves provide the primary cutaneous sensory innervation to the labia majora?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal and pudendal
Explanation:The Pudendal provides cutaneous innervation to the posterior external genitalia via one of its terminal branches called the perineal nerve (this further branches into the posterior labial nerves or posterior scrotal nerve in men). The ilioinguinal nerve provides anterior sensation via the anterior labial nerves (anterior scrotal nerve in men). The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve contributes some fibres to the skin of the mons pubis and labia majora in females. The posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh sometimes overlaps sensory areas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true about the origin of the ovarian artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It arises from the Abdominal Aorta
Explanation:The ovarian arteries are considered the main blood supply for the ovaries. The ovarian arteries usually arise from the lateral aspect of the abdominal artery, though in some instances they may arise from the renal or iliac arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A patient undergoes surgery for a vaginal vault prolapse. After surgery she complains of numbness and groin pain. You assess her and find the numb area is the anterior aspect of the labia. Which nerve has likely been damaged during surgery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal
Explanation:This describes the sensory area supplied by the ilioinguinal nerve. This is a potential complication with pelvic surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is the anatomical landmark used for gauging the station of the fetal head during labour?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ischial Spine
Explanation:The ischial spines and palpable through the vagina and are used as landmarks to assess the decent of the fetal head from the cervix. It also serves as a landmark for giving the pudendal block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Regarding lymph drainage of the fallopian tubes where does the majority of lymph drain to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Para-aortic nodes
Explanation:Lymphatic vessels from the ovaries, joined by vessels from the uterine tubes and most from the fundus of the uterus, follow the ovarian veins as they ascend to the right and left lumbar (caval/aortic) lymph nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 10
Incorrect
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The arcuate line forms part of the border of the pelvic brim. Where is it located?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ilium
Explanation:The arcuate line is a smooth rounded border on the internal surface of the ilium just inferior to the iliac fossa. It forms the boundary of the pelvic inlet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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