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  • Question 1 - From which branchial (pharyngeal) pouch does the inferior parathyroid gland arise? ...

    Correct

    • From which branchial (pharyngeal) pouch does the inferior parathyroid gland arise?

      Your Answer: 3rd

      Explanation:

      The following structures arise from each branchial pouch:

      1st pouch – eustachian tube, middle ear, mastoid, and inner layer of the tympanic membrane

      2nd pouch – middle ear, palatine tonsils

      3rd pouch – inferior parathyroid glands, thymus

      4th pouch – superior parathyroid glands, ultimobranchial body which forms the parafollicular C-cells of the thyroid gland, musculature and cartilage of larynx (along with the sixth pharyngeal pouch)

      5th pouch – rudimentary structure

      6th pouch – along with the fourth pouch, contributes to the formation of the musculature and cartilage of the larynx.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Endocrine; Embryology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - If the blood flow is constant, oxygen extraction by tissues will show the...

    Incorrect

    • If the blood flow is constant, oxygen extraction by tissues will show the greatest decrease due to which of the following interventions?

      Your Answer: Exercise

      Correct Answer: Tissue cooling

      Explanation:

      With a constant blood flow to a given tissue bed, there will be an increase in oxygen extraction by the tissue with the following; an increase in tissue metabolism and oxygen requirements: warming (or fever), exercise, catecholamines and thyroxine. With cooling, the demand for oxygen decreases, leading to decreased oxygen extraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which nerve mediates the sensation to itch from the skin that is just...

    Correct

    • Which nerve mediates the sensation to itch from the skin that is just over the base of the spine of your scapula?

      Your Answer: Dorsal primary ramus of C7

      Explanation:

      The first branches off spinal nerves are called the dorsal and ventral rami. The dorsal rami mediate sensation of the skin over the back and motor supply to the true muscles of the back whilst the ventral rami gives sensation to the skin over the limbs and the skin that is over the ventral side of the trunk. It also gives motor supply to the skeletal muscles of the neck, the trunk and extremities. Hence, itchiness of the part of the skin that is over the spine of the scapula would be mediated by the primary ramus of C7. Accessory nerve doesn’t have any sensory innervation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Neurology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Elevated mean corpuscular volume with hypersegmented neutrophils and low reticulocyte index is seen...

    Incorrect

    • Elevated mean corpuscular volume with hypersegmented neutrophils and low reticulocyte index is seen in on the blood count of a middle-aged lady about to undergo elective surgery. On enquiry, she mentions feeling tired for a few months. Which of the following investigations should be carried out in her to reach a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemoglobin electrophoresis

      Correct Answer: Serum vitamin B12 and folate

      Explanation:

      Elevated levels of MCV indicates megaloblastic anaemia, which are associated with hypersegmented neutrophils. Likely causes include vitamin B12 or folate deficiency. Megaloblastic anaemia results from defective synthesis of DNA. As RNA production continues, the cells enlarge with a large nucleus. The cytoplasmic maturity becomes greater than nuclear maturity. Megaloblasts are produced initially in the marrow, before blood. Dyspoiesis makes erythropoiesis ineffective, causing direct hyperbilirubinemia and hyperuricemia. As all cell lines are affected, reticulocytopenia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia develop. Large, oval blood cells (macro-ovalocytes) are released in the circulation, along with presence of hypersegmented neutrophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      49.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following foramina provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve,...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following foramina provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve, passes?

      Your Answer: Foramen magnum

      Correct Answer: Internal acoustic meatus

      Explanation:

      The internal auditory meatus is a canal within the petrous part of the temporal bone of the skull between the posterior cranial fossa and the inner ear. It provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve, the facial nerve, and the labyrinthine artery (an internal auditory branch of the basilar artery) can pass from inside the skull to structures of the inner ear and face.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - If a 55-year old gentleman who has suffered a stroke, develops a tremor...

    Incorrect

    • If a 55-year old gentleman who has suffered a stroke, develops a tremor in his fingers that worsens on reaching for an object, what part of his brain is likely to be involved?

      Your Answer: Motor nucleus of the thalamus

      Correct Answer: Cerebellum

      Explanation:

      The cerebellum plays an important role in the integration of sensory perception and motor output. Multiple neural pathways link the cerebellum with the motor cortex and the spinocerebellar tract. The cerebellum uses the constant feedback on body position to fine-tune the movements and integrates these pathways. The patient described here has a characteristic cerebellar tremor that is a slow, broad tremor of the extremities and occurs at the end of a purposeful movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the:

      Your Answer: Central sulcus

      Correct Answer: Postcentral gyrus

      Explanation:

      The primary somatic sensory cortex is located in the postcentral gyrus and is the largest cortical receiving area for information from somatosensory receptors. Through corticocortical fibres, it then sends the information to other areas of the neocortex and further analysis takes place in the posterior parietal association cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A man in his sixties underwent surgery to remove a lump from his...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his sixties underwent surgery to remove a lump from his axilla. During removal, a nerve originating from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus was damaged. Which nerve is this referring to?

      Your Answer: Thoracodorsal

      Correct Answer: Lateral pectoral

      Explanation:

      The only branch of the lateral cord of brachial plexus in the options given, is the lateral pectoral nerve. It supplies the pectoralis major muscle and sends a branch to join the medial pectoral nerve forming a loop in front of the first part of the axillary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25 year old male patient who had sustained a stab wound in...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old male patient who had sustained a stab wound in the middle of the posterior aspect of the left thigh, was discharged from hospital after dressing and antibiotic prophylaxis. Later on the patient developed bleeding through the wound and upon review, the source was discovered to be an artery that is the direct source of the medial and lateral circumflex arteries. Which is this artery that was injured?

      Your Answer: Profunda femoris artery

      Explanation:

      The medial and lateral circumflex arteries are direct branches of the Profunda femoris artery otherwise also known as the deep artery of the thigh. The Profunda femoris artery arises from the femoral artery just below the inguinal ligament (approximately 2-5cm below it).

      The following are the branches of the deep artery of the thigh:

      Lateral circumflex femoral artery

      Medial circumflex femoral artery

      Perforating arteries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      50.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient who has used NSAIDS for many years presents to the A&E...

    Correct

    • A patient who has used NSAIDS for many years presents to the A&E with symptoms of acute haemorrhagic shock. An emergency endoscopy is done that shows that a duodenal ulcer has perforated the posterior wall of the first part of the duodenum. Which artery is most likely to be the cause of the haemorrhage?

      Your Answer: Gastroduodenal

      Explanation:

      The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of the hepatic artery and descends near the pylorus between the first part of the duodenum and the neck of the pancreas to divide at the lower border of the duodenum into the right gastroepiploic and pancreaticoduodenal arteries. Before it divides, it gives off a few branches to the pyloric end of the stomach and to the pancreas. The artery that is most likely involved in this situation is the gastroduodenal artery since it is posterior to the first part of the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A neonate is diagnosed with cryptorchidism of the right side (undescended testis). Which...

    Incorrect

    • A neonate is diagnosed with cryptorchidism of the right side (undescended testis). Which is the LEAST likely place to find the testis?

      Your Answer: Somewhere in the inguinal canal

      Correct Answer: Perineum

      Explanation:

      Embryologically the testes are retroperitoneal structures in the posterior abdominal wall, attached to the anterolateral abdominal wall by the gubernaculum. The gubernaculum ‘pulls’ the testes through the deep inguinal ring, inguinal canal and superficial inguinal ring and over the pelvic brim. The gubernaculum is preceded by the processus vaginalis that is derived from the peritoneum anterior to the testes. The processus vaginalis pushes the muscle and fascial layers. These eventually make up the canal and the spermatic cord, into the scrotum. The gubernaculum persists as the scrotal ligament while part of the processus vaginalis remains as a bursa-like sac i.e. the tunica vaginalis testes. The testes therefore could be caught in any one of these places along its path of descending. The testes are never in the perineum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The lateral thoracic artery: ...

    Incorrect

    • The lateral thoracic artery:

      Your Answer: Is a branch of the brachial artery

      Correct Answer: Accompanies the long thoracic nerve to the serratus anterior muscle

      Explanation:

      The thoracic nerve, along with the lateral thoracic artery, follow the pectoralis minor to the side of the chest which supplies the serratus anterior and the pectoralis. It then sends branches across the axilla to the axillary glands and subscapularis. The pectoral branch of the thoraco-acromial anastomoses with the internal mammary, subscapular and intercostal arteries, which in women, supply an external mammary branch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Breast
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 5 year-old-child with fever complains of sore throat . She was brought...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year-old-child with fever complains of sore throat . She was brought to her paediatrician for consult because she has also developed a rash and has swollen lymph nodes. Upon physical examination she cried when her liver was palpated and the tip of her spleen is slightly palpable. Full blood count shows haemoglobin 13 g/dL, Haematocrit 40%, white blood cell count 13x109/L with a WBC differential count of 45 neutrophils, 4 bands, 26 lymphocytes, 15 atypical lymphocytesm, 10 monocytes and 1 eosinophil. Whick is the most likely infectious agent that is responsible for the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Rickettsia

      Correct Answer: Epstein–Barr virus

      Explanation:

      Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), also known as human herpes virus 4,is a member of the herpes virus family. EBV spreads most commonly through bodily fluids, primarily saliva. EBV can cause infectious mononucleosis. Symptoms of EBV can include fatigue, fever, inflamed throat, swollen lymph nodes in the neck, enlarged spleen, swollen liver and rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 65-year old man, known with Type 2 diabetes and chronic renal failure,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year old man, known with Type 2 diabetes and chronic renal failure, is likely to eventually present with which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Addison’s disease

      Correct Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      When the parathyroid glands secrete excess parathyroid hormone (PTH) in response to hypocalcaemia, it is known as Secondary hyperparathyroidism and is often seen in patients with renal failure. In chronic renal failure, the kidneys fail to excrete adequate phosphorus and also fail to convert enough vitamin D to its active form. This leads to formation of insoluble calcium phosphate in the body which ultimately causes hypocalcaemia. The glands then undergo hyperplasia and hypertrophy leading to secondary hyperparathyroidism. Symptoms include bone and joint pains, along with limb deformities. The raised PTH also results in pleiotropic effects on blood, the immune system and nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Point of entry of the vagal trunk into the abdomen: ...

    Incorrect

    • Point of entry of the vagal trunk into the abdomen:

      Your Answer: Lateral arcuate ligament

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal hiatus

      Explanation:

      The oesophageal hiatus is located in the muscular part of the diaphragm a T10 and is above, in front and a little to the left of the aortic hiatus. It transmits the oesophagus, the vagus nerves and some small oesophageal arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which nerve lies immediately medial to the psoas major muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve lies immediately medial to the psoas major muscle?

      Your Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Correct Answer: Obturator

      Explanation:

      The obturator nerve is formed from the ventral divisions of the 2nd, 3rd and 4th lumbar nerves. It courses through the fibres of the psoas major and emerges from the medial border near the pelvic brim.

      The iliohypogastric nerve comes from the first lumbar nerve and emerges from the upper part of the lateral border of psoas major.

      The ilioinguinal nerve arises with the iliohypogastric nerve from the first lumbar nerve and also emerges from the lateral border of the psoas major muscle.

      The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve comes from the posterior division of the 2nd and 3rd lumbar nerves to emerge from the lateral border of the psoas major muscle near its middle.

      The femoral nerve also arises from the dorsal divisions, but of the 2nd, 3rd and 4th lumbar nerves and courses through the muscle fibres to emerge at the lower part of the lateral border.

      The coccygeal nerve doesn’t arise from the lumbar plexus but from the sacral plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An experiment was conducted in which the skeletal muscle protein (not smooth muscle)...

    Incorrect

    • An experiment was conducted in which the skeletal muscle protein (not smooth muscle) involved in contraction was selectively inhibited. Which protein was inhibited?

      Your Answer: Actin

      Correct Answer: Troponin

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of contraction of smooth muscles is different from that of skeletal muscles in which the contractile protein is troponin whilst in smooth muscle contraction is a protein called calmodulin. Calmodulin reacts with calcium ions and stimulates the formation of myosin crossbridges.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      40.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 40 year old man from Japan was diagnosed with cancer of the...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old man from Japan was diagnosed with cancer of the oesophagus. He is to undergo esophagectomy. While mobilizing the oesophagus in the neck, for resection and anastomosis with the stomach tube on the left side, the surgeon must be cautious not to injure a vital structure. Which of the following is it?

      Your Answer: Thoracic duct

      Explanation:

      The oesophagus is divided into 3 portions: cervical (part that is in the neck), thoracic portion and the abdominal portion. The cervical part is bordered by the trachea anteriorly and the prevertebral fascia covering the bodies of the 6,7 and 8th vertebra posteriorly. The thoracic duct lies on the left side at the level of the sixth cervical vertebra. The carotid sheath with its contents and lower poles of the lateral lobes of thyroid gland are lateral. The thoracic duct is the structure most likely to be injured.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 55-years-old man presented to the emergency department complaining of a squeezing sensation...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-years-old man presented to the emergency department complaining of a squeezing sensation in his chest that has spread to his neck with associated worsening shortness of breath. Which of these laboratory tests would you ask for in this patient:

      Your Answer: Haematocrit

      Correct Answer: Creatine kinase-MB

      Explanation:

      Creatine kinase-MB is a test that usually is ordered when the patient has chest pain as a cardiac marker. When a heart attack is suspected and a troponin test (which is more specific for heart damage), is not available CK-MB is ordered. There are 3 forms of CK: CK-MM, CK-BB and CK-MB. CK-MB is commonly found in heart tissue, therefore injured heart muscle cells release CK-MB into the blood. Elevated CK-MB levels indicate that it is probable that a person has recently had a heart attack.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Where do the cells belonging to the mononuclear phagocyte system originate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where do the cells belonging to the mononuclear phagocyte system originate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bone marrow

      Explanation:

      The macrophage originates from a committed bone marrow stem cell. It is called the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell. This differentiates into a monoblast and then into a promonocyte and finally matures into a monocyte. When called upon they leave the bone marrow and enter into the circulation. Upon entering the tissue they transform into macrophages. Tissue macrophages include: Kupffer cells (liver), alveolar macrophages (lung), osteoclasts (bone), Langerhans cells (skin), microglial cells (central nervous system), and possibly the dendritic immunocytes of the dermis, spleen and lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (5/10) 50%
Endocrine; Embryology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (0/2) 0%
Physiology (1/4) 25%
Neurology (1/3) 33%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Pathology (3/5) 60%
Head & Neck (0/1) 0%
Upper Limb (0/1) 0%
Lower Limb (1/1) 100%
Abdomen (2/4) 50%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
General (1/1) 100%
Thorax (0/1) 0%
Inflammation & Immunology (1/1) 100%
Passmed