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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following organism is highly resistant to penicillin?
Your Answer: Neisseria meningitidis
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Penicillinase is a narrow spectrum ?-lactamase that opens the ?-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.
N. meningitidis is sensitive to penicillin and less than 20% resistance is found in pseudomonas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Intracellular effectors are activated by receptors on the cell surface. These receptors receive signals that are relayed by second messenger systems.
In the human body, which second messenger is most abundant?Your Answer: Cyclic AMP (cAMP)
Correct Answer: Calcium ions
Explanation:Second messengers relay signals to target molecules in the cytoplasm or nucleus when an agonist interacts with a receptor on the cell surface. They also amplify the strength of the signal. The most ubiquitous and abundant second messenger is calcium and it regulates multiple cellular functions in the body.
These include:
Muscle contraction (skeletal, smooth and cardiac)
Exocytosis (neurotransmitter release at synapses and insulin secretion)
Apoptosis
Cell adhesion to the extracellular matrix
Lymphocyte activation
Biochemical changes mediated by protein kinase C.cAMP is either inhibited or stimulated by G proteins.
The receptors in the body that stimulate G proteins and increase cAMP include:
Beta (?1, ?2, and ?3)
Dopamine (D1 and D5)
Histamine (H2)
Glucagon
Vasopressin (V2).The second messenger for the action of nitric oxide (NO) and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is cGMP.
The second messengers for angiotensin and thyroid stimulating hormone are inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following vertebral levels is the site where the oesophagus passes through the diaphragm to enter the abdominal cavity?
Your Answer: T10
Explanation:The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:
T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Correct
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Among the following which one is not a criterion for the assessment of causality?
Your Answer: Sensitivity
Explanation:For establishing a cause effect relationship, following criteria must be met:
1. Coherence & Consistency
2. Temporal Precedence
3. Specificity
As can be seen, sensitivity (The probability of a positive test) is not among these deciding factors..
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old girl complained of severe abdominal pain and hematemesis and was rushed into the emergency department. She has an increased heart rate of 120 beats per minute and blood pressure of 90/65. She has a history of taking Naproxen for her Achilles tendinopathy. On urgent endoscopy, she is diagnosed with a bleeding peptic ulcer.
The immediate treatment is to permanently stop the bleeding by performing embolization of the left gastric artery via an angiogram.
What level of the vertebra will be used as a radiological marker for the origin of the artery that supplies the left gastric artery during the angiogram?Your Answer: T11
Correct Answer: T12
Explanation:The left gastric artery is the smallest branch that originates from the coeliac trunk—the coeliac trunk branches of the abdominal aorta at the vertebral level of T12.
The left gastric artery runs along the superior portion of the lesser curvature of the stomach. A peptic ulcer that is serious enough to erode through the stomach mucosa into a branch of the left gastric artery can cause massive blood loss in the stomach, leading to hematemesis. The patient also takes Naproxen, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug that is a common cause for peptic ulcers in otherwise healthy patients.
The left gastric artery is responsible for 85% of upper GI bleeds. In cases refractory to initial treatment, angiography is sometimes needed to embolise the vessel at its origin and stop bleeding. During an angiogram, the radiologist will enter the aorta via the femoral artery, ascend to the level of the 12th vertebrae and then enter the left gastric artery via the coeliac trunk.
The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:
T12 – Coeliac trunk
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following descriptions best describes enflurane and isoflurane?
Your Answer: Have the same molecular formula, the same structural formula but atoms differ in their spatial arrangements and have optical activity
Correct Answer: Have the same molecular formula but different structural formulae
Explanation:Structural isomers have a similar molecular formula, but they have a different structural formula as their atoms are arranged in a different manner. Such small changes lead to the differential pharmacological activity. Enflurane and isoflurane are two prime examples of structural isomers.
Stereoisomers are those substances that have a similar molecular and structural formula, but the arrangement spatially of atoms are different and have optical activity.
Enantiomers are a pair of stereoisomers, which are non-superimposable mirror images of each other. They also have chiral centres of molecular symmetry. Ketamine is considered as an example of racemic mixture (contain 50% R and 50% S enantiomers)
Geometric isomers contain a carbon-carbon double bond (i.e. C=C) or a rigid carbon-carbon single bond in a heterocyclic ring. Cis-atracurium is one example.
Dynamic isomers or Tautomers are a pait of unstable structural isomers, which are present in equilibrium. One isomer can easily change after the change in pH. Midazolam and thiopentone are their examples.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 30-year old lady has a sub total thyroidectomy. On the 5th post-operative day, the wound becomes erythematous and there is a purulent discharge. The most likely organism causing this is:
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.
Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.
SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
-Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
-Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
-Tissue hypoxia
-Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
1. Intraoperatively
– Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
-Cover surgical site with dressingIn contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.
2. Post operatively
Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intentionUse of diathermy for skin incisions
In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the statements below best describe the total cerebral flow (CBF) in an adult?
Your Answer: Reduces significantly when the mean arterial pressure falls from 110 to 70 mmHg
Correct Answer: Accounts for 15% of the cardiac output
Explanation:While the brain only weighs 3% of the body weight, 15% of the cardiac output goes towards the brain.
Between mean arterial pressures (MAP) of 60-130 mmHg, autoregulation of cerebral blood flow (CBF) occurs. Exceeding this, the CBF is maintained at a constant level. This is controlled mainly by the PaCO2 level, and the autonomic nervous system has minimal role.
Beyond these limits, the CBF is directly proportional to the MAP, not the systolic blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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The Kappa statistic (aka Cohen's kappa coefficient) can be used to measure which of the following?
Your Answer: Face validity
Correct Answer: Inter-rater reliability
Explanation:The Kappa Statistic or Cohen’s Kappa is a statistical measure of inter-rater reliability for categorical variables. It is used when two raters both apply a criterion based on a tool to assess whether or not some condition occur. A good example can be two doctors rating individuals for diabetes occurrence on the basis of symptoms.
It gives a quantitative measure of the magnitude of agreement between observers.
Kappa can take any value between 0 and 1. 0 implies the observers are in complete disagreement and a value of 1 implies complete agreement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 10
Correct
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A doctor has recorded the number of times the patient did not attend (DNA) the clinic for a study over a 10 month period.
Number of DNAs in 10 Months Number of Patients
1st Month 0
2nd Month 3
3rd Month 1
4th Month 45
5th Month 2
6th Month 0
7th Month 1
8th Month 4
9th Month 4
10th Month 2
Which among the following is the most apt way of summarizing mean value?Your Answer: Median
Explanation:Variance and standard deviation indicate the dispersion of the plot from mean value and thus are not really helpful in summarizing the mean.
Range is the difference between maximum and minimum value that is 45 in this case.
The mean in this case is 6.2 due to the presence of an outlier 45. In the presence of outlier mean can be misleading as it is quite sensitive to skewness in data.
Mode is the most frequent value. In this case mode has 4 values: 0,1,2,4.
In case of skewedness, median is the most apt representative of the mean as it is not affected by outliers. In this case since the data set has even values i.e. 10. Median is the average of the 5th & 6th entry after arranging the data in ascending order like that in case of the question (0,0,1,1,2,2,3,4,4,45). This turns out to be 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Of the stated laws, which is correct?
Your Answer: Beer's law; states that each layer of equal thickness absorbs an equal fraction of radiation, which passes through it.
Correct Answer: Boyle's law states that at constant temperature the volume of a given mass of gas varies inversely with absolute pressure.
Explanation:Boyle’s law is correctly stated as it states that the volume of a gas of known mass is inversely proportional with absolute pressure, at a constant temperature.
Beer’s law states that radiation absorption by a solution of known thickness and concentration is identical to that of a solution of double thickness and half concentration.
Bougner’s (or Lambert’s) law states that every layer with the same thickness will absorb the same amount of radiation as it passes through.
Graham’s law states that the diffusion rate of a gas is inversely related to the square root of its molecular weight.
Raoult’s law states that the reduction of a solvent’s vapour pressure is directly proportional to the solute’s molar concentration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 12
Incorrect
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All the following statements are false regarding gabapentin except:
Your Answer: Is a potent hepatic enzyme inducer
Correct Answer: Requires dose adjustment in renal disease
Explanation:Therapy with gabapentin requires dose adjustment with renal diseases. However, plasma monitoring of the drug is not necessary.
Gabapentin is not a liver enzyme inducer unlike other anticonvulsants like phenytoin and phenobarbitone
Gabapentin has not been shown to be associated with visual disturbances.
Gabapentin is used for add-on therapy in partial or generalized seizures and used in the management of chronic pain conditions but is of no use in petit mal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true about the in-hospital management of ventricular fibrillation?
Your Answer: A single precordial thump is futile
Correct Answer: Amiodarone may be administered following a third DC shock
Explanation:Ventricular fibrillation (VT) is an arrhythmia caused by a distortion in the organized contraction of the ventricles leading to an inability to pump blood out into the body.
Amiodarone is an anti arrhythmic drug used for the treatment of ventricular and atrial fibrillations. It is the gold standard of treatment for refractory pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT) and ventricular fibrillation (VF).
Guidelines for emergency treatment state that only the rescuer carrying out chest compressions on the patient may stand near the defibrillator as it charges.
Cardio-pulmonary resuscitation (CPR) during cardiac arrest is required for 2 minute cycles.
Hypovolaemia is as a cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA) can be reversed using fluid resuscitation, whereas hypotension during cardiac arrest is either persistent or undetectable and is therefore irreversible.
Hyperkalaemia and hypocalcaemia are treated using calcium salts, but calcium chloride is often preferred over calcium gluconate.
During a pulseless VT or VF, a single precordial thump will be effective if administered within the first seconds of the occurrence of a shockable rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Regarding chest tube insertion, which of the following measurements is utilized when selecting a chest tube drain?
Your Answer: Standard wire gauge (SWG)
Correct Answer: External circumference (mm)
Explanation:Selection of a chest drain will depend on the external circumference.
A cannula, whether intravenous or intra-arterial, are classified according to standard wire gauge, which refers to the number of wires that can fit into the same hole. If a cannula is labelled 22G, then 22 wires will fit into the standard size hole.
A more popular measurement than SWG nowadays is cross sectional area.
When the concern for selecting equipment is the rate of flow, then it is important to consider the diameter and the radius of a parallel sided tube. These, however, are not routinely considered when comparing sizes of a cannula.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which one of the following factor affects the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC)?
Your Answer: Mild hypercapnia
Correct Answer: Hypoxaemia
Explanation:The minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) is the concentration of an inhalation anaesthetic agent in the lung alveoli required to stop a response to the surgical stimulus in 50% of the patient.
Following factors don’t affect the MAC of the inhaled anaesthetic agents:
Gender, acidosis, alkalosis, hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, body weight, serum potassium level, and the duration of the anaesthesia.
MAC increase in children, elevated temperature, high metabolic rate, sympathetic increase and chronic alcoholism.
MAC decrease in low temperature, low oxygen level, old age, hypotension (<40 mmHg), depressant drugs e.g. opioids and low level of catecholamines; alpha methyl dopa. Carbon dioxide O2 at the pressure > 120mmHg is being used in anesthetic-Hinkman as an additive effect to decrease MAC, however, increase concentration of CO2 activates the sympathetic system resulting the MAC increases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with nausea and vomiting is admitted to the hospital.
For temporal arteritis, he takes 40 mg prednisolone orally in divided doses. His prescription chart will need to be adjusted to reflect his inability to take oral medications.
What is the equivalent dose of intravenous hydrocortisone to 40 mg oral prednisolone?Your Answer: 120 mg
Correct Answer: 160 mg
Explanation:Prednisolone 5 mg is the same as 20 mg hydrocortisone.
Prednisolone 40 mg is the same as 8 x 20 mg or 160 mg of prednisolone.
Mineralocorticoid effects and variations in action duration are not taken into account in these comparisons.
5 mg of prednisolone is the same as Dexamethasone 750 mcg, Hydrocortisone 20 mg, Methylprednisolone 4 mg, and Cortisone acetate 25 mg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true with regards to the Krebs' cycle (also known as the tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle)?
Your Answer: Alpha-ketoglutarate is a five carbon molecule
Explanation:Krebs’ cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle) is a sequence of reactions in which acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA) is metabolised and this results in carbon dioxide and hydrogen atoms production.
This series of reactions occur in the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells, not the cytoplasm. The cycle requires oxygen and so, cannot function under anaerobic conditions.
It is the common pathway for carbohydrate, fat and some amino acids oxidation and is required for high energy phosphate bond formation in adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
When pyruvate enters the mitochondria, it is converted into acetyl-CoA. This represents the formation of a 2 carbon molecule from a 3 carbon molecule. There is loss of one CO2 but formation of one NADH molecule. Acetyl-CoA is condensed with oxaloacetate, the anion of a 4 carbon acid, to form citrate which is a 6 carbon molecule.
Citrate is then converted into isocitrate, alpha-ketoglutarate, succinyl-CoA, succinate, fumarate, malate and finally oxaloacetate.
The only 5 carbon molecule in the cycle is alpha-ketoglutarate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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One of the commonest risks associated with a retrobulbar block for ophthalmic surgery is the injury to orbital structures within the tendinous ring.
The structure which passes through the superior orbital fissure and tendinous ring to enter the orbit is?Your Answer: Ophthalmic artery
Correct Answer: Superior division of oculomotor nerve
Explanation:From superior to inferior, the following structures enter the orbit through the superior orbital fissure:
1. Lacrimal nerve
2. Frontal nerve
3. Superior ophthalmic vein
4. Trochlear nerve
5. Superior division of the oculomotor nerve*
6. Nasociliary nerve*
7. Inferior division of the oculomotor nerve*
8. Abducent nerve*
9. Inferior ophthalmic vein.The superior and inferior division of the oculomotor nerve, nasociliary nerve, and abducent nerve are within the tendinous ring.
The common origin of the four rectus muscles is the tendinous ring (also known as the annulus of Zinn). The tendinous ring’s lateral portion straddles the superior orbital fissure, while the medial portion encloses the optic foramen, through which the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery pass.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old boy is undergoing surgery for indirect inguinal hernia repair. The deep inguinal ring is exposed and held with a retractor at its medial aspect during the procedure.
What structure is most likely to lie under the retractor on the medial side?Your Answer: Lateral border of rectus abdominis
Correct Answer: Inferior epigastric artery
Explanation:The deep inguinal ring is the entrance of the inguinal canal. It is an opening in the transversalis fascia around 1 cm above the inguinal ligament. Therefore, the superolateral wall is made by the transervalis fascia.
The inferior epigastric vessels run medially to the deep inguinal ring forming its inferomedial border.
The inguinal canal extends obliquely from the deep inguinal ring to the superficial inguinal ring.
An indirect inguinal hernia arises through the deep inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Correct
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All of the following statements are true about blood clotting except:
Your Answer: Administration of aprotinin during liver transplantation surgery prolongs survival
Explanation:Even though aprotinin reduces fibrinolysis and therefore bleeding, there is an associated increased risk of death. It was withdrawn in 2007.
Protein C is dependent upon vitamin K and this may paradoxically increase the risk of thrombosis during the early phases of warfarin treatment.The coagulation cascade include two pathways which lead to fibrin formation:
1. Intrinsic pathway – these components are already present in the blood
Minor role in clotting
Subendothelial damage e.g. collagen
Formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12
Prekallikrein is converted to kallikrein and Factor 12 becomes activated
Factor 12 activates Factor 11
Factor 11 activates Factor 9, which with its co-factor Factor 8a form the tenase complex which activates Factor 102. Extrinsic pathway – needs tissue factor that is released by damaged tissue)
In tissue damage:
Factor 7 binds to Tissue factor – this complex activates Factor 9
Activated Factor 9 works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 103. Common pathway
Activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin and this hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin. It also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.4. Fibrinolysis
Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate clot resorption -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A new proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is being evaluated in elderly patients who are taking aspiring. Study designed has 120 patients receiving the PPI, while a control group of 240 individuals is given the standard PPI. Over a span of 6 years, 24 of the group receiving the new PPI had an upper GI bleed compared to 60 individuals who received the standard PPI.
How would you calculate the absolute risk reduction?Your Answer: 20
Correct Answer: 5%
Explanation:Absolute risk reduction = (Control event rate) – (Experimental event rate)
Experimental event rate = 24 / 120 = 0.2
Control event rate = 60 / 240 = 0.25
Absolute risk reduction = 0.25 – 0.2 = 0.05 = 5% reduction
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Out of the following, which is NOT a part of the contents of the porta hepatis?
Your Answer: Lymph nodes
Correct Answer: Cystic duct
Explanation:The porta hepatis is a fissure in the inferior surface of the liver. All the neurovascular structures that enter and leave the porta hepatis are:
1. hepatic portal vein
2. hepatic artery
3. hepatic ducts
4. hepatic nerve plexus (It contains the sympathetic branch to the liver and gallbladder and the parasympathetic, hepatic branch of the vagus nerve.)These structures supply and drain the liver. Only the hepatic vein is not part of the porta hepatis.
The porta hepatis is also surrounded by lymph nodes, that may enlarge to produce obstructive jaundice.
These structures divide immediately after or within the porta hepatis to supply the functional left and right lobes of the liver.The cystic duct lies outside the porta hepatis and is an important landmark in laparoscopic cholecystectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which structure has the greatest amount of musculi pectinati?
Your Answer: Pulmonary valve
Correct Answer: Right atrium
Explanation:The pectinate muscles (musculi pectinati) are parallel muscular ridges that extend anterolaterally on the right atrial walls. The most prominent pectinate muscle, which forms the bridge of the sulcus terminalis internally, is the taenia sagittalis (second crest or septum spurium).
In the left atrium, the pectinate muscles are confined to the inner surface of its atrial appendage. They tend to be fewer and smaller than in the right atrium. This is due to the embryological origin of the auricles, which are the true atria.
Pectinate muscles of the atria are different from the trabeculae carneae, which are found on the inner walls of both ventricles.
The interior of the right atrium has five distinct features:
1. Sinus venarum – smooth, thin-walled posterior part of the right atrium where the SVC, IVC, and coronary sinus open
2. Musculi pectinati – a rough anterior wall of pectinate muscles
3. Tricuspid valve orifice – the opening through which the right atrium empties blood into the right ventricle
4. Crista terminalis – separates the rough (musculi pectinati) from the smooth (sinus venarum) internally
5. Fossa ovalis – a thumbprint size depression in the interatrial septum, which is a remnant of the oval foramen and its valve in the foetus -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effects of Dopamine infusions?
Your Answer: At lower rates of infusion, there is increased contractility, heart rate, cardiac output and coronary blood flow
Correct Answer: Decreasing gastric transit time
Explanation:Moderately high doses of dopamine produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to Noradrenaline release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A mercury barometer can be used to determine absolute pressure. A mercury manometer can be used to check blood pressure. The SI units of length(mm) are used to measure pressure.
Why is pressure expressed in millimetres of mercury (mmHg)?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pressure is directly proportional to length of the mercury column and is variable
Explanation:A mercury barometer can be used to determine absolute pressure. A glass tube with one closed end serves as the barometer. The open end is inserted into a mercury-filled open vessel. The mercury in the container is pushed into the tube by atmospheric pressure exerted on its surface. Absolute pressure is the distance between the tube’s meniscus and the mercury surface.
Pressure is defined as force in newtons per unit area (F) (A).
Mass of mercury = area (A) × density (ρ) × length (L)
Pressure = ((A × ρ × L) × 9.8 m/s2)/A
Pressure = ρ × L x 9.8
Pressure is proportional to LThe numerator and denominator of the above equation, area (A), cancel out. The constants are density and the gravitational acceleration value.
The length is proportional to the applied pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A patient under brachial plexus regional block complains of pain under the cuff after the torniquet is inflated.
Which nerve was most probably 'missed' by the local anaesthetic?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intercostobrachial nerve
Explanation:The area described in the question is supplied by the intercostobrachial nerve, which provides sensory innervation to the portions of the axilla, tail of the breast, lateral chest wall and medial side of the arm.
It is a common for it to be ‘missed’ during administration of local anaesthesia because of its very superficial anatomic course. It may be anesthetized by giving an analgesia from the upper border of the biceps at the anterior axillary fold, to the margin of the triceps by the axillary floor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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During the analysis phase, which of the provided options serves to control confounding factors?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stratification
Explanation:During analytical stage a technique called stratification is used for controlling confounding variables. This technique involves sorting out the data into discernible groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 27-year old man loses 1000ml blood after being stabbed on his thigh.
The most impactful physiological response occurring at the start to combat the decline in the intravascular blood volume of this man is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Venoconstriction
Explanation:In contrast to the arterial system, which contains 15% of the circulating blood volume, the body’s veins contain 70% of it.
In severe haemorrhage, when sympathetic stimulation causes venoconstriction, venous tone is important in maintaining the return of blood to the heart.
Because the liver receives about 30% of the resting cardiac output, it is a very vascular organ. The hepatic vascular system is dynamic, which means it can store and release blood in large amounts – it acts as a reservoir within the general circulation.
In a normal situation, the liver contains 10-15% of total blood volume, with the sinusoids accounting for roughly 60% of that. The liver dynamically adjusts its blood volume when blood is lost and can eject enough blood to compensate for a moderate amount of haemorrhage.
In the portal venous and hepatic arterial systems, sympathetic nerves constrict the presinusoidal resistance vessels. More importantly, sympathetic stimulation lowers the portal system’s capacitance, allowing blood to flow more efficiently to the heart.
Net transcapillary absorption of interstitial fluid from skeletal muscle into the intravascular space compensates for blood loss effectively during haemorrhage. The decrease in capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc), caused by reflex adrenergic readjustment of the ratio of pre- to postcapillary resistance, is primarily responsible for fluid absorption. Within a few hours of blood loss, these fluid shifts become significant, further diluting haemoglobin and plasma proteins.
Albumin synthesis begins to increase after 48 hours.
The juxtamedullary complex releases renin in response to a drop in mean arterial pressure, which causes an increase in aldosterone level and, eventually, sodium and water resorption. Increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels also contribute to water retention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Anaesthetic gas concentrations can be measured using a refractometer. The main principal which allows it to be used for this purpose is which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refraction
Explanation:Refractometers measure the degree to which the light changes direction, called the angle of refraction. A refractometer takes the refraction angles and correlates them to refractive index (nD) values that have been established. Using these values, you can determine the concentrations of solutions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Buffers are solutions that resist a change in pH when protons are produced or consumed. They consist of weak acids and their conjugate bases. Buffers are also present in our bodies, and they are known as physiologic buffers.
Which of these is the most effective buffer in the blood?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bicarbonate
Explanation:The first line of defence against acid-base disorder is buffering. The blood mainly utilizes bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) for its buffering capacity (total of 53%, plasma and red blood cells combined).
Strong acids, when acted upon by a buffer, release H+, which then combines to HCO3- and forms carbonic acid (H2CO3). When acted upon by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, H2CO3 dissociates into H2O and CO.
The rest are the percentage of utilization for the following buffers:
Haemoglobin (by RBCs) – 35%
Plasma proteins (by plasma) – 7%
Organic phosphates (by RBCs) – 3%
Inorganic phosphates (by plasma) – 2% -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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