-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
An elderly man complains of a vague lump near his stomach to his physician. On examination, the lump is visible on coughing and is found within Hesselbach's triangle.
Which of the following is true regarding the borders for this triangle?Your Answer: Inguinal ligament inferiorly, ASIS laterally, pubic tubercle medially
Correct Answer: Inguinal ligament inferiorly, inferior epigastric vessels laterally, lateral border of rectus sheath medially
Explanation:The inguinal triangle of Hesselbach is an important clinical landmark on the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. It has the following relations:
Inferiorly – medial third of the inguinal ligament
Medially – lower lateral border of the rectus abdominis
Laterally – inferior epigastric vesselsDirect inguinal hernia is when the bowel bulges directly through the abdominal wall. These hernias usually protrude through Hesselbach’s triangle
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 26-year-old doctor has recently been diagnosed with lung cancer. He would like to find out his survival time for the condition.
Which statistical method is used to predict survival rate?Your Answer: Kaplan-Meier estimator
Explanation:The Weibull distribution are used to describe various types of observed failures of the components. it is used in reliability and survival analysis.
Regression Analysis is used to measure the relationship between among two or more variable. It determines the effect of independent variables on the dependent variables.
Student t-test is one of the most commonly used method to test the hypothesis. It determines the significant difference between the means of two different groups.
A time series is a collection of observations of well-defined data obtained at regular interval of time.
Kaplan-Meier estimator is used to estimate the survival function from lifetime data. It can be derived from maximum likelihood estimation of hazard function. It is most likely used to measure the fraction of patient’s life for a certain amount of time after treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
Regarding the Manley MP3 ventilator, which statement is true?
Your Answer: Is a minute volume divider
Explanation:It’s a minute volume divider – True
The Manley MP3 ventilator is classed as a minute volume divider. The entire fresh gas flow or minute volume is delivered to the patient, having been divided into readily set tidal volumes.Can efficiently ventilate patients with poor pulmonary compliance – False
Ventilating patients with poor pulmonary compliance is not easily achieved, which makes it an unsuitable ventilator for a modern ICU.Can generate tidal volume up to 1500ml – False
It can generate tidal volumes up to 1000 ml (not 1500 ml), and the inflation pressure can be adjusted by sliding a weight along a rail.Functions like a Mapleson A system during spontaneous ventilation – False
The ventilator functions like a Mapleson D breathing system (not Mapleson A) during spontaneous ventilation.Has three sets of bellows – False
The fresh gas flow drives the ventilator which allows rapid detection of gas supply failure. It has two sets of bellows (not three) and three unidirectional valves. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
Which of the following best describes the phenomenon of higher partial pressures of oxygen in the alveoli (PAO2) in the lung apices when in the upright position?
Your Answer: Apical units are less well perfused than the basal units
Correct Answer: The ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) ratio is greater than in the basal units
Explanation:The ventilation/perfusion ratio varies in different areas of the lung. In an upright individual, although both ventilation and perfusion increase from the apex to the base of the lung, the increase in ventilation is less than the increase in blood flow. As a result, the normal V̇ /Q̇ ratio at the apex of the lung is much greater than 1 (ventilation exceeds perfusion), whereas the V̇ /Q̇ ratio at the base of the lung is much less than 1 (perfusion exceeds ventilation).
There is more volume in the alveoli found in the apices than in the bases of the lungs. This is due to the weight of the lung stretching the apical alveoli to the maximum size. Also, the weight of the lungs pull themselves away from the chest wall, creating a negative intrapleural pressure. These factors, however, do not directly affect the PAO2.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 27-year-old woman arrives at the emergency room after intentionally ingesting 2 g of amitriptyline.
A Glasgow coma score of 6 was discovered, as well as a pulse rate of 140 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg.
Which of the following ECG changes is most likely to indicate the onset of life-threatening arrhythmias?Your Answer: Prolongation of the QRS complex
Explanation:Arrhythmias and/or hypotension are the most common causes of death from tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose.
The quinidine-like actions of tricyclic antidepressants on cardiac tissues are primarily responsible for their toxicity. Conduction through the His-Purkinje system and the myocardium slows as phase 0 depolarisation of the action potential slows. QRS prolongation and atrioventricular block are caused by slowed impulse conduction, which also contributes to ventricular arrhythmias and hypotension.
Arrhythmias can also be caused by abnormal repolarization, impaired automaticity, cholinergic blockade, and inhibition of neuronal catecholamine uptake, among other things.
Acidaemia, hypotension, and hyperthermia can all exacerbate toxicity.
The anticholinergic effects of tricyclic antidepressants, as well as the blockade of neuronal catecholamine reuptake, cause sinus tachycardia. Sinus tachycardia is usually well tolerated and does not require treatment. It can be difficult to tell the difference between sinus tachycardia and ventricular tachycardia with QRS prolongation.
A QRS duration of more than 100 milliseconds indicates a higher risk of arrhythmia and should be treated with systemic sodium bicarbonate.
The tricyclic is dissociated from myocardial sodium channels by serum alkalinization, and the extracellular sodium load improves sodium channel function.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
The typical fluid compartments in a normal 70kg male are:
Your Answer: intracellular>extracellular
Explanation:Body fluid compartments in a 70kg male:
Total volume=42L (60% body weight)
Intracellular fluid compartment (ICF) =28L
Extracellular fluid compartment (ECF) = 14LECF comprises:
Intravascular fluid (plasma) = 3L
Extravascular fluid = 11LExtravascular fluids comprises:
Interstitial fluid = 10.5L
Transcellular fluid = 0.5L -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
Regarding the anatomical relations of the scalenus muscles, which of these is true?
Your Answer: The trunks of the brachial plexus emerge from the lateral border of scalenus anterior
Explanation:The ascending cervical artery lies media the phrenic nerve on scalenus anterior and can easily be mistaken for the phrenic nerve at operation.
The phrenic nerve passes across scalenus anterior and medius inferiorly.
The subclavian artery is separated from the vein by the scalenus anterior.
The brachiocephalic vein is formed at the medial border of scalenus anterior by the subclavian vein and the internal jugular vein.
Emerging from the lateral border of scalenus anterior are the trunks of the brachial plexus .
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
Concerning the physical principles of temperature measurement by a thermocouple, which of the following best describes it?
Your Answer: The semiconductor at the measuring end has a junction potential that is proportional to temperature
Correct Answer: The bimetallic strip has a junction potential proportional to temperature
Explanation:A thermocouple, or a thermal junction, is temperature measuring device consisting of a pair of dissimilar metal (bimetallic) wires or strips joined together. Typically, copper and constantan (an alloy of 55% copper and 45% nickel) are used. When there is contact between these metals, a small voltage is generated in the order of millivolts. The magnitude of the thermojunction electromotive force (emf) is proportional to applied temperature (the Seebeck effect). This physical principle is applied in the measurement of temperature. The electromotive force at the measuring junction is proportional to temperature.
Two wires with different coefficients of expansion, joined together, can be used as a switch for thermostatic control.
Semiconductors are NOT used in thermocouple. The resistance of the measuring junction of a thermocouple is irrelevant.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
What is factually correct regarding correlation and regression?
Your Answer: Regression allows one variable to be predicted from another variable
Explanation:Linear regression, using a technique called curve fitting, allows us to make predictions regarding a certain variable.
Correlation coefficient gives us an idea whether or not the two parameters provide have any relation of some sort or not i.e. does change in one prompt any change in other?
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
The Medical Admissions unit receives a 71-year-old woman. She has type 2 diabetes, which she manages with diet, but she has been feeling ill for the past 48 hours.
Her pulse rate is 110 beats per minute, her blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg, and she is clinically dehydrated. Her respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute, and chest auscultation reveals no focal signs.
The following are the lab results:
Glucose 27.4 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
Ketones 2.5 mmol/L (<0.1)
Urinary glucose is zero (dipstick) with ketones
A random blood glucose of 15.3 mmol/L was measured during a visit to the diabetic clinic one month prior to admission, according to her notes, and a urinary dipstick registered a high glucose and ketones++.
The discrepancy between plasma and urinary glucose measurements is best explained by which of the following physiological mechanisms?Your Answer: The glucose transport maximum (Tm) is abnormally high
Correct Answer: The glomerular filtration rate is abnormally low
Explanation:The glucose molecule enters the Bowman’s capsule freely and becomes part of the filtrate.
All glucose is reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule when blood glucose concentrations are below a certain threshold (approximately 11 mmol/L) (PCT). Active transportation makes this possible. In the proximal tubular cells, sodium/glucose cotransporters (SGLT1 and SGLT2) are the proteins responsible.
Glucose does not normally appear in the urine below the renal threshold.
The renal glucose threshold is not set in stone and is affected by a variety of factors, including GFR, TmG, and the quantity of splay.
The different absorptive and filtering capacities of individual nephrons cause splay, which is the rounding of a glucose reabsorption curve.
The SGLT proteins have a high affinity for glucose, but not an infinite affinity. As a result, some glucose may escape reabsorption before the TmG. A decrease in renal threshold may be caused by an increase in splay.
Because the filtered glucose load is reduced and the PCT can reabsorb all of the filtered glucose despite hyperglycaemia, a low GFR causes an increase in TmG. In contrast, lowering the TmG lowers the threshold because the tubules’ ability to reabsorb glucose is reduced.
A reduction in GFR caused by severe dehydration and reduced perfusion pressure is the most obvious cause of the discrepancy between plasma and urinary glucose in this scenario.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
Which compound is secreted only from the adrenal medulla?
Your Answer: Adrenaline
Explanation:The adrenal medulla comprises chromaffin cells (pheochromocytes), which are functionally equivalent to postganglionic sympathetic neurons. They synthesize, store and release the catecholamines noradrenaline (norepinephrine) and adrenaline (epinephrine) into the venous sinusoids.
The majority of the chromaffin cells synthesize adrenaline. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A 25-year old male with palpitations and dizziness presents to the emergency room. In the triage process, cardiac monitoring shows supraventricular tachycardia with a heart rate of 200 beats per minute. This high heart rate arises as a result of different specialised cells and nerve fibres in the heart which are responsible for conducting that action potential which is generated in the event of systole.
The fastest conduction velocity is carried out by which of the following?Your Answer: Purkinje fibres
Explanation:The correct answer is the Purkinje fibres, which conducts at a velocity of about 4m/sec.
The electrical conduction system of the heart starts with the SA node which generates spontaneous action potentials.
This is conducted across both atria by cell to cell conduction, and occurs at around 1 m/s. The only pathway for the action potential to enter the ventricles is through the AV node in a normal heart.
At this site, conduction is very slow at 0.05ms, which allows for the atria to completely contract and fill the ventricles with blood before the ventricles depolarise and contract.The action potentials are conducted through the Bundle of His from the AV node which then splits into the left and right bundle branches. This conduction is very fast, (,2m/s), and brings the action potential to the Purkinje fibres.
Purkinje fibres are specialised conducting cells which allow for a faster conduction speed of the action potential (,2-4m/s). This allows for a strong synchronized contraction from the ventricle and thus efficient generation of pressure in systole.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
Regarding the use of soda lime as part of a modern circle system with a vaporiser outside the circuit (VOC), which of the following is its most deleterious consequence?
Your Answer: Compound A formation
Correct Answer: Carbon monoxide formation
Explanation:When using dry soda lime for VOCs, very high amounts of carbon monoxide may be produced, regardless of the inhalational anaesthetic agent used. The carbon monoxide produced is sufficient enough to cause cytotoxic and anaemic hypoxia. To prevent this, soda lime canisters are shaken well to even out the packing of granules. This can help to evenly distribute gas flow for proper CO2 absorption and ventilation.
Compound A is formed when dry soda lime, or soda lime in high temperature, reacts with the inhalational anaesthetic Sevoflurane. Animal studies have shown renal toxicity in rats, but renal adverse effects in humans are yet to be observed.
When monitors are not employed with VOCs, deleterious effects are not for certain. However, monitors not employed with vaporiser inside the circuit (VIC) can lead to significant adverse events.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
Levels of serum potassium in around 1000 patients that were on ACE inhibitor were measured. The mean value was calculated to be 4.6mmol/L and a standard deviation of 0.3mmol/L was recorded.
Which among the given options is correct?Your Answer: 68.3% of values lie between 4.3 and 4.9 mmol/l
Explanation:Its known that 68.3% of the total values of a normally distributed variable are found within a range of 1 standard deviation from the mean which makes the range to be 4.3 to 4.9 mmol/L.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
Post thyroidectomy, a 50-year-old male singer noticed some hoarseness in his voice. Now, he presents to his general physician as it has been the same for the past few weeks.
A complication is noted in the post-thyroidectomy report regarding an injury to the external laryngeal nerve.
Which muscle has been affected due to loss of innervation by the damaged nerve, and whose improper functioning can lead to hoarseness in the patient's voice?Your Answer: Cricothyroid
Explanation:All of the muscles of the larynx are innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve, except the cricothyroid muscle.
Cricothyroid muscle is located deep in the anterior neck, between the cricoid and thyroid cartilage and is innervated by the external laryngeal nerve. Any injury to this muscle can cause paralysis and lead to hoarseness. When cricothyroid muscle contracts, it leads to tightening, stretching and thinning of the vocal folds. This produces higher-pitched sounds during vocalization.
A patient experiencing hoarseness due to possible injury to the external laryngeal nerve should be reassured that the hoarseness will resolve in time due to increased compensation from the other muscles.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
In a study lasting over a period of two years, in which the mean age of 800 patients was 82 years, the efficacy of hip protectors in reducing femoral neck fractures was discussed.
Both experimental and control group had 400 members. Instances of fractures reported over the two year time duration were 10 for the control group (that were prescribed hip protector) and 20 for the control group.
What is the value of Absolute Risk Reduction?Your Answer: 0.025
Explanation:ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)
So,
ARR= (10/400)-(20/400)
ARR= 0.025-0.05
ARR= 0.025 (Numerical Value)
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
Which of the following statements is true regarding vecuronium?
Your Answer: Has a similar structure to rocuronium
Explanation:Vecuronium is used as a part of general anaesthesia to provide skeletal muscle relaxation during surgery or mechanical ventilation. It is a monoquaternary aminosteroid (not quaternary) non- depolarising neuromuscular blocking drug.
It has a structure similar to both rocuronium and pancuronium. The only difference is the substitution of specific groups on the steroid structure.
Vecuronium is not associated with the release of norepinephrine from sympathetic nerve endings. However, Pancuronium has norepinephrine releasing the property.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
A 21-year-old female was brought to the Emergency department with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
On clinical examination, the following were the findings:
Pulse: 120 beats per minute
BP: 120/95 mmHg
Respiratory rate: 22 breaths per minute
Capillary refill time: three seconds
Cool peripheries.
Which of the following best describes the cause for this clinical finding?Your Answer: Reduction in blood volume of 15-30%
Explanation:Classification of hemorrhagic shock according to Advanced Trauma Life Support is as follows:
– Class I haemorrhage (blood loss up to 15%) in which there is no change in blood pressure, RR, or pulse pressure.
– Class II haemorrhage (15-30% blood volume loss) where there is tachycardia, tachypnoea, and a decrease in pulse pressure.
– Class III haemorrhage (30-40% blood volume loss) where clinical signs of inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, significant changes in mental state, and measurable fall in systolic pressure is seen. It almost always requires a blood transfusion.
– Class IV haemorrhage (> 40% blood volume loss) in which marked tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and very narrow pulse pressure, and markedly depressed mental state with cold and pale skin are seen.
Loss of >50% results in loss of consciousness, pulse, and blood pressure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old man has been stabbed in an area of the groin that contains the femoral triangle. He will undergo explorative surgery.
Which of the following makes the lateral wall of the femoral triangle?Your Answer: Adductor magnus
Correct Answer: Sartorius
Explanation:The femoral triangle is a wedge-shaped area found within the superomedial aspect of the anterior thigh. It is a passageway for structures to leave and enter the anterior thigh.
Superior: Inguinal ligament
Medial: Adductor longus
Lateral: Sartorius
Floor: Iliopsoas, adductor longus and pectineusThe contents include: (medial to lateral)
Femoral vein
Femoral artery-pulse palpated at the mid inguinal point
Femoral nerve
Deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes
Lateral cutaneous nerve
Great saphenous vein
Femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A 72-year old man has presented to the emergency room with sweating, nausea, chest pain, and an ECG that shows ST elevation. The ST segment of the ECG corresponds to a period of slow calcium influx in the cardiac action potential.
This equates to which phase in the cardiac action potential?Your Answer: Phase 2
Explanation:Understanding of the cardiac action potential helps with the understanding of the ECG which measures the electrical activity of the heart. This is reflected in its waveform.
The rapid depolarisation phase is reflected in the QRS complex. After this phase comes the plateau phase which is represented by the ST segment. Lastly, the T wave shows repolarisation, phase 3.The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few msPhase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.
Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium. (ST segment)
Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium. (T wave)
Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potentialOf note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.
Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec
3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effects of Dopamine in CNS?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Most of the administered dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals
Explanation:Nausea and vomiting occur commonly due to Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CTZ) stimulation by dopamine (Domperidone but not metoclopramide can be used for the treatment of this vomiting)
Dopamine itself cannot cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB) but its precursor levodopa can cross BBB.
Dopamine can modulate extrapyramidal symptoms like acute dyskinesia, tardive dyskinesia, Parkinsonism, and Neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
Dopamine inhibits the secretion of prolactin from the pituitary gland.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
The immediate physiological response to massive perioperative blood loss is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stimulation of baroreceptors in carotid sinus and aortic arch
Explanation:With regards to compensatory response to blood loss, the following sequence of events take place:
1. Decrease in venous return, right atrial pressure and cardiac output
2. Baroreceptor reflexes (carotid sinus and aortic arch) are immediately activated
3. There is decreased afferent input to the cardiovascular centre in medulla. This inhibits parasympathetic reflexes and increases sympathetic response
4. This results in an increased cardiac output and increased SVR by direct sympathetic stimulation. There is increased circulating catecholamines and local tissue mediators (adenosine, potassium, NO2)
5. Fluid moves into the intravascular space as a result of decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure absorbing interstitial fluid.A slower response is mounted by the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis.
6. Reduced renal blood flow is sensed by the intra renal baroreceptors and this stimulates release of renin by the juxta-glomerular apparatus.
7. There is cleavage of circulating Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I, which is converted to Angiotensin II in the lungs (by Angiotensin Converting Enzyme ACE)Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor that sets off other endocrine pathways.
8. The adrenal cortex releases Aldosterone
9. There is antidiuretic hormone release from posterior pituitary (also in response to hypovolaemia being sensed by atrial stretch receptors)
10. This leads to sodium and water retention in the distal convoluted renal tubule to conserve fluid
Fluid conservation is also aided by an increased amount of cortisol which is secreted in response to the increase in circulating catecholamines and sympathetic stimulation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 56-year old man, presents to emergency department following a cardiac arrest. On history and examination, he is found to be suffering from both metabolic and respiratory acidosis as a result of his cardiac arrest.
What is the best way to reduce the risk of acidaemia during cardiac arrestYour Answer:
Correct Answer: Chest compressions
Explanation:Chest compressions are an essential part of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) which helps restore spontaneous circulation (ROSC).
Sodium bicarbonate is only prescribed in patients with cardiac arrests as a result of an overdose of tricyclic antidepressants or hyperkalaemia. Its use causes the body to produce more CO2 which causes:
Exacerbation of intracellular acidosis
Negative inotropy to ischaemic myocardium
Increased osmotic load of sodium into failing brain and body
Shift of oxygen dissociation curve to the left.THAM is often used to treat metabolic acidosis as a result of cardiac bypass surgery and also cardiac arrest, when other standard methods have failed.
Carbicarb (Na2CO3 0.33 molar NaHCO3 0.33 molar) has only mild effects on acidosis. It also causes an increase in arterial CO2 pressure and lactate concentration.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A laser is a device that stimulates atoms or molecules to emit light at particular wavelengths and amplifies that light, typically producing a very narrow beam of radiation. This can be of visible, infrared, or ultraviolet wavelengths. They have been widely utilized in theatre environment.
Which of the following safety measures is most likely to reduce chances of eye injury to the theatre personnel?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wearing laser protective goggles
Explanation:Eye damage is the most common potential hazard associated with laser energy. Everyone in the laser treatment room has the risk of eye exposure when working with a Class 3b or Class 4 healthcare laser system, and damage to various structures in the eye depending on wavelength of the laser if they are unprotected.
Red and near-infrared light (400-1400 nm) has very high penetration power. The light causes painless burns on the retina after it is absorbed by melanin in the pigment epithelium just behind the photoreceptors.
Infrared radiation (IR), or infrared light (>1060 nm), is a type of radiant energy that’s invisible to human eyes and hence won’t elicit the protective blink.
Ultraviolet light (<400 nm) is also a form of electromagnetic radiation which is can penetrate the cornea and be absorbed by the iris or the pupil and cause burn injuries or cataract occur due to irreversible photochemical retinal damage. Safety eyewear is the best method of providing eye protection and are designed to absorb light specific to the laser being used. Laser protective eyewear (LPE) includes glasses or goggles of proper optical density (OD). The lenses should not be glass or plastic. The LPE should withstand direct and diffuse scattered laser beams. The laser protection supervisor (LPS) or LSO is an individual who is responsible for any clinical area in which lasers are used. They are expected to have a certain level of equipment and determine what control measures are appropriate, for each individual system, but their presence does not guarantee the chances of having an eye injury. Class 1 lasers are generally safe under every conceivable condition and is not likely to cause any eye damage. Class 3b or Class 4 medical laser systems are utilized in healthcare which have their own safety precautions. Polarized spectacles can make your eyes more comfortable by eliminated glare, however, they will not be able to offer any protection against wavelengths at which laser act.
Using short bursts to reduce energy is also not correct as it would still be harmful to eye. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
Suppose a diabetic patient is to undergo an elective surgery under general anaesthesia, which of the following will most effectively prevent a hyperglycaemic stress response during the surgical procedure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spinal block to T4
Explanation:Every surgical procedure is associated with a stress response which comprises a number of endocrine, metabolic, and immunological changes triggered by neuronal activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis. The overall metabolic effect of the stress response to surgery includes an increase in secretion of catabolic hormones, such as cortisol and catecholamine, and a decrease in secretion of anabolic hormones, such as insulin and testosterone. The increase in levels of catabolic hormones in plasma stimulates glucose production, and there is a relative lack of insulin together with impaired tissue insulin sensitivity and glucose utilization, which is called insulin resistance. Consequently, blood glucose concentrations will increase, even in the absence of pre-existing diabetes.
A study compared the effects of spinal and general anaesthesia on changes in blood glucose concentrations during surgery in nondiabetic patients. Although mean blood glucose concentrations showed a significant proportional increase during surgery in both groups, this effect was much more significant with general anaesthesia than with spinal anaesthesia. These results indicate that spinal anaesthesia is more effective than general anaesthesia in attenuating the hyperglycaemic response to surgery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
Which statement is correct concerning breathing systems?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The reservoir bag can limit the pressure in the breathing system to about 40 cm of water
Explanation:Mapleson classified breathing systems into A, B, C, D and E. Jackson-Rees subsequently modified the Mapleson E by adding a double-ended bag to the end of the reservoir tubing, creating the Mapleson F. A Mapleson E or T-piece does not have a reservoir bag.
A Mapleson A system is a very efficient system for use during spontaneous ventilation. However, it is not suitable for use with patients less than 25 kg, due to the increased dead space at the distal / patient end. This system can be modified into a Lack system or coaxial Mapleson A, where the fresh gas flows through an outer tube (30 mm) and exhaled gases flow through the inner tube (14 mm).
The adjustable pressure limiting valve (APL) or expiratory valve allows exhaled gas and excess fresh gas to leave the breathing system. It is a one-way, adjustable spring-loaded valve, and gases escape when the pressure in the system exceeds the valve opening pressure. During spontaneous ventilation a pressure of less than 1 cm of water (0.1 kPa) is needed when the valve is in the open position (not 2 cm of H2O).
The reservoir bag is highly compliant and when over inflated, the rubber bag can limit the pressure in the system to about 40 cm of H2O.
This is due to the law of Laplace, which states that the pressure will fall as the radius of the bag increases:
Pressure = 2 x tension/radius.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
Obeying Boyle's law and Charles's law is a characteristic feature of an ideal gas.
The gas which is most ideal out of the following options is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Helium
Explanation:The ideal gas equation makes the following assumptions:
The gas particles have a small volume in comparison to the volume occupied by the gas.
Between the gas particles, there are no forces of interaction.
Individual gas particle collisions, as well as gas particle collisions with container walls, are elastic, meaning momentum is conserved.
PV = nRT
Where:P = pressure
V = volume
n = moles of gas
T = temperature
R = universal gas constantHelium is a monoatomic gas with a small helium atom. The attractive forces between helium atoms are small because the helium atom is spherical and has no dipole moment. Because helium atoms are spherical, collisions between them approach the ideal state of elasticity.
Most real gases behave qualitatively like ideal gases at standard temperatures and pressures. When intermolecular forces and molecular size become important, the ideal gas model tends to fail at lower temperatures or higher pressures. It also fails to work with the majority of heavy gases.
Helium, argon, neon, and xenon are noble or inert gases that behave the most like an ideal gas. Xenon is a noble gas with a much larger atomic size than helium.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A delayed hypersensitivity reaction is type ____?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV
Explanation:Type I – immediate hypersensitivity reaction
Examples are: Atopy, urticaria, Anaphylaxis, Asthma( IgE mediated).
Type II – Antibody mediated cytotoxic reaction
Examples are: Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, Thrombocytopenia( IgM or IgG mediated).
Type III – Immune complex mediated reaction
Examples are: Serum sickness,SLE – IgG., Farmers lungs, rheumatoid arthritis
Type IV – Delayed hypersensitivity reaction
Examples are: Contact dermatitis, drug allergies.
Type V – Autoimmune
Graves’
Myasthenia – IgM or IgG. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 72-year old man is experiencing a cardiac risk evaluation for the management of obstructive umbilical hernia. Echocardiogram demonstrates an aortic valve area=0.59cm with a pressure of 70mmHg. Five years ago, he had mild myocardial infarction complicated with pulmonary oedema. Now he encounters angina with little exertion.
Which of the following factor is the foremost profoundly weighted using Deysky's cardiac risk scoring system in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Detsky’s Modified cardiac risk classification system in patients undergoing non-cardiac surgery:
Age more than 70: 05 points
History of myocardial infarction:
Less than 6 months: 10 points
More than 6 months: 5 pointsAngina Pectoris:
Angina with minimal exertion: 10 points
Angina at any level of exertion: 20 points
Pulmonary Oedema:
Within 7 days: 10 points
At any time: 5 pointsSuspected aortic valve stenosis with valve area <0.6cm2: 20 points Arrhythmia: Any rhythm other than sinus or sinus with premature atrial complexes (PACs): 5 points More than 5 premature ventricular contractions: 5 points
Emergency Surgery: 10 points
Deficient general medical condition: 5 pointsRisk classification:
Grade I: 0-15 points = low risk
Grade II: 15-30 points = moderate risk
Grade III: >30 points = high risk -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
Blood pressure monitoring is a requirement for in-patient care. Different factors can result in an inaccurate blood pressure reading, including the damping of an arterial waveform.
How does a damped arterial waveform affect blood pressure measurements?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The systolic pressure is lower and the diastolic pressure higher with the same mean
Explanation:Damping is the reduction of energy in a system achieved by reducing the amplitude of oscillations. It is necessary to some degree to prevent wave overshoots.
Critical damping usually causes the system to be slow, so optimal damping is normally applied to provide a balance between speed and distortion.
Damping can cause errors if excessive (overdamping) or inadequate (Underdamping). The amount of damping in a system can be determined using the damping coefficient (D), where:
Undamped: 0
Critically damped: 1
Optimally damped: 0.64An overdamped system will cause an artificial decrease in the systolic blood pressure, and an artificial increase in the diastolic blood pressure.
An underdamped system will cause an artificial increase in systolic blood pressure and an artificial decrease in diastolic blood pressure.
Damping can be caused by a number of factors affecting different parts of the system, including:
The tubing/cannula: The presence of air bubbles, increased blood viscosity or formation of blood clots.
The diaphragm/tubing: Increased malleability/compliance
The tubing: Presence of kinks, narrowing or too many ports of injection.The answer here is a damped system will have a low systolic pressure, a high diastolic pressure with a normal mean pressure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)