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  • Question 1 - Paracentesis of ascetic fluid in a 45-year old woman revealed the following :...

    Incorrect

    • Paracentesis of ascetic fluid in a 45-year old woman revealed the following : clear, yellow fluid with protein 2.0 g/dl and a few mesothelial and mononuclear cells seen. No malignant cells seen. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Crohn’s disease

      Correct Answer: Cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      Ascites develops either from:

        • Increased  accumulation
          • Increased capillary permeability
          • Increased venous pressure
          • Decreased protein (oncotic pressure)
        • Decreased clearance
          • Increased lymphatic obstruction

      Cause

      • Transudate (<30g/L protein) (Systemic disease)
        • Liver (Cirrhosis)
        • Cardiac e.g. RHF, CCF, SBE right heart valve disease and constrictive Pericarditis
        • Renal failure
        • Hypoalbuminaemia (nephrosis)
      • Exudate (>30g/L protein) (Local disease)
        • Malignancy
        • Venous obstruction e.g. Budd-Chiari, Schistosomiasis
        • Pancreatitis
        • Lymphatic obstruction
        • Infection (especially TB)

      Cirrhosis is disease of the liver that is characterized by fibrosis leading to disorganization of the hepatic architecture. It shows the development of regenerative nodules surrounded by dense fibrotic tissue. Cirrhosis shows non-specific symptoms initially, which include fatigue, anorexia and weight loss. It can later progress to portal hypertension, ascites and liver failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      190.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following will be affected by a lesion in the posterior...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following will be affected by a lesion in the posterior column-medial lemniscus system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fine touch

      Explanation:

      The posterior column–medial lemniscus (PCML) pathway is a sensory pathway that transmits fine touch and conscious proprioceptive information from the body to the brain. As the posterior columns are also known as dorsal columns, the pathway is also called the dorsal column–medial lemniscus system or DCML.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
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  • Question 3 - A 50 year-old man, who sustained a head injury experienced sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 year-old man, who sustained a head injury experienced sudden onset of horizontal double vision. He is diagnosed with lateral rectus palsy. Which of the following nerves is affected in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abducent

      Explanation:

      The lateral rectus muscle is one of the 6 extra-ocular muscles that control eye movements. It is responsible for abduction and is the only muscle that is innervated by the abducens nerve (CN VI).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
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  • Question 4 - Where does the ejaculatory duct open into? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where does the ejaculatory duct open into?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostatic urethra

      Explanation:

      There are two ejaculatory ducts, one on either side of the midline. Each ejaculatory duct is formed by the union of the duct from the seminal vesicles with the ductus deferens. They start at the base of the prostate and run forward and downward between the middle and lateral lobes and along the side of the prostatic utricle to end in the prostatic urethra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
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  • Question 5 - A cell is classified on the basis of its regenerative ability. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A cell is classified on the basis of its regenerative ability. Which of the following cells represent a permanent cell?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythrocyte

      Explanation:

      An erythrocyte is the last cell in the progeny of RBC cell division and is not capable of further division and regeneration. Hepatocytes, osteocytes and epithelium of kidney tubules are all stable cells. Colonic mucosa and pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells are all labile cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
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  • Question 6 - During a case presentation, a 26 year old is said to have fractured...

    Incorrect

    • During a case presentation, a 26 year old is said to have fractured his pelvis and shattered his coccyx following a motorbike accident. It is mentioned that he is likely to have lacerated his middle sacral artery from this kind of injury. Where does the middle sacral artery branch from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal aorta

      Explanation:

      The middle sacral artery arises from behind the aorta a little above the point of its bifurcation to descend down in front of L4,5, the sacrum and coccyx.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
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  • Question 7 - The following joint has an anastomotic circulation that is provided by branches of...

    Incorrect

    • The following joint has an anastomotic circulation that is provided by branches of the brachial artery:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elbow joint

      Explanation:

      The arterial anastomoses of the elbow joint is contributed by branches of the brachial artery and the Profunda brachii artery. The brachial artery gives off the superior ulnar collateral artery and the inferior collateral artery. On the other hand, the Profunda brachii gives off the radial and medial recurrent arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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  • Question 8 - A 45 year old female had a stroke and was diagnosed with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old female had a stroke and was diagnosed with a homonymous hemianopsia. Which of the following structures was likely affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Optic radiation

      Explanation:

      Hemianopia or hemianopsia, is the loss of vision of half of the eye or loss of half the visual field. Homonymous hemianopia is the loss of vision or blindness on half of the same side of both eyes (visual field) – either both lefts of the eyes or both rights of the eyes. This condition is mainly caused by cerebrovascular accidents like a stroke that affects the optic radiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
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  • Question 9 - A computer tomography guided needle biopsy is done on a patient with a...

    Incorrect

    • A computer tomography guided needle biopsy is done on a patient with a cystic swelling in the left chest. The radiologist inserted the biopsy needle into the 9th intercostal space along the mid axillary line to aspirate the swelling and obtain tissue for histological diagnosis. In which space is the swelling most likely to be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes the diaphragmatic pleura. At the midclavicular line, this is found between ribs 6 and 8; at the paravertebral lines, between ribs 10 and 12 and between ribs 8 and 10 at the midaxillary line.

      The cardiac notch: is an indentation of the heart on the left lung, located on the anterior surface of the lung.

      Cupola: part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib.

      Oblique pericardial sinus: part of the pericardial sac located posterior to the heart behind the left atrium.

      Costomediastinal recess: a reflection of the pleura from the costal surface to the mediastinal surface, is on the anterior surface of the chest.

      The inferior mediastinum: is the space in the chest occupied by the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
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  • Question 10 - A 60 year old patient with a history of carcinoma of the head...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 year old patient with a history of carcinoma of the head of the pancreas, and obstructive jaundice presents with a spontaneous nose bleed and easy bruising. What is the most likely reason for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin-K-dependent clotting factors deficiency

      Explanation:

      Vitamin K is a fat soluble vitamin requiring fat metabolism to function properly to allow for its absorption. People with obstructive jaundice develop vitamin k deficiency as fat digestion is impaired. Vit K causes carboxylation of glutamate residue and hence regulates blood coagulation including: prothrombin (factor II), factors VII, IX, X, protein C, protein S and protein Z.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
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  • Question 11 - A young women following a road traffic accident suffered heavy blood loss and...

    Incorrect

    • A young women following a road traffic accident suffered heavy blood loss and developed subsequent anaemia. Which of the following is a consequence of this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A high reticulocyte count

      Explanation:

      Anaemia refers to a decrease in the circulating levels of haemoglobin in the blood resulting in a reduced ability of the body to transport oxygen effectively. Anaemia from blood loss results in the body further compensating by releasing stored RBCs and immature RBCs from the bone marrow. Thus resulting in a high reticulocyte count.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
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  • Question 12 - Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a multidrug resistant pathogen that causes hospital-acquired infections. It is...

    Incorrect

    • Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a multidrug resistant pathogen that causes hospital-acquired infections. It is usually treated with piperacillin or another antibiotic. Which of the following is the other antibiotic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Azlocillin

      Explanation:

      Azlocillin, like piperacillin, is an acylampicillin antibiotic with an extended spectrum of activity and greater in vitro potency than the carboxypenicillins. Azlocillin is similar to mezlocillin and piperacillin. It demonstrates antibacterial activity against a broad spectrum of bacteria, including Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 13 - Which nerve mediates the sensation to itch from the skin that is just...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve mediates the sensation to itch from the skin that is just over the base of the spine of your scapula?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dorsal primary ramus of C7

      Explanation:

      The first branches off spinal nerves are called the dorsal and ventral rami. The dorsal rami mediate sensation of the skin over the back and motor supply to the true muscles of the back whilst the ventral rami gives sensation to the skin over the limbs and the skin that is over the ventral side of the trunk. It also gives motor supply to the skeletal muscles of the neck, the trunk and extremities. Hence, itchiness of the part of the skin that is over the spine of the scapula would be mediated by the primary ramus of C7. Accessory nerve doesn’t have any sensory innervation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Neurology
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  • Question 14 - The following structures DO NOT lie between the layers of the mesosalpinx except...

    Incorrect

    • The following structures DO NOT lie between the layers of the mesosalpinx except for the?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fallopian tube

      Explanation:

      Mesosalpinx is the portion of the broad ligament that stretches from the fallopian tube to the ovary and contains the uterine tubes between it’s layers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
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  • Question 15 - What is expected from complete transection of the inferior gluteal nerve when it...

    Incorrect

    • What is expected from complete transection of the inferior gluteal nerve when it emerges from the greater sciatic foramen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extension of the thigh would be the action most affected

      Explanation:

      As the inferior gluteal nerve emerges from the greater sciatic foramen below the piriformis muscle, it divides into branches and enters the gluteus maximus muscle which extends the femur and bends the thigh in line with the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
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  • Question 16 - The gynaecologist suspects that her patient has a cervical cancer. What particular test...

    Incorrect

    • The gynaecologist suspects that her patient has a cervical cancer. What particular test should be done on this patient to screen for cervical cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pap smear

      Explanation:

      Worldwide, approximately 500,000 new cases of cervical cancer and 274,000 deaths are attributable to cervical cancer yearly. This makes cervical cancer the second most common cause of death from cancer in women. The mainstay of cervical cancer screening has been the Papanicolaou test (Pap smear).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
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  • Question 17 - A young man was thrown from a vehicle in a collision. He landed...

    Incorrect

    • A young man was thrown from a vehicle in a collision. He landed on his head and shoulder tip, stretching the left side of his neck. A neurological examination revealed that the fifth and sixth cervical nerves had been torn from the spinal cord. What is the most obvious clinical manifestation of this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abduction

      Explanation:

      In the case of injuries to the upper roots of the brachial plexus there is complete loss of abduction. The muscle performing this movement is the supraspinatus. This initiates the movement, followed by the deltoid muscle, which allows for complete abduction. Both these muscles are innervated by nerves originating from C5 and C6. The injury to these roots results in a condition named Erb-Duchenne’s palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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  • Question 18 - A 60-year-old man complains of pain in his left thigh. An X-ray reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man complains of pain in his left thigh. An X-ray reveals bowing of the affected femur, increased bone density, bony enlargement, abnormal bone architecture with coarse cortical trabeculations, and stress microfractures. Which is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paget’s disease of bone

      Explanation:

      Paget’s disease of bone is a chronic disorder of the adult skeleton in which bone turnover is accelerated in localised areas, replacing normal matrix with softened and enlarged bone and causing gradual pain and deformity in some cases. It is more predominant in men over the age of 40. Characteristic X-ray findings include increased bone density, abnormal architecture with coarse cortical trabeculation or cortical thickening, bowing and bony enlargement; there might also be stress microfractures of the tibia or femur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
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  • Question 19 - A 34-year-old Asian male presents with cervical lymphadenopathy. The patient is suspected to...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old Asian male presents with cervical lymphadenopathy. The patient is suspected to have tuberculous lymphadenopathy. Excision biopsy of one of the nodes showed granulomatous inflammation. Which histopathologic feature is most likely consistent with the diagnosis of tuberculosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Caseation necrosis

      Explanation:

      The granulomas of tuberculosis tend to contain necrosis (caseating tubercles), but non-necrotizing granulomas may also be present. Multinucleated giant cells with nuclei arranged like a horseshoe (Langhans giant cells) and foreign body giant cells are often present, but are not specific for tuberculosis. A definitive diagnosis of tuberculosis requires identification of the causative organism by microbiological cultures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
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  • Question 20 - In a young, sexually active male, what is the most common cause of...

    Incorrect

    • In a young, sexually active male, what is the most common cause of non-gonococcal urethritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia

      Explanation:

      Non-gonococcal urethritis is most commonly caused by Chlamydia trachomatis (50% cases). Less common organisms include Mycoplasma genitalium, Urea urealyticum and Trichomonas vaginalis. Chlamydia is also the commonest cause of non-gonococcal cervicitis in women and proctitis in both sexes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary (0/1) 0%
Pathology (0/1) 0%
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