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  • Question 1 - During an inguinal hernia repair, an incision is made parallel to and 5cm...

    Correct

    • During an inguinal hernia repair, an incision is made parallel to and 5cm above the inguinal ligament. The registrar is warned to look out for the inferior epigastric vessels to avoid damage. Between which layers of the abdominal wall is the registrar likely to find these vessels?

      Your Answer: Transversus abdominis muscle and peritoneum

      Explanation:

      The inferior epigastric vessels lie on the inner surface of the transversus abdominis muscle covered by the parietal peritoneum. This layer of peritoneum lies over the inferior epigastric vessels to make the lateral umbilical fold. Camper’s and Scarpa’s fascia are two layers of the superficial fascia, the fatty layer and the membranous layer respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 47-year old-woman diagnosed with pancreatitis presented to the emergency department complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 47-year old-woman diagnosed with pancreatitis presented to the emergency department complaining of a worsening shortness of breath, fever, agitation and cough. Oxygen saturation was 67% in room air. Her respiratory status continued to deteriorate therefore she was intubated. She was admitted to the intensive care unit for management. Chest X-ray demonstrated bilateral perihilar opacities. The patient failed conventional treatment and died several days later. At autopsy, the lung shows growth of type 2 pneumocytes and thickened alveolar walls. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adult respiratory distress syndrome

      Explanation:

      Acute (or adult) respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a life-threatening lung condition characterised by a non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema that leads to acute respiratory failure. The most common risk factors for ARDS include trauma with direct lung injury, sepsis, pneumonia, pancreatitis, burns, drug overdose, massive blood transfusion and shock. Acute onset of dyspnoea with hypoxemia, anxiety and agitation is typical. Chest X ray most commonly demonstrates bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. Histological changes include the exudative, proliferative and fibrotic phase. ARDS is mainly a clinical diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What Is the mechanism behind rhesus incompatibility in a new born baby? ...

    Correct

    • What Is the mechanism behind rhesus incompatibility in a new born baby?

      Your Answer: Type II hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      In type II hypersensitivity the antibodies that are produced by the immune response bind to the patients own cell surface antigens. These antigens can be intrinsic or extrinsic. Destruction occurs due to antibody dependent cell mediated antibodies. Antibodies bind to the cell and opsonise the cell, activating phagocytes to destroy that cell e.g. autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, Goodpasture syndrome, erythroblastosis fetalis, pernicious anaemia, Graves’ disease, Myasthenia gravis and haemolytic disease of the new-born.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Haematology
      • Pathology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Choose the most correct answer regarding the obturator internus muscle. ...

    Correct

    • Choose the most correct answer regarding the obturator internus muscle.

      Your Answer: It emerges from the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen

      Explanation:

      The obturator internus arises from the inner surface of the anterolateral wall of the pelvis and the pelvic surface of the obturator membrane. The fibres converge rapidly towards the lesser sciatic foramen and end in four or five tendinous bands and leave the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by which microbe in adults? ...

    Correct

    • Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by which microbe in adults?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by S. aureus in all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A medical intern wanting to perform her first thoracentesis (remove fluid from the...

    Correct

    • A medical intern wanting to perform her first thoracentesis (remove fluid from the pleural cavity) wishes to be reminded where to insert the needle to aspirate in order to avoid injuring the lung or neurovascular elements. Where is this place?

      Your Answer: The bottom of interspace 9 in the midaxillary line

      Explanation:

      Thoracentesis is performed in the costodiaphragmatic recess. The needle needs to be inserted below the level of the lungs to avoid injury to the lungs. At the paravertebral line, is between ribs 10 and 12, at the midaxillary line between ribs 8 and 10 and at the midclavicular line between interspaces 6 and 8. The needle should be inserted at the top of the rib (or the bottom of the interspace) to avoid damage to the neurovascular structures found below the rib running in the costal groove.

      The recommended location for the needle insertion varies depending upon the source. It is critical that the patient hold his or her breath to avoid piercing of the lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Vincristine is a chemotherapy agent used to treat a number of types of...

    Correct

    • Vincristine is a chemotherapy agent used to treat a number of types of cancer. Which of the following is a recognised major side-effect of vincristine?

      Your Answer: Peripheral neuropathy

      Explanation:

      Vincristine is an alkaloid chemotherapeutic agent. It is used to treat a number of types of cancer including acute lymphocytic leukaemia, acute myeloid leukaemia, Hodgkin’s disease, neuroblastoma, and small cell lung cancer among others. The main side-effects of vincristine are peripheral neuropathy and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A patient presented with continuous bleeding several hours after dental extraction. Which of...

    Correct

    • A patient presented with continuous bleeding several hours after dental extraction. Which of the following findings is most often associated with clinical bleeding?

      Your Answer: Factor IX deficiency

      Explanation:

      Factor IX deficiency, also called Haemophilia B or Christmas disease, is a disorder caused by missing or defective clotting factor IX. Deficiency of the factor IX causes irregular bleeding that can happen spontaneously or after mild trauma, surgery and dental extractions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which nerve mediates the sensation to itch from the skin that is just...

    Correct

    • Which nerve mediates the sensation to itch from the skin that is just over the base of the spine of your scapula?

      Your Answer: Dorsal primary ramus of C7

      Explanation:

      The first branches off spinal nerves are called the dorsal and ventral rami. The dorsal rami mediate sensation of the skin over the back and motor supply to the true muscles of the back whilst the ventral rami gives sensation to the skin over the limbs and the skin that is over the ventral side of the trunk. It also gives motor supply to the skeletal muscles of the neck, the trunk and extremities. Hence, itchiness of the part of the skin that is over the spine of the scapula would be mediated by the primary ramus of C7. Accessory nerve doesn’t have any sensory innervation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Neurology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - If the blood flow is constant, oxygen extraction by tissues will show the...

    Correct

    • If the blood flow is constant, oxygen extraction by tissues will show the greatest decrease due to which of the following interventions?

      Your Answer: Tissue cooling

      Explanation:

      With a constant blood flow to a given tissue bed, there will be an increase in oxygen extraction by the tissue with the following; an increase in tissue metabolism and oxygen requirements: warming (or fever), exercise, catecholamines and thyroxine. With cooling, the demand for oxygen decreases, leading to decreased oxygen extraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following is a fact worth noting about the development of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a fact worth noting about the development of the spleen?

      Your Answer: It develops in the ventral mesogastrium

      Correct Answer: It develops in the dorsal mesogastrium

      Explanation:

      The spleen in the human embryo arises in week 5 of intrauterine life. It appears as a proliferating mesenchyme above the pancreas. The spleen is one the organs that develops in the dorsal mesogastrium. When the stomach changes its position during development, the spleen is made to move behind the stomach and stays in contact with the left kidney. The spleen is found within the peritoneum of the abdominal cavity thus it is an intraperitoneal organ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - During a car accident, the side mirror shattered and a broken piece of...

    Correct

    • During a car accident, the side mirror shattered and a broken piece of glass severed the posterolateral aspect of the driver's neck. A physical examination reveals that the driver is unable to elevate the tip of his shoulder on the side that was injured. Which nerve was injured?

      Your Answer: Accessory

      Explanation:

      The tip of the shoulder is formed by the acromion of the scapula. This part is moved by the trapezius muscle which is innervated by the accessory nerve. Damage to this nerve therefore will prevent the patient from lifting the tip of the shoulder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count =...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count = 4. 0 × 106/μl, haematocrit = 27% and haemoglobin = 11 g/dl, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) = 90 fl, mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) = 41 g/dl. Further examination of blood sample revealed increased osmotic fragility of the erythrocytes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s findings?

      Your Answer: Spherocytosis

      Explanation:

      Spherocytes are small rounded RBCs. It is due to an inherited defect of the RBC cytoskeleton membrane tethering proteins. Membrane blebs form that are lost over time and cells become round instead of biconcave. As it is a normochromic anaemia, the MCV is normal. it is diagnosed by osmotic fragility test which reveals increased fragility in a hypotonic solution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - During a clinical rotation in the ENT clinic, you observe a flexible bronchoscopy....

    Correct

    • During a clinical rotation in the ENT clinic, you observe a flexible bronchoscopy. As the scope is passed down the trachea, you see a cartilaginous structure that resembles a ship's keel and separates the right and the left main stem bronchi. This structure is the:

      Your Answer: Carina

      Explanation:

      The carina (a keel-like cartilage) is found at the bifurcation of the trachea separating the right from the left main stem bronchi. It is a little more to the left than to the right.

      The cricoid cartilage is the inferior and posterior cartilage of the larynx.

      The costal cartilage on the other hand elongates the ribs anteriorly and contribute to the elasticity of the thoracic cage.

      The pulmonary ligament is a fold of pleura located below the root of the lung.

      Tracheal rings are rings of cartilage that support the trachea.

      Peritracheal fascia is a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea from the outside and is not visible on bronchoscopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 60 year old female patient who has suffered an embolic stroke that...

    Correct

    • A 60 year old female patient who has suffered an embolic stroke that affected her middle cerebral artery as revealed by a CT scan is likely to exhibit which of the following neurologic conditions?

      Your Answer: Contralateral hemiplegia

      Explanation:

      The middle cerebral artery is a major artery that supplies blood to the cerebrum. It continues from the internal carotid artery up into the lateral sulcus. The middle cerebral artery mainly supplies the lateral aspect of the cerebral cortex, anterior aspect of the temporal lobes and the insular cortices.

      Functional areas supplied by this vein are as follows:

      The motor and pre-motor areas

      The somato-sensory

      Auditory areas

      Motor speech

      Sensory speech

      Pre-frontal area

      Occlusion of the middle cerebral artery results in:

      i) A severe contralateral hemiplegia, most marked in the upper extremity and face

      ii) A contralateral sensory impairment worse in the upper part of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 60-year old man with a left-sided indirect inguinal hernia underwent emergency surgery...

    Correct

    • A 60-year old man with a left-sided indirect inguinal hernia underwent emergency surgery to relieve large bowel obstruction resulting from a segment of the bowel being strangulated in the hernial sac. The most likely intestinal segment involved is:

      Your Answer: Sigmoid colon

      Explanation:

      The sigmoid colon is the most likely segment involved as it is mobile due to the presence of the sigmoid mesocolon. The descending colon, although on the left side, is a bit superior and is also retroperitoneal. The ascending colon and caecum are on the right side of the abdomen. The rectum is too inferior to enter the deep inguinal ring and the transverse colon is too superior to be involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Inside the palatoglossal arch is a muscle. Which nerve innervates this muscle? ...

    Correct

    • Inside the palatoglossal arch is a muscle. Which nerve innervates this muscle?

      Your Answer: X

      Explanation:

      The palatoglossal arch contains the palatoglossal muscle which is innervated by the vagus nerve which is the tenth cranial nerve. So the correct answer is X

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A medical student is told a substance is freely filtered but is not...

    Correct

    • A medical student is told a substance is freely filtered but is not metabolised, secreted, or stored in the kidney. It has a plasma concentration of 1000 mg/l and its urine excretion rate is 25 mg/min, and the inulin clearance is 100 ml/min. What is the rate of tubular reabsorption of the substance?

      Your Answer: 75 mg/min

      Explanation:

      Reabsorption or tubular reabsorption is the process by which the nephron removes water and solutes from the tubular fluid (pre-urine) and returns them to the circulating blood. To calculate the reabsorption rate of substance Z we use the following equation: excretion = (filtration + secretion) – reabsorption. As this substance is freely filtered, its filtration rate is equal to that of inulin. So 25 = (100 + 0) – reabsorption. Reabsorption = 100 – 25 therefore reabsorption = 75 mg/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the...

    Correct

    • The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the brain extracellular fluid in the central nervous system (CNS). Which of the following statements regarding the blood– brain barrier is CORRECT?

      Your Answer: It breaks down in areas of brain that are infected

      Explanation:

      The blood–brain barrier is a membrane that controls the passage of substances from the blood into the central nervous system. It is a physical barrier between the local blood vessels and most parts of the central nervous system and stops many substances from travelling across it. During meningitis, the blood–brain barrier may be disrupted. This disruption may increase the penetration of various substances (including either toxins or antibiotics) into the brain. A few regions in the brain, including the circumventricular organs, do not have a blood–brain barrier.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The specimen sent to the pathologist for examination was found to be benign....

    Correct

    • The specimen sent to the pathologist for examination was found to be benign. Which one of the following is most likely a benign tumour?

      Your Answer: Warthin’s tumour

      Explanation:

      Warthin’s tumour is also known as papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum. It is a benign cystic tumour of the salivary glands containing abundant lymphocytes and germinal centres. It has a slightly higher incidence in males and most likely occur in older adults aged between 60 to 70 years. This tumour is also associated with smoking. Smokers have an eight-fold greater risk in developing the tumour compared to non-smokers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      4.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Abdomen (2/3) 67%
Anatomy (9/10) 90%
Pathology (6/6) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Inflammation & Immunology; Haematology (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (1/1) 100%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Thorax (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Physiology (4/4) 100%
Head & Neck (3/3) 100%
General (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Neoplasia (1/1) 100%
Passmed