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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old rugby player suffers from an anterior cruciate ligament tear while pivoting...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old rugby player suffers from an anterior cruciate ligament tear while pivoting to attempt to run around another player. An MRI was performed and showed that his injury caused two other structures in the knee joint to be injured.

      Which of the following structures is most likely also injured?

      Your Answer: Medial meniscus

      Explanation:

      The O’Donoghue unhappy triad or terrible triad often occurs in contact and non-contact sports, such as basketball, football, or rugby, when there is a lateral force applied to the knee while the foot is fixated on the ground. This produces an abduction-external rotation mechanism of injury.

      The O’Donoghue unhappy triad comprises three types of soft tissue injury that frequently tend to occur simultaneously in knee injuries. O’Donoghue described the injuries as: anterior cruciate ligament tear, medial collateral ligament injury, and medial meniscal tear (lateral compartment bone bruise).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      98.2
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old man presents with haemoptysis, night sweats, and weight loss. Further examinations...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with haemoptysis, night sweats, and weight loss. Further examinations were done and a diagnosis of tuberculosis is suspected.

      Which of the following statements is considered correct regarding Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

      Your Answer: The Ghon focus typically appears at the base of the lower lobe of the lung

      Correct Answer: It is impervious to decolourisation with acid

      Explanation:

      Mycobacterium tuberculosis are part of the Mycobacteriaceae family. They are described to have the characteristics of a Gram-positive cell wall but they are not easily stained with Gram stain. This is because their cell wall contains a high lipid content, and this lipid allows the Mycobacteria to bind to alkaline stains with the application and help of heat. Once stained, they are able to resist decolorization even with the use of acid alcohol as the decolourizer, making them very difficult to decolorize, that is why they are known to be acid-fast.

      The Ghon complex is a non-pathognomonic radiographic finding on a chest x-ray that is significant for pulmonary infection of tuberculosis. The location of the Ghon’s focus is usually subpleural and predominantly in the upper part of the lower lobe and lower part of the middle or upper lobe.

      Skeletal tuberculosis of the spine is referred to as Pott disease.

      The risk of reactivation TB is about 3.3% during the first year after a positive PPD skin test and a total of 5% to 15% thereafter in the person’s lifetime. Progression from infection to active disease varies with age and the intensity and duration of exposure. Reactivation TB occurs when there is an alteration or suppression of the cellular immune system in the infected host that favours
      replication of the bacilli and progression to disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      253.8
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - A 2-day-old male is referred to a tertiary care hospital by the community...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day-old male is referred to a tertiary care hospital by the community midwife after a home visit due to jaundice and dyspnoea. After history and examination, the relevant blood work is performed, and the baby is found to have conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. The paediatric team suspects a hepatic origin for jaundice based on the findings.

      Which one of the following aetiologies is the most likely cause of jaundice in this case?

      Your Answer: Biliary atresia

      Correct Answer: Alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency

      Explanation:

      The presence of dyspnoea makes alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency the more likely diagnosis as biliary atresia does not cause respiratory symptoms. Deficiency of the enzyme alpha-1 antitrypsin causes uninhibited elastase activity and a decrease in elastic tissue. This causes liver cirrhosis leading to an elevation of conjugated bilirubin and emphysema in the lungs.

      Rhesus disease, hereditary spherocytosis and breast milk jaundice cause an elevation of unconjugated bilirubin thus ruling it out in this case. Breast milk jaundice occurs due to an inability of the newborn to metabolize the proteins in breast milk.

      Rhesus disease occurs when an Rh negative mother gives birth to an Rh positive baby. The jaundice would have been accompanied by anaemia and oedema.

      Hereditary spherocytosis occurs due to extravascular haemolysis as defective RBCs are removed by the spleen. The patient would present with jaundice, splenomegaly and possibly an aplastic crisis (if Parvovirus B19 infection).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      196.2
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - In the United Kingdom, which of the following is the most often used...

    Correct

    • In the United Kingdom, which of the following is the most often used intravenous aesthetic:

      Your Answer: Propofol

      Explanation:

      In the United Kingdom, propofol is the most widely used intravenous anaesthetic. In adults and children, it can be used to induce or maintain anaesthesia, although it is not commonly used in newborns. It can also be used to sedate individuals in intensive care and for sedation during operations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      135.5
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - Which of the following statements concerning the facial nerve is INCORRECT? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements concerning the facial nerve is INCORRECT?

      Your Answer: The facial nerve supplies taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.

      Correct Answer: Forehead sparing in facial nerve palsy is indicative of a lower motor neuron lesion.

      Explanation:

      In facial nerve palsy, LMN damage will involve the forehead and there will be an inability to close the eyes due to paralysis of the orbicularis oculi or raise the eyebrows due to paralysis of the occipitofrontalis muscle.
      UMN damage causes sparing of the forehead as the occipitofrontalis and orbicularis oculi muscles have bilateral cortical representation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      535.9
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - Regarding skeletal muscle contraction, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding skeletal muscle contraction, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: The force of contraction of a muscle is controlled by increasing the strength of contraction of muscle fibres.

      Correct Answer: The force of contraction of a muscle can be controlled by increasing recruitment of motor units.

      Explanation:

      Each motor unit contracts in an all or nothing fashion, i.e. if a motor unit is excited, it will stimulate all of its muscle fibres to contract. The force of contraction of a muscle is controlled by varying the motor unit recruitment (spatial summation), and by varying the firing rate of the motor units (temporal summation). During a gradual increase in contraction of a muscle, the first units start to discharge and increase their firing rate, and, as the force needs to increase, new units are recruited and, in turn, also increase their firing rate. For most motor units, the firing rate for a steady contraction is between 5 and 8 Hz. Because the unitary firing rates for each motor unit are different and not synchronised, the overall effect is a smooth force profile from the muscle. Increasing the firing rate of motor units is temporal summation where the tension developed by the first action potential has not completely decayed when the second action potential and twitch is grafted onto the first and so on. If the muscle fibres are stimulated repeatedly at a faster frequency, a sustained contraction results where it is not possible to detect individual twitches. This is called tetanus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      277.6
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - Regarding forest plots, which of the following is the purpose of this graph?...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding forest plots, which of the following is the purpose of this graph?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: To graphically display the relative strength of multiple studies attempting to answer the same question

      Explanation:

      The results of meta-analysis are often displayed graphically in a forest plot. A properly constructed forest plot is the most effective way to graphically display the relative strength of multiple studies attempting to answer the same question. A typical meta-analysis consists of three main objectives that include estimation of effect sizes from individual studies and a pooled summary estimate with their confidence intervals (CIs), heterogeneity among the studies, and any publication bias. The forest plot illustrates the first two of these objectives. Forest plots visualize the effect measure and CI of individual studies, which provide the raw data for the meta-analysis, as well the pooled-effect measure and CI. The individual studies also can be grouped in the forest plot by some of their characteristics for ease of interpretation such as by study size or year of publication. When comparing the outcomes between an intervention and a control group, dichotomous outcome variables are expressed as ratios (i.e. odds ratios, ORs or risk ratios, RRs), while for continuous outcomes, a weighted mean difference is reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - The last two segments of the nephrons are the distal convoluted tubule (DCT)...

    Incorrect

    • The last two segments of the nephrons are the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) and collecting duct (CD).

      Which cell reabsorbs sodium more in the late DCT and CD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Principal cells

      Explanation:

      The main Na+ reabsorbing cells in the late distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct are the principal cells. These make up the majority of the tubular cells.

      The exchange is driven by the Na.K.ATPase pumps on the basolateral membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - A young man develops an infection spread via aerosol transmission.

    Which of these organisms...

    Incorrect

    • A young man develops an infection spread via aerosol transmission.

      Which of these organisms is commonly spread by aerosol transmission?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Measles virus

      Explanation:

      Aerosols are airborne particles less than 5 µm in size, containing infective organisms that usually cause infection of the upper or lower respiratory tract.

      Examples of organisms commonly spread by aerosol transmission are:
      Measles virus
      Varicella zoster virus
      Mycobacterium tuberculosis

      The following table summarises the various routes of transmission with example organisms:
      Route of transmission
      Example organisms
      Aerosol (airborne particle < 5 µm)
      Mycobacterium tuberculosis
      Varicella zoster virus
      Measles virus

      Hepatitis A and Rotavirus are spread by the faeco-oral route.

      Neisseria gonorrhoea is spread by sexual route.

      Staphylococcus aureus is spread by direct contact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - Which of the following is first-line for management of status epilepticus: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is first-line for management of status epilepticus:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous lorazepam

      Explanation:

      First-line treatment is with intravenous lorazepam if available. Intravenous diazepam is effective but it carries a high risk of thrombophlebitis so should only be used if intravenous lorazepam is not immediately available. Absorption of diazepam from intramuscular injection or from suppositories is too slow for treatment of status epilepticus. When facilities for resuscitation are not immediately available or if unable to secure immediate intravenous access, diazepam can be administered as a rectal solution or midazolam oromucosal solution can be given into the buccal cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - In the emergency room, a patient was diagnosed with acute bacterial tonsillitis. Which...

    Incorrect

    • In the emergency room, a patient was diagnosed with acute bacterial tonsillitis. Which of the following postinfectious complications is most commonly linked to Streptococcus pyogenes:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) is caused by prior infection with specific nephritogenic strains of group A beta-haemolytic streptococcus. The clinical presentation of PSGN varies from asymptomatic, microscopic haematuria to the full-blown acute nephritic syndrome, characterized by red to brown urine, proteinuria (which can reach the nephrotic range), oedema, hypertension, and acute kidney injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - Which of the following is NOT a function of the commensal intestinal bacterial...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a function of the commensal intestinal bacterial flora:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breakdown of haem into bilirubin

      Explanation:

      Commensal intestinal bacterial flora have a role in:Keeping pathogenic bacteria at bay by competing for space and nutrientConverting conjugated bilirubin to urobilinogen (some of which is reabsorbed and excreted in urine) and stercobilinogen which is excreted in the faecesThe synthesis of vitamins K, B12, thiamine and riboflavinThe breakdown of primary bile acids to secondary bile acidsThe breakdown of cholesterol, some food additives and drugs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - Nifedipine commonly causes which of the following adverse effects? ...

    Incorrect

    • Nifedipine commonly causes which of the following adverse effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ankle oedema

      Explanation:

      Most common adverse effects of Nifedipine include:
      Peripheral oedema (10-30%)
      Dizziness (23-27%)
      Flushing (23-27%)
      Headache (10-23%)
      Heartburn (11%)
      Nausea (11%)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - Regarding dynamic compression of the airways, which of the following statements is CORRECT:...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding dynamic compression of the airways, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It occurs during forced expiration.

      Explanation:

      Dynamic compression occurs because as the expiratory muscles contract during forced expiration, all the structures within the lungs, including the airways, are compressed by the positive intrapleural pressure. Consequently the smaller airways collapse before the alveoli empty completely and some air remains within the lungs (the residual volume). Physiologically this is important as a completely deflated lung with collapsed alveoli requires significantly more energy to inflate. Dynamic compression does not occur in normal expiration because the intrapleural pressure is negative throughout the whole cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old man presents with headaches, lethargy, hypertension, and electrolyte disturbance. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with headaches, lethargy, hypertension, and electrolyte disturbance. A diagnosis of primary hyperaldosteronism is made.

      Which biochemical pictures would best support this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      When there are excessive levels of aldosterone outside of the renin-angiotensin axis, primary hyperaldosteronism occurs. High renin levels will lead to secondary hyperaldosteronism.

      The classical presentation of hyperaldosteronism when symptoms are present include:
      Hypokalaemia
      Metabolic alkalosis
      Hypertension
      Normal or slightly raised sodium levels

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - A patient presents with acute severe asthma. Her initial salbutamol nebulization produced a...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with acute severe asthma. Her initial salbutamol nebulization produced a poor response and you administer another nebuliser with ipratropium bromide added on.

      Which statement about ipratropium bromide is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It can trigger acute closed-angle glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Ipratropium bromide is an antimuscarinic drug. It is used in the management of acute asthma and COPD.

      It provides short-term relief in chronic asthma. Short-acting β2agonists are preferred and act more quickly.

      The commonest side effect of ipratropium bromide is dry mouth. Tremor is commonly seen with β2agonists.

      It can trigger acute closed-angle glaucoma in patients that are susceptible.

      First-line treatment for moderate asthma attacks is short-acting β2agonists.

      The BTS guidelines recommend that nebulised ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg 4-6 hourly) be added to β2agonist treatment in patients with a poor initial response to β2agonist therapy or with acute severe or life-threatening asthma.

      Its duration of action is 3-6 hours, maximum effect occurs 30-60 minutes after use, and bronchodilation can be maintained with three times per day dosing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - A 70-year-old patient is diagnosed with Cushing's disease. She has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old patient is diagnosed with Cushing's disease. She has a history of weight gain, hypertension, and easy bruising.

      In this patient, which of the following is the MOST LIKELY UNDERLYING CAUSE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pituitary adenoma

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s syndrome is a collection of symptoms and signs caused by prolonged exposure to elevated levels of either endogenous or exogenous glucocorticoids.

      The most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome is the iatrogenic administration of corticosteroids. The second most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome is Cushing’s disease.

      Cushing’s disease should be distinguished from Cushing’s syndrome and refers to one specific cause of the syndrome, an adenoma of the pituitary gland that secretes large amounts of ACTH and, in turn, elevates cortisol levels. This patient has a diagnosis of Cushing’s disease, and this is, therefore, the underlying cause in this case.

      The endogenous causes of Cushing’s syndrome include:
      Pituitary adenoma (Cushing’s disease)
      Ectopic corticotropin syndrome, e.g. small cell carcinoma of the lung
      Adrenal hyperplasia
      Adrenal adenoma
      Adrenal carcinoma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought in drowsy and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought in drowsy and confused. Her BM is 2.2 mmol/l and a dose of IM glucagon is administered.

      What is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Glucagon, a peptide hormone, is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas.

      Its main physiological role is stimulation of hepatic glucose output leading to increase in blood glucose. It is the major counter-regulatory hormone to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.

      The principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon is hypoglycaemia. Hypoglycaemia then stimulates:
      Glycogenolysis
      Gluconeogenesis
      Lipolysis in adipose tissue leading to increased glycaemia.

      Secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by arginine, alanine, adrenaline, acetylcholine and cholecystokinin

      Secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:
      Insulin
      Somatostatin
      Increased free fatty acids
      Increased urea production

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - Which of the following is NOT a heritable risk factor for venous thrombosis:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a heritable risk factor for venous thrombosis:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Von Willebrand disease

      Explanation:

      Approximately one-third of patients who suffer DVT or PE have an identifiable heritable risk factor, although additional risk factors are usually present when they develop the thrombosis. The history of a spontaneous DVT in a close relative increases an individual’s risk of DVT even if no known genetic predisposition can be identified.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of amiodarone: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of amiodarone:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blue/green teeth discolouration

      Explanation:

      Common side effects of amiodarone include: Bradycardia, Nausea and vomiting, Thyroid disorders – hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism, Persistent slate grey skin discoloration, Photosensitivity, Pulmonary toxicity (including pneumonitis and fibrosis), Hepatotoxicity, Corneal microdeposits (sometimes with night glare), Peripheral neuropathy and Sleep disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - Regarding protein digestion, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding protein digestion, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oligopeptides are broken down into small peptides and amino acids by pancreatic carboxypeptidases and aminopeptidases located on the brush border.

      Explanation:

      Digestion of dietary protein begins in the stomach where pepsin hydrolyses protein to polypeptides, and continues in the duodenum where pancreatic proteases (trypsin and chymotrypsin) continue the process of hydrolysis forming oligopeptides. These are further broken down into small peptides and amino acids by pancreatic carboxypeptidases and aminopeptidases located on luminal membrane epithelial cells. Free amino acids are absorbed across the apical membrane by secondary active transport coupled with Na+transport into the cell. Amino acids cross the basal membrane into the capillaries by facilitated diffusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - A 25 year old man presents to the emergency room with abdominal pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old man presents to the emergency room with abdominal pain, vomiting and constipation. A CT scan is done which is suggestive of Meckel's diverticulum. Where does the blood supply of the Meckel's diverticulum originate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s diverticulum has certain classic characteristics.
      1. It lies on the antimesenteric border of the middle-to-distal ileum
      2. It is approximately 2 feet proximal to the ileocaecal junction
      3. It appears as a blind-ended tubular outpouching of bowel
      4. It is about 2 inches long,
      5. It occurs in about 2% of the population,
      6. It may contain two types of ectopic tissue (gastric and pancreatic).
      7. The diverticulum is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery.
      8. Proximal to the major duodenal papilla the duodenum is supplied by the gastroduodenal artery (branch of the coeliac trunk)
      9. Distal to the major duodenal papilla it is supplied by the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery (branch of superior mesenteric artery).
      10. The arterial supply to the jejunoileum is from the superior mesenteric artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - A somatostatinoma is diagnosed in a 74-year-old patient who has recently developed diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • A somatostatinoma is diagnosed in a 74-year-old patient who has recently developed diabetes mellitus, recurrent episodes of gallstones, and Steatorrhoea. She also  has a tumour in the head of her pancreas.

      Which of the following is the most likely effect of this tumour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit gastric acid secretion

      Explanation:

      Somatostatin-producing cells present in the pyloric antrum, duodenum, and pancreatic islets are known as D-cells or delta-cells. Somatostatin inhibits gastric acid secretion by acting directly on acid-producing parietal cells in the stomach via a G-protein coupled receptor.

      Somatostatin affects hormones in the following ways:
      Inhibits the anterior pituitary’s secretion of growth hormone.
      Inhibits the anterior pituitary’s secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone.

      The secretion of various gastrointestinal hormones is inhibited (including gastrin, CCK, secretin, motilin, VIP and GIP)

      Reduces the rate at which the stomach empties.
      Inhibits the release of insulin and glucagon from the pancreas.

      The pancreas’ exocrine secretory activity is inhibited.
      Somatostatin can also slow the digestive process by suppressing the production of hormones such gastrin, secretin, and histamine, which reduces gastric acid secretion.

      A somatostatinoma is a cancerous tumour of the endocrine pancreas’ D-cells, which make somatostatin. Somatostatin inhibits pancreatic and gastrointestinal hormones when levels are high. The following clinical characteristics are related with somatostatinomas:

      Insulin secretion blockage causes diabetes mellitus.
      Gallstones by inhibition of CCK and secretin Steatorrhoea via inhibition of CCK and secretin

      Hypochlorhydria is caused by the suppression of gastrin, a hormone that increases gastric acid output regularly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - An 18-year-old student presents with a 1-week history of sore throat, low grade...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old student presents with a 1-week history of sore throat, low grade fever, and malaise. Upon history taking, she noted that she had a fine rash over her body a week ago that quickly fades. Further examination and observation was done and the presence of mild splenomegaly was noted. Her test shows positive for heterophile antibody test, suspecting a diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis.

      Which of the following characteristics is mostly associated with the diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atypical lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      Epstein-Barr virus causes infectious mononucleosis which is a clinical entity characterized by sore throat, cervical lymph node enlargement, fatigue and fever.

      It is accompanied by atypical large peripheral blood lymphocytes. These atypical lymphocytes, also known as Downey cells, are actually activated CD8 T lymphocytes, most of which are responding to EBV-infected cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - 1-alpha-hydroxylase is a cytochrome p450 enzyme that is involved in the production of...

    Incorrect

    • 1-alpha-hydroxylase is a cytochrome p450 enzyme that is involved in the production of vitamin D's hormonally active metabolite.

      Which of the following promotes the activity of 1-alpha-hydroxylase?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      1-alpha-hydroxylase converts 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol in the kidney.

      The key regulatory point in the formation of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol is 1-alpha-hydroxylase, which is promoted by parathyroid hormone or hypophosphatemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - Which of the following muscles is NOT involved in depression of the mandible:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles is NOT involved in depression of the mandible:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Masseter

      Explanation:

      Depression of the mandible is generated by the digastric, geniohyoid, mylohyoid and lateral pterygoid muscles on both side, assisted by gravity. The lateral pterygoid muscles are also involved as this movement also involves protraction of the mandible. The masseter muscle is a powerful elevator of the mandible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - Langhans giant cells, seen in granulomatous inflammation. are: ...

    Incorrect

    • Langhans giant cells, seen in granulomatous inflammation. are:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multinucleated cells formed from fusion of epithelioid cells

      Explanation:

      A granuloma is a collection of five or more epithelioid macrophages, with or without attendant lymphocytes and fibroblasts; epithelioid macrophages are altered macrophages which have turned themselves over to becoming giant phagocytosing and killing machines, they often fuse to become multinucleate (Langhans) giant cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old man suffers from a shoulder injury that damaged the nerve that...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man suffers from a shoulder injury that damaged the nerve that innervates the infraspinatus muscle.

      Which of the following nerves may most likely be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The suprascapular nerve

      Explanation:

      The suprascapular nerve (C5-C6) innervates the infraspinatus. It originates at the superior trunk of the brachial plexus. It runs laterally across the lateral cervical region to supply the infraspinatus and also the supraspinatus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - A blood test of a 7-year-old child with a 6-day history of bloody...

    Incorrect

    • A blood test of a 7-year-old child with a 6-day history of bloody diarrhoea reveals a low platelet count, anaemia, and impaired kidney function. What bacteria is suspected of causing such a condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Escherichia coli produces shiga toxin that causes diarrhoea, hemorrhagic colitis, and haemolytic uremic syndrome.

      Haemolytic uremic syndrome is characterized by anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute renal failure. Transmission of E. coli is possible after consuming contaminated, undercooked drinks and foods. E. coli enters the body via the faecal-oral pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - A patient suffers a stab wound to the neck. The entry point of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient suffers a stab wound to the neck. The entry point of the blade is situated within the posterior triangle of the neck.
      Which of the following muscles is most likely to be involved? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior scalene

      Explanation:

      The anterior triangle is the triangular area of the neck found anteriorly to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. It is formed by the anterior border of sternocleidomastoid laterally, the median line of the neck medially and by the inferior border of the mandible superiorly. The apex of the anterior triangle extends towards the manubrium sterni. The anterior triangle contains:
      Muscles: thyrohyoid, sternothyroid, sternohyoid muscles
      Organs: thyroid gland, parathyroid glands, larynx, trachea, esophagus, submandibular gland, caudal part of the parotid gland
      Arteries: superior and inferior thyroid, common carotid, external carotid, internal carotid artery (and sinus), facial, submental, lingual arteries
      Veins: anterior jugular veins, internal jugular, common facial, lingual, superior thyroid, middle thyroid veins, facial vein, submental vein, lingual veins
      Nerves: vagus nerve (CN X), hypoglossal nerve (CN XII), part of sympathetic trunk, mylohyoid nerve

      The posterior triangle is a triangular area found posteriorly to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. It has three borders; anterior, posterior and inferior borders. The anterior border is the posterior margin of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The posterior border is the anterior margin of the trapezius muscle, while the inferior border is the middle one-third of the clavicle. The investing layer of deep cervical fascia and integument forms the roof of the space, while the floor is covered with the prevertebral fascia along with levator scapulae, splenius capitis and the scalene muscles. The inferior belly of omohyoid subdivides the posterior triangle into a small supraclavicular, and a large occipital, triangle.
      Contents:
      Vessels: the third part of the subclavian artery, suprascapular and transverse cervical branches of the thyrocervical trunk, external jugular vein, lymph nodes
      Nerves: accessory nerve (CN XI), the trunks of the brachial plexus, fibers of the cervical plexus
      Of the muscles listed in the options, only the anterior scalene is situated within the posterior triangle of the neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
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Anatomy (1/2) 50%
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General Pathology (0/1) 0%
Pathology (0/1) 0%
Anaesthesia (1/1) 100%
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