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  • Question 1 - The reticular formation occupies which area of the brain? ...

    Incorrect

    • The reticular formation occupies which area of the brain?

      Your Answer: Thalamic nuclei

      Correct Answer: Medulla and midbrain

      Explanation:

      The reticular formation is a set of interconnected nuclei that are located along the brainstem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      48.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - HCL is secreted by which cells in the stomach ...

    Correct

    • HCL is secreted by which cells in the stomach

      Your Answer: Parietal cells

      Explanation:

      Parietal cells are the epithelial cells that secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl) and intrinsic factor. These cells are located in the gastric glands found in the lining of the fundus and in the body of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Compact/cortical bone makes up ...

    Incorrect

    • Compact/cortical bone makes up

      Your Answer: The outer layer of most bones and accounts for 20% of bone in the body

      Correct Answer: The outer layer of most bones and accounts for 80% of bone in the body

      Explanation:

      Cortical, lamellar, or compact bone, is more dense than spongy bone and it forms the rigid, outer layer of bones, also called cortex. It consists of packed osteons, with a central osteonic canal surrounded by concentric rings. Spaces called lacunae are filled with osteocytes, and channels called canaliculi go from the lacunae to the osteonic canal. The strength of cortical bone allows it to support the body and protect organs. It also stores different elements, such as calcium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      61.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The HIV virus: ...

    Incorrect

    • The HIV virus:

      Your Answer: Reverse transcriptase transcript DNA to RNA

      Correct Answer: P24 is a core protein

      Explanation:

      HIV is different in structure from other retroviruses. It is roughly spherical with a diameter of about 120 nm, around 60 times smaller than a red blood cell. It is composed of two copies of positive single-stranded RNA that codes for the virus’s nine genes enclosed by a conical capsid composed of 2,000 copies of the viral protein p24. The single-stranded RNA is tightly bound to nucleocapsid proteins, p7, and enzymes needed for the development of the virion such as reverse transcriptase, proteases, ribonuclease and integrase. A matrix composed of the viral protein p17 surrounds the capsid ensuring the integrity of the virion particle. Reverse transcriptase copies the viral single stranded RNA genome into a double-stranded viral DNA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The rate of depolarization of the SA node membrane potential is modulated by...

    Correct

    • The rate of depolarization of the SA node membrane potential is modulated by the following:

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Rate of depolarization of the SA node is modulated by all of these.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      45.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Southern Blotting and DNA probes: ...

    Correct

    • Southern Blotting and DNA probes:

      Your Answer: DNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto membrane sheets in southern blotting

      Explanation:

      A Southern blot is a method used in molecular biology for detection of a specific DNA sequence in DNA samples. Southern blotting combines transfer of electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments to a filter membrane and subsequent fragment detection by probe hybridization. The other forms of blotting involve the use of RNA and proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - In the clotting mechanism, activation of factor IX can occur through the direct...

    Correct

    • In the clotting mechanism, activation of factor IX can occur through the direct actions of:

      Your Answer: Factor VIIa & XIa

      Explanation:

      Factor IX is processed to remove the signal peptide, glycosylated and then cleaved by factor XIa (of the contact pathway) or factor VIIa (of the tissue factor pathway). When activated into factor IXa, in the presence of Ca2+, membrane phospholipids, and a Factor VIII cofactor, it hydrolyses one arginine-isoleucine bond in factor X to form factor Xa. Factor IX is inhibited by antithrombin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      62
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The lower oesophageal sphincter is under neural control. Which of the following causes...

    Correct

    • The lower oesophageal sphincter is under neural control. Which of the following causes contraction of the intrinsic sphincter?

      Your Answer: Acetylcholine

      Explanation:

      The lower oesophageal sphincter (LOS) is a specific region of the oesophageal circular smooth muscle. It allows the passage of a food bolus to the stomach and prevents the reflux of gastric contents into the oesophagus. The tone of the LOS is myogenic in origin and depends on smooth muscle properties that lead to the opening of Ca2+ channels but can also be modulated by enteric motor neurons, the parasympathetic and sympathetic extrinsic nervous system and several neurohumoral substances. Nitric oxide causes LOS relaxation. Acetylcholine and tachykinins are involved in the LOS contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      70.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The haemostatic plug formation in response to injured blood vessel wall is stimulated...

    Incorrect

    • The haemostatic plug formation in response to injured blood vessel wall is stimulated by exposure of which substance to platelets?

      Your Answer: Tissue thromboplastin

      Correct Answer: Collagen

      Explanation:

      When the endothelium is damaged, the normally isolated, underlying collagen is exposed to circulating platelets, which bind directly to collagen with collagen-specific glycoprotein Ia/IIa surface receptors. This adhesion is strengthened further by von Willebrand factor (vWF), which is released from the endothelium and from platelets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      50.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs may be used in the treatment of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs may be used in the treatment of long QT syndrome?

      Your Answer: Atenolol

      Explanation:

      Beta-blockers are the mainstay of treatment in long QT syndrome. Implantable cardioverter-defibrillators are the most effective treatment in genotypes with a high risk of recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The liver is the principal site for? ...

    Incorrect

    • The liver is the principal site for?

      Your Answer: Synthesis of immunoglobulins

      Correct Answer: Storage of iron

      Explanation:

      The liver mainly synthesizes proteins including albumin, globulins and coalgulative factors. Vitamin B12 is taken in via the diet and stored by the liver. Vitamin C is not stored and excessive vitamin C is excreted via urine. Liver is the main site of iron storage, where it is stored in the form of ferritin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The oesophagus is lined by ...

    Incorrect

    • The oesophagus is lined by

      Your Answer: Simple columnar epithelium

      Correct Answer: Stratified squamous epithelium

      Explanation:

      The wall of the oesophagus from the lumen outwards consists of mucosa, submucosa (connective tissue), layers of muscle fibers between layers of fibrous tissue, and an outer layer of connective tissue. The mucosa is a stratified squamous epithelium of around three layers of squamous cells, which contrasts to the single layer of columnar cells of the stomach. The transition between these two types of epithelium is visible as a zig-zag line. Most of the muscle is smooth muscle although striated muscle predominates in its upper two thirds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      37.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Complement system help dispose waste products after which natural process? ...

    Incorrect

    • Complement system help dispose waste products after which natural process?

      Your Answer: Infection

      Correct Answer: Apoptosis

      Explanation:

      The complement system is a part of the immune system that enhances (complements) the ability of antibodies and phagocytic cells to clear microbes and damaged cells from an organism or apoptosis. It is part of the innate immune system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - During which phase of the cell cycle does transcription of DNA synthesis molecules...

    Correct

    • During which phase of the cell cycle does transcription of DNA synthesis molecules occur?

      Your Answer: S

      Explanation:

      DNA synthesis occurs in the S phase of the cell cycle. In the G1 phase the cell prepares to divide. In G2 the cellular organelles divide and in the M phase mitosis occur. In the G0 phase the cell becomes quiescent and does not divide further.

      Interphase is composed of G1 phase (cell growth), followed by S phase (DNA synthesis), followed by G2 phase (cell growth). At the end of interphase comes the mitotic phase, which is made up of mitosis and cytokinesis and leads to the formation of two daughter cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The oligosaccharidases responsible for further digestion of starch after breakdown by the above...

    Incorrect

    • The oligosaccharidases responsible for further digestion of starch after breakdown by the above mentioned enzymes is located where?

      Your Answer: Pancreatic fluid

      Correct Answer: Brush border of small intestine

      Explanation:

      The final step in digestion of carbohydrates, which is conversion of disaccharides to absorbable monosaccharides occurs on the small intestinal epithelial cells. The enzymes responsible for this final stage of digestion are not freely found in the intestinal lumen, but they are found as integral membrane proteins in the plasma membrane of the epithelial cell. The apical plasma membrane of the intestinal epithelial cell has numerous microvilli known as the brush border. Thus, the enzymes embedded in those microvilli are referred to as brush border enzymes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      71.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following causes the closure of the ductus arteriosus during birth?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes the closure of the ductus arteriosus during birth?

      Your Answer: Increased left atrial pressure

      Correct Answer: Reduced levels of prostaglandins

      Explanation:

      Ductus arteriosus is kept open by the prostaglandin E2 which is a vasodilator. At birth the high levels of cyclooxygenase blocks the production of prostaglandins which results in the closure of the ductus arteriosus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      48
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following happens when anterograde neurons are stimulated? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following happens when anterograde neurons are stimulated?

      Your Answer: Smooth muscle relaxation ahead of the stimulus

      Explanation:

      Nitric oxide is thought to act as an anterograde neurotransmitter. Nitric oxide causes relaxation of smooth muscles ahead of the stimulus. Clinically it is used as a potent vasodilator.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      1168.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Lipid- lowering drugs like Lovastatin reduce cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting which enzyme? ...

    Incorrect

    • Lipid- lowering drugs like Lovastatin reduce cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting which enzyme?

      Your Answer: Lipoprotein lipase

      Correct Answer: HMG-CoA reductase

      Explanation:

      Statins, also known as HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, are a class of lipid-lowering medications. Statins have been found to reduce cardiovascular disease (CVD) and mortality in those who are at high risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      48.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The lamina propria contains all of the following except: ...

    Incorrect

    • The lamina propria contains all of the following except:

      Your Answer: Plasma cells

      Correct Answer: Neutrophils

      Explanation:

      The connective tissue of the lamina propria is very loose, allowing it to be very cell rich. The cell population of the lamina propria is variable and can include, for example, fibroblasts, lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages, eosinophilic leukocytes, and mast cells. It provides support and nutrition to the epithelium, as well as the means to bind to the underlying tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      72
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding carbohydrates absorption; ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding carbohydrates absorption;

      Your Answer: Intestinal glucose absorption requires phosphorylation

      Correct Answer: Intestinal absorption of sugars is inhibited by the drug phlorizin

      Explanation:

      The main role of insulin is in the uptake of glucose from blood to tissues where it is metabolised. Glycose transporters in the intestines do not depend on the action of insulin. Phlorizin is a competitive inhibitor of SGLT1 and SGLT2 because it competes with glucose for the binding site, reducing intestinal and renal glucose transport.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      265.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Initial depolarization of cardiac muscle is due to influx of: ...

    Correct

    • Initial depolarization of cardiac muscle is due to influx of:

      Your Answer: Na+

      Explanation:

      Initial depolarization of the cardiac muscle results from opening of the sodium voltage gated channels. This results in the influx of sodium and an increase in the membrane potential towards threshold. Potassium efflux results in repolarization.

      The cardiac action potential has 5 phases:

      • Phase 0—depolarization because of the opening of fast sodium channels. Potassium flux also decreases.
      • Phase 1—partial repolarization because of a rapid decrease in sodium ion passage as fast sodium channels close.
      • Phase 2—plateau phase in which the movement of calcium ions out of the cell, maintains depolarization.
      • Phase 3—repolarization, sodium, and calcium channels all close and membrane potential returns to baseline.
      • Phase 4—resting membrane potential (−90 mV), resulting from the activity of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump which creates a negative intracellular potential because of the exchange of three sodium ions for only two potassium ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 45 year old male presents with lower backache and pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old male presents with lower backache and pain in his hips. Blood tests are normal except for elevated serum alkaline phosphatase which is 1200 IU/l (45-105). Radiological examination shows combined osteolytic and osteosclerotic lesions. What is the most common site of occurrence of this disease?

      Your Answer: Lumbar spine

      Correct Answer: Pelvis

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely suffers from Paget’s disease of the bone as his radiological examination shows both osteolytic and osteosclerotic lesions. Any bone or bones can be affected, but Paget’s disease occurs most frequently in the pelvis > lumbar spine > femur > thoracic spine > sacrum > skull > tibia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      53.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Where is the lower border of the liver usually found? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the lower border of the liver usually found?

      Your Answer: 10th rib anterior axillary line on right

      Explanation:

      Assessment of liver margins is important clinically to determine the size of the liver and is done via percussion during the physical examination. The liver typically extends from the fifth intercostal space or 6th rib to the right costal margin in the midclavicular line and the 10th rib on anterior axillary line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      69.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following is responsible for converting inactive cortisone to active cortisol...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is responsible for converting inactive cortisone to active cortisol in the adrenal gland?

      Your Answer: 11βHSD type 1

      Explanation:

      11β-Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase, also known as HSD-11β or 11β-HSD, is a group of enzymes which catalyse the interconversion of active cortisol and corticosterone with inert cortisone and 11-dehydrocorticosterone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 75 year old man presented to hospital after suffering a stroke. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 75 year old man presented to hospital after suffering a stroke. The doctor admitted him and advised of the Barthel score index. During rehabilitation, which one of the following limitations are best described by Barthel score index?

      Your Answer: It correlates poorly with other prognostic scales

      Correct Answer: Floor and ceiling effects

      Explanation:

      Barthel scoring has floor and ceiling effects which is the most widely recognised limitation. Floor effect means that the patient who is bed bound can score initially low, whereas the ceiling effect shows that despite being bed bound, a patient can achieve a maximum score i.e. 100. The test is easy to perform and correlates well with other prognostic scales.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      77.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 27-year-old female diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has failed to respond to methotrexate...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has failed to respond to methotrexate and sulfasalazine. Her GP decides to start her on etanercept injections. Which one among the following is an adverse effect associated with the use of etanercept?

      Your Answer: Reactivation of tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Among the give options, reactivation of tuberculosis may occur in a patient under treatment with etanercept.Etanercept is a biological TNF inhibit commonly used to control ankylosing spondylitis, juvenile idiopathic arthritis, plaque psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis.Etanercept is a soluble receptor that binds both TNF-alpha and TNF-beta to inhibit the inflammatory response in joints and skin that is characteristic of these autoimmune disorders.The most common adverse effects include infections (viral, bacterial, and fungal – mostly upper respiratory tract infections) and injection site reaction (erythema, itching, pain, swelling, bleeding, bruising).Rarely it can also cause, reactivation of hepatitis B and TB, pneumocystis pneumonia, congestive cardiac failure, Steven-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      1183
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The haustral pattern seen in the normal colon is produced by ...

    Incorrect

    • The haustral pattern seen in the normal colon is produced by

      Your Answer: Villi and their crypts

      Correct Answer: Taenia coli

      Explanation:

      The haustra (singular haustrum) of the colon are the small pouches caused by sacculation (sac formation), which give the colon its segmented appearance. The teniae coli run the length of the large intestine. Because the taeniae coli are shorter than the intestine, the colon becomes sacculated between the taeniae coli, forming the haustra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is the correct formula to calculate the positive predictive value?(TP = true...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct formula to calculate the positive predictive value?(TP = true positive; FP = false positive; TN = true negative; FN = false negative)

      Your Answer: TP / (TP + FN )

      Correct Answer: TP / (TP + FP)

      Explanation:

      Positive predictive value is the probability that subjects with a positive screening test truly have the disease.Positive predictive value = true positive / ( true positive + false positive)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      106.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Absorption of fructose is via: ...

    Correct

    • Absorption of fructose is via:

      Your Answer: Facilitated diffusion

      Explanation:

      Dietary fructose may be ingested as a monosaccharide or as a disaccharide. Sucrose is hydrolysed by sucrase to produce equal amounts of glucose and fructose and in this form, is usually completely absorbed. Fructose is mostly absorbed in the small intestine through GLUT-5 transporter mediated facilitative diffusion. This is an energy independent process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The direct determinants of cardiac output are ...

    Correct

    • The direct determinants of cardiac output are

      Your Answer: Stroke volume and heart rate

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output is classically defined alongside stroke volume (SV) and the heart rate (HR) as:Cardiac Output [L/min] = Stroke Volume [L/beat] x Heart Rate [beats/min]

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      28.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Medicine (14/30) 47%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal (4/9) 44%
Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (4/5) 80%
Genetics (2/2) 100%
Haematology (1/2) 50%
Hepatobiliary (1/2) 50%
Immunology (0/1) 0%
Metabolism (0/1) 0%
Connective Tissue (0/1) 0%
Geriatrics (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Research Skills (0/1) 0%
Passmed