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  • Question 1 - Which of the following statement is correct regarding the difference between dabigatran and...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statement is correct regarding the difference between dabigatran and other anticoagulants?

      Your Answer: Competitive thrombin inhibitor blocking both free and bound thrombin

      Explanation:

      Dabigatran template is a prodrug and its active metabolite is a direct thrombin inhibitor. It is a synthetic, reversible, non-peptide thrombin inhibitor. This inhibition of thrombin results in a decrease of fibrin and reduces platelet aggregation.

      Drugs like warfarin act by inhibiting the activation of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. These factors are synthesized by the liver and activated by gamma-carboxylation of glutamate residues with the help of vitamin K. Hydroquinone form of vitamin K is converted to epoxide form in this reaction and regeneration of hydroquinone form by enzyme vitamin K epoxide reductase (VKOR) is required for this activity. Oral anticoagulants prevent this regeneration by inhibiting VKOR, thus vitamin K-dependent factors are not activated. These factors include clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X as well as anti-clotting proteins, protein C and protein S.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      90.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effects of Dopamine...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effects of Dopamine infusions?

      Your Answer: Decreasing gastric transit time

      Explanation:

      Moderately high doses of dopamine produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to Noradrenaline release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

      Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

      At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A patient with a known history of asymptomatic ventriculoseptal defect (VSD) is to...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a known history of asymptomatic ventriculoseptal defect (VSD) is to undergo an orthopaedic surgery under general anaesthesia. The rest of the patient's medical history, such as allergies and previous operations, are unremarkable.

      What is the best antibiotic prophylaxis prior to surgery?

      Your Answer: Either a dose of co-amoxiclav IV or a dose of dose of cefuroxime IV and metronidazole IV as antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis, but also a second dose after surgery

      Correct Answer: No antibiotic prophylaxis required as the defect is repaired and no evidence of benefit from routine prophylaxis

      Explanation:

      According to the 2015 National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) Guidelines, antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis (IE) is not recommended routinely for people with any cardiac defect (corrected or uncorrected) due to lack of sufficient evidence regarding its benefits. Instead, antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for those who are at risk of developing IE, such as those with acquired valvular heart disease with stenosis or regurgitation; hypertrophic cardiomyopathy; valve replacement; and previous IE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - In asthmatic patients, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory analgesics (NSAIDs) are generally contraindicated.

    Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • In asthmatic patients, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory analgesics (NSAIDs) are generally contraindicated.

      Which of the following membrane phospholipid metabolism products is most likely to cause NSAID-induced bronchospasm in asthmatic patients who are predisposed to it?

      Your Answer: Thromboxane (TXA2)

      Correct Answer: Leukotrienes

      Explanation:

      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) cause bronchospasm, rhinorrhoea, and nasal obstruction in some asthma patients.

      The inhibition of cyclooxygenase-1 (Cox-1) appears to be the cause of NSAID-induced reactions. This activates the lipoxygenase pathway, which increases the release of cysteinyl leukotrienes (Cys-LTs), which causes bronchospasm and nasal obstruction.

      The following changes in arachidonic acid (AA) metabolism have been observed in NSAID-intolerant asthmatic patients:

      Prostaglandin E2 production is low, possibly due to a lack of Cox-2 regulation.
      An increase in leukotriene-C4 synthase expression and
      A decrease in the production of metabolites (lipoxins) released by AA’s transcellular metabolism.

      Phospholipase A produces membrane phospholipids, which are converted to arachidonic acid.

      TXA2 causes vasoconstriction as well as platelet aggregation and adhesion.

      PGI2 causes vasodilation and a reduction in platelet adhesion.

      PGE2 is involved in parturition initiation and maintenance, as well as thermoregulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A single intravenous dose of 100 mg phenytoin was administered to a 70...

    Correct

    • A single intravenous dose of 100 mg phenytoin was administered to a 70 kg patient and plasma concentration monitored.

      The concentration in plasma over time is recorded as follows:

      Time (hours) 1 2 3 4 5
      Concentration (mcg/mL) 100 71 50 35.5 25

      From the data available, the drug is likely eliminated by?

      Your Answer: First-order kinetics with a half-life of 2 hours

      Explanation:

      Elimination of phenytoin from the body follows first-order kinetics. This means that the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.

      The rate of elimination can be described by the equation:

      C = C0·e-kt

      Where:

      C = drug concentration
      C0 = drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated)
      k = Rate constant
      t = Time

      Enzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations exceed the normal range and elimination of the drug becomes zero-order. At this point, the drug is metabolised at a fixed rate and metabolism is independent of plasma concentration.

      Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are other drugs that behave this way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - All of the following statements are false regarding tetracyclines except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are false regarding tetracyclines except:

      Your Answer: Are safe in pregnancy

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits (not 50s) which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

      They penetrate macrophages and are thus a drug of choice for treating infections due to intracellular organisms.

      Tetracycline does not inhibit transpeptidation. Meanwhile, it is chloramphenicol which is responsible for inhibiting transpeptidation.

      Tetracycline can get deposited in growing bone and teeth due to its calcium-binding effect and thus causes dental discoloration and dental hypoplasia. Due to this reason, they should be avoided in pregnant or lactating mothers.

      Simultaneous administration of aluminium hydroxide can impede the absorption of tetracyclines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 26-year old male patient was admitted to the surgery department for appendectomy....

    Correct

    • A 26-year old male patient was admitted to the surgery department for appendectomy. Medical history revealed that he has major depressive disorder and was on Phenelzine. Aside from abdominal pain, initial assessment was unremarkable. However, thirty minutes after, the patient was referred to you for generalized seizures. He was given an analgesic and it was noted that, during the first 15 minutes of administration, he became anxious, with profuse sweating, which later developed into seizures. Upon physical examination, he was febrile at 38.3°C.

      Which of the following statements is the best explanation for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Drug interaction with pethidine

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture best describes a probable drug interaction with pethidine.

      Phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor, when given with pethidine, an opioid analgesic, may lead to episodes of hypertension, rigidity, excitation, hyperpyrexia, seizures, coma and death. Studies have shown that pethidine reacts more significantly with MAO inhibitors than morphine.

      When pethidine is metabolised to normeperidine, it acts as a serotonin reuptake inhibitor and cause an increase in serotonin levels in the brain. MAO inhibitors can also lead to elevated levels of serotonin because of its mechanism of action by inhibiting the enzyme monoamine oxidase that degrades serotonin.

      The excess serotonin levels may lead to serotonin syndrome, of which some of the common precipitating drugs are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, MAO inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants, meperidine, and St. John’s Wort. Onset of symptoms is within hours, which includes fever, agitation, tremor, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis.

      Drug interaction between phenelzine and paracetamol do not commonly precipitate serotonin syndrome.

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is due to dopamine antagonism, precipitated commonly by antipsychotics. Its onset of symptoms occur in 1 to 3 days, and is characterized by fever, encephalopathy, unstable vitals signs, elevated CPK, and rigidity.

      Altered mental status is the most common manifestation of sepsis-associated encephalopathy. Patient also exhibit confusional states and inappropriate behaviour. In some cases, this may lead to coma and death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following statement is not true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is not true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits Glucagon secretion in the pancreas

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline acts on ?1, ?2,?1, and ?2 receptors and also on dopamine receptors (D1, D2) and have sympathomimetic effects.

      Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

      Adrenaline is a sympathomimetic amine with both alpha and beta-adrenergic stimulating properties.
      Adrenaline is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock
      Adrenaline is also used in patients with cardiac arrest. The preferred route is i.v. followed by the intra-osseous and endotracheal route.

      Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.

      It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.

      It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.

      It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas. It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 9 - Which of the following drugs can have significant clinical effects on neonates when...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs can have significant clinical effects on neonates when used in appropriate doses for a caesarean section?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alfentanil

      Explanation:

      Opioid should be avoided in the caesarean section as it crosses the placental membrane and causes respiratory depression.

      Even though inhalational and intravenous anaesthetic agents readily cross the placenta, they do not have significant effects on APGAR score when used in clinical doses.

      Vecuronium and suxamethonium are highly polar molecules and thus do not cross the placenta in significant amounts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 10 - Which of the following statements is true regarding ketamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding ketamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Can be used in the management of refractory status epilepticus

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is a phencyclidine (hallucinogenic) derivative that is administered in a dose of 2 mg/kg and acts by blocking NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptors of glutamate.

      It is a powerful bronchodilator agent and is, therefore, an intravenous anaesthetic of choice in bronchial asthma (halothane is an inhalational anaesthetic agent of choice for bronchial asthma). It is also used in the management of refractory status epilepticus.

      It is an acid solution with an elimination half-life of three hours.

      It has S (+) enantiomer and R (-) enantiomer. the S(+) enantiomer is two to four times more potent than the R(-) and is less likely to produce hallucinations.

      Its use is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease because it increased sympathetic outflow leading to tachycardia and increased cardiac output which in turn increases the myocardial oxygen demand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which drug, if given to a pregnant woman, can lead to deleterious fetal...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug, if given to a pregnant woman, can lead to deleterious fetal effects due to its ability to cross the placenta?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atropine

      Explanation:

      It is well known that atropine will cross the placenta and that maternal administration results in an increase in fetal heart rate.

      Atropine is highly selective for muscarinic receptors. Its potency at nicotinic receptors is much lower, and actions at non-muscarinic receptors are generally undetectable clinically. Atropine does not distinguish among the M1, M2, and M3 subgroups of muscarinic receptors. In contrast, other antimuscarinic drugs are moderately selective for one or another of these subgroups. Most synthetic antimuscarinic drugs are considerably less selective than atropine in interactions with nonmuscarinic receptors.

      A study on glycopyrrolate, a quaternary ammonium salt, was found to have a fetal: maternal serum concentration ratio of 0.4 indicating partial transfer.

      Heparin, suxamethonium, and vecuronium do not cross the placenta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following statements is not correct regarding dopamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is not correct regarding dopamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crosses the blood brain barrier

      Explanation:

      Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.

      The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.

      Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

      Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

      At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.

      Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.

      It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2–1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 13 - Which of the following drug can be the first-line drug for both broad...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drug can be the first-line drug for both broad and narrow complex tachyarrhythmia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is the longest-acting anti-arrhythmic drug. It possesses the action of all classes of antiarrhythmic drugs (Sodium channel blockade, Beta blockade, Potassium channel blockade, and Calcium channel blockade). Due to this property, it has the widest anti-arrhythmic spectrum and thus can be used in both broad and narrow complex tachyarrhythmia.

      Adenosine is shortest acting anti-arrhythmic drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 14 - Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Noradrenaline? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Noradrenaline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Predominantly work through effects on ?-adrenergic receptors

      Explanation:

      Noradrenaline also called norepinephrine belongs to the catecholamine family that functions in the brain and body as both a hormone and neurotransmitter.

      They have sympathomimetic effects acting via adrenoceptors (?1, ?2,?1, ?2, ?3) or dopamine receptors (D1, D2).

      May cause reflex bradycardia, reduce cardiac output and increase myocardial oxygen consumption

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following statements is the most correct about ketamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is the most correct about ketamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The S (+) isomer is more potent that the R (-) isomer

      Explanation:

      Ketamine, a phencyclidine derivative, is an antagonist at the NMDA receptor. It causes depression of the CNS that is dose dependent and induces a dissociative anaesthetic state with profound analgesia and amnesia.

      Ketamine has a chiral centre usually presented as a racemic mixture with two optical isomers, S (+) and R (-) forms. These isomers are in equal proportions. The S (+) isomer is about three times more potent than the R (-) form. The S (+) form is less likely to cause emergence delirium and hallucinations.

      Ketamine is extensively metabolised by hepatic microsomal cytochrome P450 enzymes producing norketamine as its main metabolite. Norketamine has a one third to one fifth as potency as its parent compound.
      It increases the CMRO2, cerebral blood flow and potentially increase intracranial pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 16 - Among the different classes of anti-arrhythmics, which one is the first line treatment...

    Incorrect

    • Among the different classes of anti-arrhythmics, which one is the first line treatment for narrow complex AV nodal re-entry tachycardia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adenosine

      Explanation:

      Adenosine is the first line for AV nodal re-entry tachycardia. An initial dose of 6 mg is given, and a consequent second dose or third dose of 12 mg is administered if the initial dose fails to terminate the arrhythmia.

      Aside from Adenosine, a vagal manoeuvre (e.g. carotid massage) is done to help terminate the supraventricular arrhythmia.

      Amiodarone is not a first-line drug for supraventricular tachycardias. Digoxin and Propranolol can be considered if the arrhythmia is of a narrow complex irregular type. Verapamil is an alternative to Adenosine if the latter is contraindicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 17 - Which of the following statement is false regarding dopamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is false regarding dopamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urine output decreases due to inhibition of proximal tubule Na+ reabsorption

      Explanation:

      Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.

      The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of Dopamine dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.

      Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

      Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

      At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.

      Dopamine is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline

      Regarding dopamine part of the dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 18 - A 23-year-old man who is currently on fluoxetine for depression was anaesthetized two...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man who is currently on fluoxetine for depression was anaesthetized two hours ago for knee arthroscopy. He seems agitated, confused, with a heart rate of 120 beats per minute, a temperature of 38.2oC, and developed difficulty moving his limbs.

      He is on paracetamol and tramadol for analgesia. Which of the following is the most likely cause for his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tramadol

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 19 - All of the following statements about intravenous induction agents are false except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements about intravenous induction agents are false except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Thiopental is a new British Approved Name for thiopentone and is thio-barbiturate.
      Methohexitone is an oxy- barbiturate. Both thiopental and methohexitone are intravenous induction agents.

      Ketamine cannot cause loss of consciousness in less than 30 seconds. At least 30 seconds is needed to cause loss of consciousness following intravenous administration.

      Etomidate is an imidazole but it is not used in the Intensive Care unit for sedation because it has an antidepressant effect on the steroid axis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 20 - A 70-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department with:
    Pulse rate:...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department with:
      Pulse rate: 32 beats per minute
      Blood pressure: 82/35 mmHg
      12 lead ECG shows a sinus bradycardia of 35 beats per minute with no evidence of myocardial ischemia or infarction. There was no chest pain but the patient feels light-headed.

      Which of the following would be the best initial treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atropine

      Explanation:

      Based on the presenting symptoms and clinical examination, it is a case of an adult sinus bradycardia with adverse signs. The first pharmacological treatment for this condition is atropine 500mcg intravenously and if necessary repeat every three to five minutes up to a maximum of 3 mg.

      If the bradycardia does not subside even after the administration of atropine, cardiac pacing should be considered. If pacing cannot be achieved promptly, we should consider the use of second-line drugs like adrenaline, dobutamine, or isoprenaline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 21 - A 6-year-old child is scheduled for general anaesthesia day surgery. You decide to...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old child is scheduled for general anaesthesia day surgery. You decide to perform an inhalational induction because he is otherwise medically fit.

      Which of the following is the most important factor in deciding which volatile anaesthetic agents to use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The low blood:gas solubility of sevoflurane

      Explanation:

      The ideal volatile agent for a day case surgery inhalational induction should have the following characteristics:

      It has a pleasant scent that is not overpowering.
      Breathing difficulties, coughing, or laryngeal spasm are not caused by this substance.
      The action has a quick onset and a quick reversal.

      The blood:gas partition coefficient is a physicochemical property of a volatile agent that determines the onset and offset of anaesthesia. The greater an agent’s insolubility in plasma, the faster its alveolar concentration rises.

      The blood gas partition coefficients of the most commonly used volatile anaesthetic agents are as follows:
      Halothane 2.3
      Desflurane 0.45
      Sevoflurane 0.6
      Nitrous oxide 0.47
      Isoflurane 1.4

      Although halothane has a pleasant odour, it has a slower offset than sevoflurane.

      Sevoflurane also has a pleasant odour and is less likely than desflurane to cause airway irritation and breath-holding.

      The choice of agent for inhalational induction is unaffected by potency/lipid solubility measures such as the oil: gas partition coefficient and MAC.

      In this case, an agent’s saturated vapour pressure is irrelevant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 22 - A log-dose response curve is plotted after drug A is given. The shape...

    Incorrect

    • A log-dose response curve is plotted after drug A is given. The shape of this curve is sigmoid, with a maximum response of 100%.

      The log-dose response curve of drug A shifts to the right with a maximum response of 100 percent when drug B is administered.

      What does this mean in terms of drug B?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Drug B has affinity for the receptor but has no intrinsic efficacy

      Explanation:

      Drug A is a pure agonist for the receptor, with high intrinsic efficacy and affinity, according to the log-dose response curve.

      Drug B, on the other hand, works as a competitive antagonist. It binds to the receptor but has no inherent efficacy. Drug A’s efficacy will not change, but its potency will be reduced.

      A partial agonist is a drug with partial intrinsic efficacy and affinity for the receptor. Giving a partial agonist after a pure agonist will not increase receptor occupancy or decrease receptor activity, and thus will not affect drug A’s efficacy. The inverse agonist flumazenil can reverse all benzodiazepines.

      An inverse agonist is a drug that binds to the receptor but has the opposite pharmacological effect.

      A non-competitive antagonist is a drug that has affinity for a receptor but has different pharmacological effects and reduces the efficacy of an agonist for that receptor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 23 - An 18-year old female was brought into the emergency room because of active...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year old female was brought into the emergency room because of active seizures. The informant reported that it has been more than 5 minutes since the patient started seizing. The attending physician gave an initial diagnosis of status epilepticus.

      According to the paramedics who brought in the patient, 10 mg of diazepam was given rectally. Upon physical examination, she was normotensive at 120/80 mmHg; tachycardic at 138 beats per minute; tachypnoeic at 24 breaths per minute; and well-saturated at 99% on high flow oxygen. Her random blood glucose level was normal at 7.0 mmol/L.

      Given this situation and an initial diagnosis of status epilepticus, what would be the best initial anti-epileptic drug to administer to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Lorazepam is an intermediate-acting benzodiazepine that binds to the GABA-A receptor subunit to increase the frequency of chloride channel opening and facilitate membrane hyperpolarization. It is the preferred treatment for status epilepticus, although Diazepam can also be used as an alternative.

      Lorazepam has a longer duration of action than Diazepam, and binds with greater affinity to the GABA-A receptor subunit.

      Phenobarbital is a barbiturate that acts on the GABA-A receptor site to increase the duration of chloride channel opening. Barbiturates, particularly phenobarbital, is considered the drug of choice for seizures in infants.

      Phenytoin is a sodium-channel blocker that is given for generalized tonic-clonic seizures, partial seizures, and status epilepticus. Phenytoin is preferred in prolonged therapy for status epilepticus because it is less sedating.

      Propofol or thiopentone is preferred when airway protection is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 24 - A weakly acidic drug with a pKa of 8.4 is injected intravenously into...

    Incorrect

    • A weakly acidic drug with a pKa of 8.4 is injected intravenously into a patient.

      At a normal physiological pH, the percentage of this drug unionised in the plasma is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 90

      Explanation:

      Primary FRCA is concerned with two issues. The first is a working knowledge of the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, and the second is a working knowledge of logarithms and antilogarithms.

      The pH at which the drug exists in 50 percent ionised and 50 percent unionised forms is known as the pKa.

      To calculate the proportion of ionised to unionised form of a drug, use the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation.

      pH = pKa + log ([A-]/[HA])

      or

      pH = pKa + log [(salt)/(acid)]
      pH = pKa + log ([ionised]/[unionised])

      Hence, if the pKa − pH = 0, then 50% of drug is ionised and 50% is unionised.

      In this example:
      7.4 = 8.4 + log ([ionised]/[unionised])
      7.4 − 8.4 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])
      log −1 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])

      Simply put, the antilog is the inverse log calculation. In other words, if you know the logarithm of a number, you can use the antilog to find the value of the number. The antilogarithm’s definition is as follows:

      y = antilog x = 10x

      Antilog to the base 10 of 0 = 1, −1 = 0.1, −2 = 0.01, −3 = 0.001 and, −4 = 0.0001.

      [A-]/[HA] = 0.1

      Assuming that we can apply the approximation [A-] << [HA} then this means the acid is 0.1 x 100% = 10% ionised so the percentage of (non-ionized) acid will be 100% – 10% = 90%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 25 - Sugammadex binds to certain drugs that affect neuromuscular function during anaesthesia in a...

    Incorrect

    • Sugammadex binds to certain drugs that affect neuromuscular function during anaesthesia in a stereospecific, non-covalent, and irreversible manner.

      It has the greatest impact on the activity of which of the following drugs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vecuronium

      Explanation:

      Sugammadex is a modified cyclodextrin that works as an aminosteroid neuromuscular blocking (nmb) reversal agent. By encapsulating each molecule in the plasma, it rapidly reverses rocuronium and, to a lesser extent, vecuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade. Consequently, a  concentration gradient favours the movement of these nmb agents away from the neuromuscular junction.  Pancuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade at low levels has also been reversed.

      By inhibiting voltage-dependent calcium channels at the neuromuscular junction, antibiotics in the aminoglycoside group potentiate neuromuscular blocking agents. This can be reversed by giving calcium but not neostigmine or sugammadex.

      Sugammadex will not reverse the effects of mivacurium, which belongs to the benzylisoquinolinium class of drugs.

      A phase II or desensitisation block occurs when the motor end-plate becomes less sensitive to acetylcholine as a result of an overdose or repeated administration of suxamethonium. The use of neostigmine has been shown to be effective in reversing this weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 26 - About low molecular weight (LMW) heparin, Which of these is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • About low molecular weight (LMW) heparin, Which of these is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is excreted in the urine

      Explanation:

      Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) creates a complex by binding to antithrombin. This complex binds with and inactivates factor Xa.

      There is less risk of bleeding with LMWH because it binds less to platelets, endothelium and von Willebrand factor.

      LMW binds Xa more readily. The shorter chains are less likely to bind both antithrombin and thrombin.

      There is need for monitoring in renal impairment because LMHW is excreted in the urine (and partly by hepatic metabolism)

      LMWH have been shown to be as efficacious as unfractionated heparin. It is also safer and have improved inpatient stay and reduced hospital cost.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 27 - Which of the following statements most accurately describes a drug's efficacy or intrinsic...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements most accurately describes a drug's efficacy or intrinsic activity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Describes the ability of a drug to produce a therapeutic effect

      Explanation:

      An agonist is a molecule with intrinsic efficacy and affinity for a receptor. The ability of a drug-receptor interaction to produce a maximal response is referred to as intrinsic efficacy or activity. Efficacy also refers to a drug’s ability to have a therapeutic or beneficial effect. Although the potencies of morphine and fentanyl differ, they both have the same intrinsic efficacy.

      The amount of drug required to produce a given effect is referred to as potency. If drug X is effective in a dose of 100 mcg, its potency is greater than if drug Y is effective in a dose of 10 mg.

      The therapeutic index, also known as the margin of safety, is a ratio of the lethal or serious side effect dose of a drug divided by the therapeutic dose of the same drug.

      The term bioavailability refers to the ability of a substance to be absorbed. The area under a curve (AUC) of a graphic plot of plasma concentration and time is used to calculate oral bioavailability. It’s used to figure out how much of a drug to take and when to take it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 28 - Which of the following is true regarding the mechanism of action of daptomycin?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding the mechanism of action of daptomycin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interferes with the outer membrane of gram positive bacteria resulting in cell death

      Explanation:

      Daptomycin alters the curvature of the membrane, which creates holes that leak ions. This causes rapid depolarization, resulting in loss of membrane potential. Thus it interferes with the outer membrane of gram-positive bacteria resulting in cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding soda lime? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding soda lime?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It mostly contains sodium hydroxide

      Explanation:

      Soda-lime contains mostly calcium hydroxide (about 94%) and remaining sodium hydroxide.

      CO2 + Ca(OH)2 → CaCO3 + H2O + heat
      Here in this exothermic reaction, we can see that the production of calcium carbonate does not require heat.

      When soda lime is allowed to dry with subsequent use of desflurane, isoflurane, and enflurane, it can lead to the generation of carbon monoxide.

      Silica hardens the granules and can thus prevent disintegration.

      The size of soda-lime granules is 4-8 mesh because it allows sufficient surface area for chemical reaction to occur without critically increasing the resistance to airflow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 30 - Which of the following does Lidocaine 1% solution equate to? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does Lidocaine 1% solution equate to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1000 mg per 100 ml

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine 1% is formulated as 1000 mg/100 mL.

      % solution is based on (grams of medicine) / 100 ml

      % solution ~ (1000 mg) / 100 ml

      % solution ~ 10 mg/ml

      Examples:

        • Lidocaine 4% = 40 mg/ml of Lidocaine
        • Lidocaine 2% = 20 mg/ml of Lidocaine
        • Lidocaine 1% = 10 mg/ml of Lidocaine

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 31 - Gentamicin is a drug used for the treatment of bronchiectasis. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Gentamicin is a drug used for the treatment of bronchiectasis. Which of the following is true regarding the mechanism of action of gentamicin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit the 30S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      Gentamicin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic whose mechanism of action involves inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosomes. Its major adverse effect is nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

      Aminoglycoside bind to 30s subunit of ribosome causing misreading of mRNA

      Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

      Chloramphenicol binds to the 50s subunit and inhibits peptidyl transferase

      Clindamycin binds to the 50s ribosomal subunit of bacteria and disrupts protein synthesis by interfering with the transpeptidation reaction, which thereby inhibits early chain elongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 32 - You've been summoned to help resuscitate a 6-year-old child who has suffered a...

    Incorrect

    • You've been summoned to help resuscitate a 6-year-old child who has suffered a cardiac arrest. The ECG monitor shows electrical activity that isn't pulsed.

      Which of the following statements is the most appropriate during resuscitation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The dose of intravenous adrenaline is 180 mcg

      Explanation:

      To begin, one must determine the child’s approximate weight. There are a variety of formulas to choose from. It is acceptable to use the advanced paediatric life support formula:

      (Age + 4) 2 = Weight

      A 5-year-old child will weigh around 18 kilogrammes.

      10 mcg/kg (0.1 ml/kg of 1 in 10 000 adrenaline) = 180 mcg is the appropriate dose of intravenous or intraosseous adrenaline.

      The correct energy level to deliver is 4 J/kg, which equals 72 joules.

      The pad size that is appropriate for this patient is 8-12 cm. For an infant, a 4.5 cm pad is appropriate.

      To allow adequate separation in infants and small children, the pads should be placed anteriorly and posteriorly on the chest.

      When using a bag and mask to ventilate, take two breaths for every 15 chest compressions. If chest compressions are being applied intubated and without interruption, a ventilation rate of 10-20 breaths per minute should be given.

      Chest compressions should be done at a rate of 100-120 per minute, the same as an adult.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 33 - A 35-year-old male presents to GP presenting an area of erythema which was...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male presents to GP presenting an area of erythema which was around a recent cut on his right forearm. He was prescribed a short course of antibiotics and after 5 days again presented with progressive fatigue, headaches, and fevers.
      On clinical examination:
      Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
      Respiratory rate: 22 per minute
      Heart rate: 100 beats per minute
      Blood pressure: 105/76 mmHg
      Temperature: 38.2 degree Celsius

      On physical examination, a dramatic increase in the area of erythema was noted.
      Blood culture was done in the patient and indicated the presence of bacterium containing beta-lactamase. Which of the following antibiotics was likely prescribed to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Ciprofloxacin belongs to the quinolone group of antibiotics, and doxycycline and minocycline are tetracyclines. So, they are not affected by beta-lactamase.
      However, amoxicillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic and beta-lactamase cleaves the beta-lactam ring present in amoxicillin. This results in the breakdown of the antibiotic and thus the area of erythema dramatically increased.
      Co-amoxiclav contains amoxicillin and clavulanic acid which protects amoxicillin from beta-lactamase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 34 - Typical sigmoid log dose-response curves are seen in agonists and are used to...

    Incorrect

    • Typical sigmoid log dose-response curves are seen in agonists and are used to compare efficacy and potency. Which of the following opioids has a log dose-response curve furthest to the right?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tramadol

      Explanation:

      Lesser the potency of the drug, the higher the dose required to produce maximal receptor occupation. So, the least potent drug will have a log dose-response curve furthest to the right on X-axis.

      Based on the option given, tramadol is the least potent drug and thus higher dose is required to produce maximal opioid receptor occupation.

      Thus, Tramadol is the least potent opioid with a log dose-response curve furthest to the right on X-axis.

      Note, Fentanyl is the most potent opioid with a log dose-response curve furthest to the left on the X-axis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 35 - A 2-year old male is admitted to the surgery ward for repair of...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year old male is admitted to the surgery ward for repair of an inguinal hernia. He weighs 10 kg. To provide post-operative analgesia, levobupivacaine was administered into the epidural space.

      Given the information above, what is the most appropriate dose for the hernia repair?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.25% 7.5 ml

      Explanation:

      Caudal analgesia using bupivacaine is a widely employed technique for achieving both intraoperative and early postoperative pain relief. 0.5 ml/kg of 0.25% plain bupivacaine is favoured by many practitioners who employ this fixed scheme for procedures involving sacral dermatomes (circumcision, hypospadias repair) as well as lower thoracic dermatomes (orchidopexy). However, there are other dosing regimens for caudal blocks with variable analgesic success rates: These include 0.75 ml/kg, 1.0 ml/kg and 1.25 ml/kg.

      A study indicated that plain bupivacaine 0.25% at a dose of 0.75 ml/kg compared to a dose of 0.5 ml/kg when administered for herniotomies provided improved quality of caudal analgesia with a low side effects profile. There were consistently more patients with favourable objective pain scale (OPS) scores at all timelines, increased the time to the analgesic request with similar postoperative consumption of paracetamol in the group of patients who received 0.75 ml/kg of 0.25% bupivacaine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 36 - Which of the following statements is true regarding antibiotics? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding antibiotics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus colonises the nasopharynx in >20% of the general population

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcus aureus colonizes the nasopharynx in >20% of the general population.

      Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is resistant to flucloxacillin.

      Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF). THF is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.

      All ?-lactam antibiotics like penicillin interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The ?-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 37 - Because this benzodiazepine has a half-life of 2-4 hours, it is preferred for...

    Incorrect

    • Because this benzodiazepine has a half-life of 2-4 hours, it is preferred for clinical use.

      This benzodiazepine has which of the following properties that no other benzodiazepine has?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is water soluble at a pH of 3.5 and lipid soluble at a pH of 7.4

      Explanation:

      Midazolam is the benzodiazepine in question. It’s the only benzodiazepine that undergoes tautomeric transformation (dynamic isomerism). The molecule is ionised and water soluble at pH 3.5, but when injected into the body at pH 7.4, it becomes unionised and lipid soluble, allowing it to easily pass through the blood brain barrier.

      The half-life of midazolam is only 2-4 hours.

      It is a GABAA receptor agonist because it is a benzodiazepine. GABAA receptors are found in abundance throughout the central nervous system, particularly in the cerebral cortex, hippocampus, thalamus, basal ganglia, and limbic system. GABAA receptors are ligand-gated ion channels, with the inhibitory neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid as the endogenous agonist. It is a pentameric protein (2, 2 and one subunit) that spans the cell membrane, and when the agonist interacts with the alpha subunit, a conformational change occurs, allowing chloride ions to enter the cell, resulting in neuronal hyperpolarization.

      For status epilepticus, midazolam is not the drug of choice. Lorazepam is the benzodiazepine of choice for status epilepticus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 38 - A balanced general anaesthetic including a muscle relaxant is administered at induction. It...

    Incorrect

    • A balanced general anaesthetic including a muscle relaxant is administered at induction. It is observed that the train-of-four count is two after two hours, with no further doses of the muscle relaxant.

      What is most likely reason for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mivacurium with plasma cholinesterase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Mivacurium is metabolised primarily by plasma cholinesterase at an In vitro rate of about 70% that of succinylcholine. Mivacurium is contraindicated in patients with genetic and acquired plasma cholinesterase deficiencies.

      The clearance of atracurium is by Hoffman degradation and ester hydrolysis in the plasma and is independent of both hepatic and renal function.

      Rocuronium is eliminated primarily by the liver after metabolises to a less active metabolite, 17-desacetyl-rocuronium. Its duration of action is not affected much by renal impairment.

      Vecuronium undergoes hepatic metabolism into 3-desacetyl-vecuronium which has 50-80% the activity of the parent drug. It undergoes biliary (40%) and renal excretion (30%). The aminoglycoside antibiotics possess additional neuromuscular blocking activity. The potency of gentamicin > streptomycin > amikacin. Calcium can be used to reverse the muscle weakness produced by gentamicin but not neostigmine. When vecuronium and gentamycin are given together the effect on neuromuscular blockade is synergistic.

      Significant residual neuromuscular block 2 hours after the administration of these drugs is unlikely In this scenario.

      Any recovery from neuromuscular blockade with suxamethonium in a patient with deficiency of plasma cholinesterase demonstrate four twitches on a train of four count.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 39 - Under general anaesthesia, a 48-year-old patient is scheduled for some dental extractions. He...

    Incorrect

    • Under general anaesthesia, a 48-year-old patient is scheduled for some dental extractions. He tells you that he has a heart murmur and that he has always received antibiotic prophylaxis at the dentist. There are no allergies that he is aware of.

      Which antibiotic prophylaxis strategy is most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prophylactic antibiotics are unnecessary for this patient

      Explanation:

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines on infective endocarditis prophylaxis (IE). The goal was to create clear guidelines for antibiotic prophylaxis in patients undergoing dental procedures as well as certain non-dental interventional procedures. A number of studies have found an inconsistent link between recent interventional procedures and the development of infective endocarditis in both dental and non-dental procedures.

      Antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis is not advised or required in the following situations:

      Dental patients undergoing procedures
      Patients undergoing procedures involving the upper and lower gastrointestinal tracts, the genitourinary tract (including urological, gynaecological, and obstetric procedures, as well as childbirth), and the upper and lower respiratory tract (including ear, nose and throat procedures and bronchoscopy).

      Antibiotic resistance can be exacerbated by the indiscriminate use of prophylactic antibiotics, but this is not the primary reason for avoiding their use in these situations.

      To reduce the risk of endocarditis, any patient who is at risk of developing IE should be investigated and treated as soon as possible. Patients with the following conditions are at risk of developing IE:
      acquired valvular heart disease with regurgitation or stenosis
      previous valve replacement
      structural congenital heart disease
      past history of IE, or
      hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM)

      It would also be appropriate for high-risk dental procedures and those with severe gingival disease.

      Although this patient may not have structural heart disease, ABs should be administered on a case-by-case basis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 40 - Which one of the following pharmacokinetic models is most suitable for target-controlled infusion...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following pharmacokinetic models is most suitable for target-controlled infusion (TCI) of propofol in paediatric patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kataria

      Explanation:

      Marsh (adult) model, when used with children caused over-estimation of plasma concentration. To address this issue Kataria et al developed a three-compartmental model for propofol in children. The pharmacokinetic models used by Target controlled infusion (TCI) systems are used to calculate the relative sizes of the central (vascular), vessel-rich peripheral, and vessel-poor peripheral compartments. The relative volumes of these compartments are different in young children when compared to adults.

      Kataria, therefore, is the correct option as described above.

      The Maitre model is a three-compartmental model for alfentanil TCI.

      The Marsh model describes a propofol TCI model for adults

      The Minto model applies to TCI remifentanil.

      The Schnider model is also an adult model for propofol that incorporates age and lean body mass as covariates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 41 - Ondansetron is serotonin antagonist indicated for post-operative nausea and vomiting.

    In which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Ondansetron is serotonin antagonist indicated for post-operative nausea and vomiting.

      In which of the following anatomic structures does ondansetron produce its effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nucleus tractus solitarius

      Explanation:

      Ondansetron is a serotonin antagonist at the 5HT3 receptor. 5HT3 receptors in the gastrointestinal tract and in the vomiting centre of the medulla participate in the vomiting reflex. They are particularly important in vomiting caused by chemical triggers such as cancer chemotherapy drugs.

      The nucleus solitarius is the recipient of all visceral afferents, and an essential part of the regulatory centres of the internal homeostasis, through its multiple projections with cardiorespiratory and gastrointestinal regulatory centres. It participates in the reflexes of the nerves innervating the nucleus, so it mediates cough reflex, carotid sinus reflex, gag reflex, and vomiting reflex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 42 - Which of the following is the best marker of mast cell degranulation in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the best marker of mast cell degranulation in a patient with suspected anaphylaxis who became hypotensive and developed widespread urticarial rash after administration of Augmentin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tryptase

      Explanation:

      Mast cell tryptase is a reliable marker of mast cell degranulation. Tryptase is a protease enzyme that acts via widespread protease-activated receptors (PARs).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 43 - Modified rapid sequence induction with 1mg/kg rocuronium was done is a 42-year-old male...

    Incorrect

    • Modified rapid sequence induction with 1mg/kg rocuronium was done is a 42-year-old male for emergency appendicectomy. The patient weight was 70 kg and a failed intubation indicated immediate reversal of neuromuscular blockade.

      Which of the following is the correct dose of sugammadex for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1120 mg

      Explanation:

      Sugammadex is used for immediate reversal of rocuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade.
      It is used at a dose of 16 mg/kg.

      Since the patient in the question is 70 kg, the required dose of sugammadex can be calculated as:
      16×70 = 1120 mg.

      Sugammadex selectively binds rocuronium or vecuronium, thereby reversing their neuromuscular blocking action. Due to its 1:1 binding of rocuronium or vecuronium, it can reverse any depth of neuromuscular block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 44 - When administered as an infusion, which of the following medicines causes a reflex...

    Incorrect

    • When administered as an infusion, which of the following medicines causes a reflex tachycardia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phentolamine

      Explanation:

      The ?-2 adrenoceptor has three subtypes (2a, 2b and 2c). The receptors are generally presynaptic, meaning they prevent noradrenaline from being released at nerve endings. Both the central and peripheral nerve systems are affected by the ?-2 agonists. ?-2 agonists cause drowsiness, analgesia, and euphoria centrally in the locus coeruleus (in the brainstem), lower the MAC of volatile anaesthetic drugs, and are used to treat acute withdrawal symptoms in chronic opioid addicts.

      The most common impact of ?-2 agonists on heart rate is bradycardia. The adrenoreceptors ?-1 and ?-2 are blocked by phenoxybenzamine.

      Clonidine is a selective agonist for the ? -2 receptor, having a 200:1 affinity ratio for the ?-2: ?-1 receptors, respectively.

      Tizanidine is similar to clonidine but has a few key variances. It has the same sedative, anxiolytic, and analgesic characteristics as clonidine, although for a shorter period of time and with less effect on heart rate and blood pressure.

      Dexmedetomidine, like clonidine, is a highly selective ?-2 adrenoreceptor agonist having a higher affinity for the ?-2 receptor. In the case of ?-2: ?-1 receptors, the affinity ratio is 1620:1. It has a biphasic blood pressure impact and induces a brief rise in blood pressure and reflex bradycardia (activation of ?-2b subtypes of receptors in vascular smooth muscles), followed by a reduction in sympathetic outflow from the brainstem and hypotension/bradycardia.

      A prodrug is methyldopa. It blocks the enzyme dopa-decarboxylase, which converts L-dopa to dopamine (a precursor of noradrenaline and adrenaline). It is also converted to alpha-methyl noradrenaline, a centrally active agonist of the ?-2 adrenoreceptor. These two processes contribute to its blood pressure-lowering effect. Without a rise in heart rate, cardiac output is generally maintained. The heart rate of certain patients is slowed.

      Phentolamine is a short-acting antagonist of peripheral ?-1 and ?-2 receptors that causes peripheral vascular resistance to reduce and vasodilation to increase. It’s used to treat hypertensive situations that aren’t life threatening (e.g. hypertension from phaeochromocytoma).

      A baroreceptor reflex commonly causes reflex tachycardia when systemic vascular resistance drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 45 - A subject in a study is to take 100 mg of tramadol tablets...

    Incorrect

    • A subject in a study is to take 100 mg of tramadol tablets for the next eight hours. Urine samples will be taken during the 8-hour course, which will undergo analysis via liquid chromatography.

      Given the following metabolites, which one would have the highest analgesic property?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mono-O-desmethyl-tramadol

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 46 - A young woman presented with a gynaecological related infection and was prescribed a...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman presented with a gynaecological related infection and was prescribed a cephalosporin. Which of the following is correct about the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibition

      Explanation:

      Cephalosporin belongs to a family of beta-lactam antibiotics. All ?-lactam antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The ?-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place i.e. they inhibit bacterial cell wall formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 47 - Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of lowering blood pressure by...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of lowering blood pressure by nitroglycerine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitric oxide

      Explanation:

      Nitroglycerine is rapidly denitrated enzymatically in the smooth muscle cell to release the free radical nitric oxide (NO).

      Released NO activated cytosolic guanylyl cyclase which increases cGMP (cyclin guanosine monophosphate) which causes dephosphorylation of myosin light chain kinase (MLCK) through a cGMP-dependent protein kinase.

      Reduced availability of phosphorylated (active) MLCK interferes with activation of myosin and in turn, it fails to interact with actin to cause contraction. Consequently, relaxation occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 48 - A 54-year-old man weighing 70kg, underwent mesh repair for inguinal hernia under general...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man weighing 70kg, underwent mesh repair for inguinal hernia under general anaesthesia. He was given intravenous co-amoxiclav (Augmentin) following which the patient developed widespread urticarial ras, became hypotensive (61/30 mmHg), and showed clinical signs of bronchospasm. Anaphylaxis is suspected in this patient.

      Which one of the following is considered as best initial pharmacological treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous adrenaline 50 mcg

      Explanation:

      The drug of choice for the treatment of anaphylaxis is adrenaline. It has an intravenous route of administration. Since the patient already has intravenous access, the intramuscular route is not appropriate.

      Second-line pharmacological intervention includes the use of chlorpheniramine 10mg intravenous, Hydrocortisone 200mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 49 - A 16-year-old female presented to the hospital with a chief complaint of headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female presented to the hospital with a chief complaint of headache, photophobia, fever, and confusion. She is treated empirically with antibiotics. Which of the following represents the correct mechanism of action of the most commonly used first-line antibiotic class?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

      Explanation:

      Based on the presenting symptoms, this is the case of bacterial meningitis. The treatment of choice for bacterial meningitis is a cephalosporin. Cephalosporin acts by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 50 - The pharmacologically inactive precursor of barbiturates is Barbituric acid. Because the molecule is...

    Incorrect

    • The pharmacologically inactive precursor of barbiturates is Barbituric acid. Because the molecule is heterocyclic, small structural changes can alter its pharmacological activity (structure function relationship).

      Which of the following modifications to the molecule has the greatest impact on the effectiveness of the barbiturate derivative?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sulphur at C2

      Explanation:

      Barbituric acid is the barbiturates’ pharmacologically inactive precursor. A pyrimidine heterocyclic nucleus is formed by the condensation of urea and malonic acid. Its pharmacological activity can be influenced by minor structural changes (structure function relationship).

      The duration of action and potency as a sedative are influenced by the length of the side chains at C5. Barbiturates with three carbon atoms in their chain last longer than those with two. Anticonvulsant properties are enhanced by branched chains.

      The addition of a methyl group at N1 causes a faster onset/offset of action, but it also causes excitatory phenomena (twitching/lower convulsive threshold).

      The addition of oxygen and sulphur to C2 increases the molecule’s lipid solubility and thus its potency. Thiopentone (thiobarbiturate) has sulphur groups at C2, making it 20-200 times more lipid soluble than oxybarbiturates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 51 - Monitoring of which of the following is indicated in the prevention of propofol...

    Incorrect

    • Monitoring of which of the following is indicated in the prevention of propofol infusion syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lactate

      Explanation:

      Propofol infusion syndrome (PRIS) is characterized by lactic acidosis, bradyarrhythmia, rhabdomyolysis, cardiac and renal failure, and often leads to death. So, lactate monitoring is advised in patients with propofol infusion syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 52 - You are given an intravenous induction agent. The following are its characteristics:

    A racemic mixture...

    Incorrect

    • You are given an intravenous induction agent. The following are its characteristics:

      A racemic mixture of cyclohexanone rings with one chiral centre
      Local anaesthetic properties.

      Which of the following statements about its primary mechanism of action is most accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non-competitive antagonist affecting Ca2+ channels

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is the substance in question. Its structure and pharmacodynamic effects make it a one-of-a-kind intravenous induction agent. The molecule is made up of two cyclohexanone rings (2-(O-chlorophenyl)-2-methylamino cyclohexanone and 2-(O-chlorophenyl)-2-methylamino cyclohexanone). Ketamine has local anaesthetic properties and acts primarily on the brain and spinal cord.

      It affects Ca2+ channels as a non-competitive antagonist for the N-D-methyl-aspartate (NMDA) receptor. It also acts as a local anaesthetic by interfering with neuronal Na+ channels.

      Ketamine causes profound dissociative anaesthesia (profound amnesia and analgesia) as well as sedation.

      Phenoxybenzamine, an alpha-1 adrenoreceptor antagonist, is an example of an irreversible competitive antagonist. It forms a covalent bond with the calcium influx receptor.

      Benzodiazepines are GABAA receptor agonists that affect chloride influx.

      Flumazenil is an inverse agonist that affects GABAA receptor chloride influx.

      Ketamine is a cyclohexanone derivative that acts as a non-competitive Ca2+ channel antagonist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 53 - One of the following neuromuscular blocking agents is the most potent: ...

    Incorrect

    • One of the following neuromuscular blocking agents is the most potent:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vecuronium

      Explanation:

      The measure of drug potency or therapeutic response is the ED95. This is defined as the dose of a neuromuscular blocking drug required to produce a 95% depression of muscle twitch height. The ED50 and ED90 describe a depression of twitch height by 50% and 90% respectively.

      The ED95 (mg/kg) of the commonly used neuromuscular blocking agents are:

      suxamethonium: 0.27
      rocuronium: 0.31
      vecuronium: 0.04
      pancuronium: 0.07
      cisatracurium: 0.04
      mivacurium: 0.08

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 54 - Which of the following statements is true regarding Entonox? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding Entonox?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exists only in gaseous form in a cylinder (under normal working conditions)

      Explanation:

      Entonox is a gas that consists of 50% oxygen and 50% Nitrous oxide. Nitrous oxide is sometimes used for anaesthetics but in this combination, it works as a short-acting painkiller.

      Under normal working conditions, it exists only in gaseous form in a cylinder. The gauge pressure of a full Entonox cylinder is 137 bar.

      Entonox cylinders should be stored horizontally at a temperature above 0 C. At temperatures below this the nitrous oxide component may separate.

      Pseudocritical temperature and pseudocritical pressure can be defined as the molal average critical temperature and pressure of mixture components. In other words, the pseudo-critical temperature is the temperature at which the two gases separate. The pseudo-critical temperature of Entonox is approximately -5.50 C

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 55 - A 25 year-old female came to the out-patient department with complaints of vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year-old female came to the out-patient department with complaints of vaginal discharge with a distinct fishy odour. She was later diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis and was prescribed to take metronidazole.

      The mechanism of action of metronidazole is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interferes with bacterial DNA synthesis

      Explanation:

      Metronidazole is a nitroimidazole antiprotozoal drug that is selectively absorbed by anaerobic bacteria and sensitive protozoa. Once taken up be anaerobes, it is nonenzymatically reduced by reacting with reduced ferredoxin. This reduction results in products that accumulate in and are toxic to anaerobic cells. The metabolites of metronidazole are taken up into bacterial DNA, forming unstable molecules. This action occurs only when metronidazole is partially reduced, and, because this reduction usually happens only in anaerobic cells, it has relatively little effect on human cells or aerobic bacteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 56 - Drug A has a 1 L/kg volume of distribution and a 0.1 elimination...

    Incorrect

    • Drug A has a 1 L/kg volume of distribution and a 0.1 elimination rate constant (k).

      Drug B has a 2 L/kg volume of distribution and a 0.2 elimination rate constant (k).

      Which of the following statements best describes the pharmacokinetics of drug A in a single compartment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Drug A has a lower clearance than drug B

      Explanation:

      The fall in plasma concentration of a drug with time decreases exponentially in a single compartment pharmacokinetic model (wash-out curve).

      A straight line is produced when the logarithm (ln) of a drug’s plasma concentration is plotted against time because a constant proportion of the drug is removed from the plasma per unit time. The line’s gradient or slope can be expressed mathematically as k. (the rate constant). The gradient is related to the half life (T1/2) because it can be used to predict a drug’s plasma concentration at any time.

      According to the following formula, clearance (CL), volume of distribution (Vd), and elimination rate constant (k) are mathematically related.

      CL = Vd x k

      For drug A, CL = 1 x 0.1 = 0.1units per minute

      For drug B, Cl = 2 x 0.2 = 0.4 units per minute

      Hence, it is proved that Drug A has a lower clearance than drug B.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 57 - About the mechanism of action of bendroflumethiazide, Which of the following is correct?...

    Incorrect

    • About the mechanism of action of bendroflumethiazide, Which of the following is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium-chloride symporter inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Sodium-chloride symporter inhibitor.

      The thiazide sensitive sodium chloride symporter is inhibited by thiazides at the proximal portion of the distal convoluted tubule leading to increased sodium and water excretion. Increased delivery of sodium to the distal portion of the distal convoluted tubule promotes potassium loss. This is why thiazides are associated with hyponatraemia and hypokalaemia.

      Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are used mainly in the treatment of glaucoma. They act on the proximal convoluted tubule to promote bicarbonate, sodium and potassium loss.

      Sodium potassium chloride symporter is inhibited by Loop diuretics.
      Epithelial sodium channels are inhibited by Amiloride.
      Drugs which lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus such as lithium and demeclocycline, are Inhibitors of vasopressin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 58 - A drug with a 2-hour half-life and a first-order kinetics of elimination is...

    Incorrect

    • A drug with a 2-hour half-life and a first-order kinetics of elimination is administered intravenously. The initial plasma concentration is calculated to be 12 mcg/mL and plasma concentrations is measured hourly.

      At 6 hours, how much drug will be left?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1.5 mcg/mL

      Explanation:

      In first order kinetics the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.

      Rate of elimination is described by the following equation:

      C = C0. e^-kt

      Where:
      C=drug concentration,
      C0= drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated),
      k = rate constant and
      t = time.

      The initial concentration of this drug is 12 mcg/ml therefore:

      The plasma concentration will have halved to 6 mcg/ml at 2 hours.
      The plasma concentration will have halved to 3 mcg/ml at 4 hours and
      The plasma concentration will have halved to 1.5 mcg/ml t 6 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 59 - Which of the following best explains the statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best explains the statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1 in 1000 solution

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1000 mg per 1000 ml solution

      Explanation:

      The statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1 in 1000 solution means 1 gm epinephrine is present in 1000 ml of solution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 60 - You decide to conduct research on the normal rates of gastric emptying in...

    Incorrect

    • You decide to conduct research on the normal rates of gastric emptying in healthy people. The strategy is to give a drug orally and measure plasma concentrations at predetermined intervals.

      Which of the following drugs would you choose to use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Because of the low pH in the stomach, paracetamol absorption is minimal (pKa value is 9.5). Paracetamol is absorbed quickly and completely in the alkaline environment of the small intestine. Oral bioavailability is approaching 100%. As a result, measuring paracetamol levels in plasma after an oral paracetamol dose has been used as a surrogate marker of gastric emptying. This method has been used to investigate the effects of drugs on gastric emptying. At clinically used doses, paracetamol is ideal because it has very few side effects.

      Scintigraphic imaging is the gold standard for determining gastric emptying.

      Although aspirin (acetyl salicylic acid) is absorbed primarily in the small intestine, some may also be absorbed in the stomach. The oral bioavailability ranges from 70 to 100 percent, making it less reliable than paracetamol.

      Propranolol is a lipophilic drug that is rapidly absorbed after administration. However, it is highly metabolised by the liver in the first pass, and only about 25% of propranolol reaches the systemic circulation. It’s not the best indicator of gastric emptying.

      Oral bioavailability of gentamicin and vancomycin is low. Only antibiotic-induced pseudomembranous colitis is treated with oral vancomycin.

      Erythromycin is a pro-kinetic agent that acts as a motilin receptor agonist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 61 - Infrared radiation is absorbed by asymmetric, polyatomic polar molecules like carbon dioxide (CO2).

    When...

    Incorrect

    • Infrared radiation is absorbed by asymmetric, polyatomic polar molecules like carbon dioxide (CO2).

      When measuring CO2 in gas samples, mainstream capnography uses this physical principle.

      Which of the following gases is most likely to interfere with carbon dioxide's absorption spectrum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitrous oxide

      Explanation:

      Carbon dioxide absorbs the most infrared (IR) light between the wavelengths of 4.2-4.4m (4.26m is ideal).

      Nitrous oxide absorbs infrared light at wavelengths of 4.4-4.6m (very similar to CO2) and less so at 3.9m.

      At a frequency of 4.7m, carbon monoxide absorbs the most IR light.

      At 3.3 m and throughout the ranges 8-12 m, the volatile agents have strong absorption bands.

      Although oxygen does not absorb infrared light, it collides with CO2 molecules, interfering with absorption. The absorption band is widened as a result of this (so called collision or pressure broadening). A drop of 0.5 percent in measured CO2 can be caused by 95% oxygen.

      Nitrous oxide causes a greater inaccuracy of 0.1 percent per ten percent of nitrous oxide.

      Water vapour absorbs infrared light as well, resulting in absorption band overlap, collision broadening, and partial pressure dilution. Water traps and water permeable tubing are used to reduce inaccuracies.

      Collision broadening is compensated for in modern gas multi-gas analysers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 62 - Diagnosis of the neuroleptic malignant syndrome is best supported by which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Diagnosis of the neuroleptic malignant syndrome is best supported by which of the following statement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased Creatine Kinase

      Explanation:

      The neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare complication in response to neuroleptic or antipsychotic medication.

      The main features are:
      – Elevated creatinine kinase
      – Hyperthermia and tachycardia
      – Altered mental state
      – Increased white cell count
      – Insidious onset over 1-3 days
      – Extrapyramidal dysfunction (muscle rigidity, tremor, dystonia)
      – Autonomic dysfunction (Labile blood pressure, sweating, salivation, urinary incontinence)

      Management is supportive ICU care, anticholinergic drugs, increasing dopaminergic activity with Amantadine, L-dopa, and dantrolene, and non- depolarising neuromuscular blockade drugs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 63 - Which of the following statements is true regarding enantiomers? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding enantiomers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Desflurane is a chiral compound

      Explanation:

      A compound that contains an asymmetric centre (chiral atom or chiral centre) and thus can occur in two non-superimposable mirror-image forms (enantiomers) are called chiral compounds.

      Desflurane, Halothane, and isoflurane are chiral compounds but Sevoflurane is not a chiral compound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 64 - The leading cause of perioperative anaphylaxis per hundred thousand administrations is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The leading cause of perioperative anaphylaxis per hundred thousand administrations is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Teicoplanin

      Explanation:

      The leading cause of perioperative anaphylaxis in the UK currently are antibiotics. They account for 46% of cases with identified causative agents. Co-amoxiclav and teicoplanin between them account for 89% of antibiotic-induced perioperative anaphylaxis

      Neuromuscular blocking agents (NMBAs) are the second leading cause and account for 33% of case.

      Chlorhexidine (0.78/100,000 administrations)
      Co-amoxiclav (8.7/100,000 administrations)Suxamethonium (11.1/100,000 administrations)
      Patent blue dye (14.6/100,000 administrations)
      Teicoplanin (16.4/100,000 administrations)

      Anaphylaxis to chlorhexidine periop poses a significant risk in the healthcare setting because of its widespread use with some being fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 65 - Noradrenaline is used as an infusion to increase blood pressure in a 43-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • Noradrenaline is used as an infusion to increase blood pressure in a 43-year-old woman with pneumonia admitted to ICU.
      Which of the following statements is true regarding Noradrenaline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Has a short half life about 2 minutes

      Explanation:

      Noradrenaline has a short half-life of about 2 minutes. It is rapidly cleared from plasma by a combination of cellular reuptake and metabolism.

      It acts as sympathomimetics by acting on ?1 receptors and also on ? receptors.

      It decreases renal and hepatic blood flow.

      Norepinephrine is metabolized by the enzymes monoamine oxidase and catechol-O-methyltransferase to 3-methoxy-4-hydroxymandelic acid and 3-methoxy-4-hydroxyphenylglycol (MHPG).

      Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 66 - Which of the following anaesthetic is the least powerful trigger of malignant hyperthermia?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following anaesthetic is the least powerful trigger of malignant hyperthermia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Desflurane

      Explanation:

      Desflurane is a highly fluorinated methyl ethyl ether used for the maintenance of general anaesthesia. It has been identified as a weak triggering anaesthetic of malignant hyperthermia. That, in the absence of succinylcholine, may produce a delayed onset of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 67 - All of the following statements are false regarding salmeterol except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are false regarding salmeterol except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is more potent than salbutamol at the beta-2 receptor

      Explanation:

      Salmeterol is a long-acting Beta 2 selective agonist. Therefore it is only used for prophylaxis whereas salbutamol is a short-acting Beta 2 agonist and is thus used for the treatment of acute attacks of asthma.

      Salmeterol is 15 times more potent than salbutamol at the Beta 2 receptor but 4 times less potent at the Beta 1 receptor.

      Tachyphylaxis to the unwanted side effects commonly occurs, but not to bronchodilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 68 - All of the following statements are false regarding propranolol except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are false regarding propranolol except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Has a plasma half life of 3-6 hours.

      Explanation:

      Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker with a half-life of 3 to 6 hours.

      Since it is lipid-soluble it crosses the blood-brain barrier and causes Central Nervous System side effects like sedation, nightmares, and depression.

      They are contraindicated in asthma, Congestive heart failure, and diabetes.

      It has a large volume of distribution with no intrinsic sympathomimetic action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 69 - Which of the following organism is highly resistant to penicillin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following organism is highly resistant to penicillin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Penicillinase is a narrow spectrum ?-lactamase that opens the ?-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.

      N. meningitidis is sensitive to penicillin and less than 20% resistance is found in pseudomonas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 70 - Regarding the following induction agents, which one is cleared at the fastest rate...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the following induction agents, which one is cleared at the fastest rate from the plasma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propofol

      Explanation:

      Propofol is cleared at the fastest rate at the rate of 60ml/kg/min.

      Clearance rate of other drugs are as follows:
      – Thiopental: 3.5 ml/kg/min
      – Methohexitone: 11 ml/kg/min
      – Ketamine: 17 ml/kg/min
      – Etomidate: 10-20 ml/kg/min

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 71 - A bolus of alfentanil has a faster onset of action than an equal...

    Incorrect

    • A bolus of alfentanil has a faster onset of action than an equal dose of fentanyl.

      Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The pKa of alfentanil is less than that of fentanyl

      Explanation:

      Unionised molecules are more likely than ionised molecules to cross membranes (such as the blood-brain barrier).

      Because alfentanil and fentanyl are weak bases, the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation says that the ratio of ionised to unionised molecules is determined by the parent compound’s pKa in relation to physiological pH.

      Alfentanil has a pKa of 6.5, while fentanyl has a pKa of 8.4.
      At a pH of 7.4, 89 percent of alfentanil is unionised, whereas 9% of fentanyl is.

      As a result, alfentanil has a faster onset than fentanyl.

      Fentanyl is 83% plasma protein bound
      Alfentanil is 90% plasma protein bound.

      Alfentanil’s pharmacokinetics are affected by its higher plasma protein binding. Because alfentanil has a low hepatic extraction ratio (0.4), clearance is determined by the degree of protein binding rather than the time it takes to take effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 72 - All of the following statements about calcium channel antagonists are incorrect except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements about calcium channel antagonists are incorrect except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: May cause potentiation of muscle relaxants

      Explanation:

      Calcium channel blocker (CCB) blocks L-type of voltage-gated calcium channels present in blood vessels and the heart. By inhibiting the calcium channels, these agents decrease the frequency of opening of calcium channels activity of the heart, decrease heart rate, AV conduction, and contractility.

      Three groups of CCBs include
      1) Phenylalkylamines: Verapamil, Norverapamil
      2) Benzothiazepines : Diltiazem
      3) Dihydropyridine : Nifedipine, Nicardipine, Nimodipine, Nislodipine, Nitrendipine, Isradipine, Lacidipine, Felodipine and Amlodipine.

      Even though verapamil as good absorption from GIT, its oral bioavailability is low due to high first-pass metabolism.

      Nimodipine is a Cerebro-selective CCB, used to reverse the compensatory vasoconstriction after sub-arachnoid haemorrhage and is more lipid soluble analogue of nifedipine

      Calcium channel antagonist can potentiate the effect of non-depolarising muscle relaxants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 73 - Drug toxicity when using bupivacaine is most likely to occur when this local...

    Incorrect

    • Drug toxicity when using bupivacaine is most likely to occur when this local anaesthetic technique is performed.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intercostal nerve block

      Explanation:

      An intercostal nerve block is used for therapeutic and diagnostic purposes. Intercostal nerve blocks manage acute and chronic pain in the chest area. Common indications are chest wall surgery and shingles or postherpetic neuralgia.

      An intercostal nerve block is also an effective option for the management of pain associated with chest trauma and rib fractures. These blocks have been shown to improve oxygenation and respiratory mechanics, and offer pain relief that is comparable to that of epidural analgesia.

      This technique, however, is limited by the relatively large doses of local anaesthetic required, and relatively high intravascular uptake from the intercostal space, increasing risk of local anaesthetic toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 74 - Which of following statements is true regarding the comparison of fentanyl and alfentanil?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of following statements is true regarding the comparison of fentanyl and alfentanil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fentanyl is more potent than alfentanil

      Explanation:

      Fentanyl is a pethidine congener, 80–100 times more potent than morphine, both in analgesia and respiratory depression. Fentanyl is ten times more potent than alfentanil.

      Alfentanil has a more rapid onset than fentanyl even if fentanyl is more lipid-soluble because both are basic compounds and alfentanil has lower pKa, so a greater proportion of alfentanil is unionized and is more available to cross membranes.

      Elimination of alfentanil is higher than fentanyl due to its lower volume of distribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 75 - A 40 year old female is planned for an critical appendicectomy. A rapid...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old female is planned for an critical appendicectomy. A rapid sequence induction is organised. The patient has had a preoperative respiratory tract evaluation and there are no adverse features. The patient is optimally positioned and preoxygenated. The anaesthetic assistant applies 10 N of cricoid pressure. Induction of anaesthesia is then carried out with 250 mg thiopentone and 100 mg suxamethonium with 30 N of cricoid pressure. Initial laryngoscopy reveals a grade 4 view. Three attempts are made at placing a size 7 mm ID tracheal tube two with a standard laryngoscope and one with a McCoy blade and bougie and one further attempt is made using a videolaryngoscope. At this point the suxamethonium is begins to "wear off". Oxygen saturation is 95%. Which one of the following options is the next most appropriate plan of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maintain oxygenation and anaesthesia and declare a failed intubation

      Explanation:

      Always call for help early. This patient is at risk of gastro-oesophageal reflux, which is why a rapid sequence induction has been chosen. The patient is not pregnant, and the surgery is not urgent.

      Plan A is to perform a rapid sequence induction under optimal conditions and secure the airway with a tracheal tube.

      No more than three attempts with a direct laryngoscope (plus one attempt with a videolaryngoscope) should be made to intubate the trachea. Keep in mind that suxamethonium is wearing off. Ensuring adequate neuromuscular blockade at this stage is crucial; this might include administering a non-depolarizing relaxant if oxygenation can be maintained with bag-mask ventilation. Given the non-immediate nature of the surgery, there should be a low threshold to abandon intubation attempts and resort to Plan B.

      An alternative strategy can then be planned.

      The most important initial step is to declare a “failed intubation.” This will prevent further intubation attempts and alert your assistant that Plan A has failed. Maintaining oxygenation and anesthesia is also critical before implementing Plan B.

      Do not administer another dose of suxamethonium. Insert a supraglottic airway if oxygenation fails and adequate ventilation cannot be maintained.

      Plan D follows the declaration of a CICO (Cannot Intubate, Cannot Oxygenate) situation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 76 - Which of the following is not used in the treatment of Neuroleptic Malignant...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not used in the treatment of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      The neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare complication in response to neuroleptic or antipsychotic medication.

      The main features are:
      – Elevated creatinine kinase
      – Hyperthermia and tachycardia
      – Altered mental state
      – Increased white cell count
      – Insidious onset over 1-3 days
      – Extrapyramidal dysfunction (muscle rigidity, tremor, dystonia)
      – Autonomic dysfunction (Labile blood pressure, sweating, salivation, urinary incontinence)

      Management is supportive of ICU care, anticholinergic drugs, increasing dopaminergic activity with Amantadine, L-dopa, and dantrolene, and non- depolarising neuromuscular blockade drugs.

      Since Olanzapine is a potential cause of NMS it is not a treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 77 - Which of the following statements is true regarding dopamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding dopamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It can increase or decrease cAMP levels

      Explanation:

      Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.

      The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.

      Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

      Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

      At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.

      Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.

      It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2–1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 78 - What does therapeutic index in humans mean? ...

    Incorrect

    • What does therapeutic index in humans mean?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The TD50 divided by the ED50

      Explanation:

      Therapeutic index is a measure which relates the dose of a drug required to produce a desired effect to that which produces an undesired effect.

      In humans, it is usually defined as the ratio of the toxic dose for 50% of the population (TD50) to the minimum effective dose for 50% of the population (ED50) for some therapeutically relevant effect. In animal studies, the therapeutic index can be defined as the ratio of the median lethal dose (LD50) to the ED50.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 79 - Which of the following intravenous induction agents is best for the patient with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following intravenous induction agents is best for the patient with acute intermittent porphyria requiring rapid sequence induction for emergency surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propofol

      Explanation:

      Propofol is considered a safe drug to use in porphyria because even if causes mild elevation of porphyrins inpatient, it does not cause any symptoms.

      Since barbiturates are inducers of ALA synthetase, they are contraindicated in porphyria patients. So, thiopentone most not be used.

      Etomidate is a potent inhibitor of adrenal 11 beta-hydroxylase and 17 alpha-hydroxylase reducing cortisol and aldosterone synthesis in the adrenal cortex and has been associated with exacerbations of porphyria in animal studies and it is advisable not to use it in this condition.

      Ketamine should be reserved for the hemodynamically unstable patient, however, it is a safe drug.

      Diazepam is safe in porphyria but is not usually used for a rapid sequence induction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 80 - The tissue layer in a patient is infiltrated with local anaesthetic (marcaine 0.125%)...

    Incorrect

    • The tissue layer in a patient is infiltrated with local anaesthetic (marcaine 0.125%) with 1 in 120,000 adrenaline as part of an enhanced recovery programme for primary hip replacement surgery. The total volume of solution is 120mL.

      What is the appropriate combination of constituents in the final solution?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline

      Explanation:

      30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline is the correct answer.
      Initial concentration of bupivacaine is 0.5% with a volume of 30mL

      The volume is doubled (60mL) by the addition of 0.9% N. saline (30mls) and the concentration of bupivacaine is halved to (0.25%).

      If the volume is doubled again (120mL) by the addition of further 0.9% N. saline (59mls) the final concentration of bupivacaine is halved again to 0.125%. Total N. saline = 89mls

      The 1 mL of 1 in 1000 adrenaline has also been diluted into the final volume of 120 mL making it a 1 in 120000 concentration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 81 - Concerning drug dose and response, one of the following statements is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning drug dose and response, one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response

      Explanation:

      Dose response curves are plotted as % response to drug against Logarithm of drug concentration. The graph is usually sigmoid shaped.

      Any drug that has high affinity and high intrinsic activity is likely an agonist. A drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity will act as an antagonist. Displacement of an agonist also depends on the relative concentrations of the two drugs at the receptor sites.

      Maximal response may be achieved by activation of a small proportion of receptor sites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 82 - Substitution at different positions of the barbituric ring give rise to different pharmacologic...

    Incorrect

    • Substitution at different positions of the barbituric ring give rise to different pharmacologic properties.

      Substitution with and at which specific site of the ring affects lipid solubility the most?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sulphur atom at position 2

      Explanation:

      Barbiturates are derived from barbituric acid, which itself is nondepressant, but appropriate side-chain substitutions result in CNS depressant activity that varies in potency and duration with carbon chain length, branching, and saturation.

      Oxybarbiturates retain an oxygen atom on number 2-carbon atom of the barbituric acid ring.

      Thiobarbiturates replace this oxygen atom with a sulphur atom, which confers greater lipid solubility. Generally speaking, a substitution such as sulphuration that increases lipid solubility is associated with greater hypnotic potency and more rapid onset, but shorter duration of action.

      Addition of a methyl group to the nitrogen atom of the barbituric acid ring, as with oxybarbiturate methohexital, also results in a compound with a short duration of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 83 - A new volatile anaesthetic agent has been approved for use in clinical testing.

    It's...

    Incorrect

    • A new volatile anaesthetic agent has been approved for use in clinical testing.

      It's a non-irritating, sweet-smelling substance. It has a molecular weight of 170, a 0.6 blood:gas partition coefficient, and a 180 oil:gas partition coefficient. An oxidative pathway converts 2% of the substance to trifluoroacetic acid.

      Which of the following statements best describes this agent's pharmacological profile?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It has a lower molecular weight than isoflurane

      Explanation:

      Because enflurane is much less soluble in blood and has a blood: gas partition coefficient of 1.8, both wash-in and wash-out should be faster.

      Sevoflurane’s sweet-smelling, non-irritant nature, combined with a low blood: gas partition coefficient, would result in similar offset and onset characteristics.

      Isoflurane and enflurane have a molecular weight of 184.

      The oil: gas partition coefficient on a volatile agent is a measure of lipid solubility, potency, and thus MAC. Halothane has an oil: gas partition coefficient of 220 and a MAC of 0.74. One would expect the MAC to be higher with an oil gas partition coefficient of 180 (less lipid soluble).

      The conversion of halothane (20%) to trifluoroacetic acid via oxidative metabolism has been linked to the development of hepatitis.

      P450 2E1 converts sevoflurane to hexafluoroisopropanol, which results in the release of inorganic fluoride ions. It’s the only fluorinated volatile anaesthetic that doesn’t break down into trifluoracetic acid.

      Desflurane is likely to cause airway irritation, which can lead to coughing, apnoea, and laryngospasm, despite its low blood:gas partition coefficient (0.42).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 84 - Which of the following molecules is closely related to the structure of Oxytocin?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following molecules is closely related to the structure of Oxytocin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ADH

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin is structurally similar to Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) and thus oxytocin can cause water intoxication (due to an ADH like action)

      Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with ADH. It increases uterine contractions – the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) also called vasopressin is released from the posterior pituitary in response to hypertonicity and increases fluid reabsorption from the kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 85 - Which of the following statements is true regarding prazosin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding prazosin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is a selective alpha 1 adrenergic receptor antagonist.

      Explanation:

      Selective ?1 -Blockers like prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin, and alfuzosin cause a decrease in blood pressure with lesser tachycardia than nonselective blockers (due to lack of ?2 blocking action.

      The major adverse effect of these drugs is postural hypotension. It is seen with the first few doses or on-dose escalation (First dose effect).

      Its half-life is approximately three hours.

      It is excreted primarily through bile and faeces (not through kidneys)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 86 - While administering a general anaesthetic to a 65-year-old man booked for a hip...

    Incorrect

    • While administering a general anaesthetic to a 65-year-old man booked for a hip hemiarthroplasty, with a weight 70 kg, and an ASA 1 score, you give 1 g of paracetamol IV but notice that he had received the same dose on the ward one hour prior.

      What is the most appropriate subsequent management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Do nothing and give the next doses of paracetamol at standard 6 hour intervals

      Explanation:

      After ingestion of more than 150 mg/kg paracetamol within 24 hours, hepatotoxicity can occur but can also develop rarely after ingestion of doses as low as 75 mg/kg within 24 hours. Hepatocellular damage will not occur in this patient and therefore no need to engage management pathway for paracetamol overdose. If his weight was <33 kg or he already had a history of impaired liver function, then the management would bde different. Subsequent post-operative doses will be a standard dose of 1 g 6 hourly. This is a drug administration error and should be reported as an incident even though the patient will not be harmed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 87 - Which one of the following causes vasoconstriction? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following causes vasoconstriction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Prostacyclin is a strong vasodilator. It is administered as an intravenous infusion for critical ischemia. Commercially, it is available as sodium epoprodtenol.

      Atrial Natriuretic peptide (ANP) hormone secreted from the atria, kidney, and neural tissues. It primarily acts on renal vessel to maintain normal blood pressure and reduce plasma volume by: increasing the renal excretion of salt and water, glomerular filtration rate, vasodilation, and by increasing the vascular permeability. It also inhibits the release of renin and aldosterone.

      Indoramin is an alpha-adrenoceptor blocking agent. which act selectively on post-synaptic-alpha adrenoreceptor, leading to decease in peripheral resistance.

      Angiotensin II is a vasoconstrictor, causing high sodium retention. It also increases the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and aldosterone level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 88 - Rocuronium is substituted for succinylcholine during induction of anaesthesia for a caesarean section...

    Incorrect

    • Rocuronium is substituted for succinylcholine during induction of anaesthesia for a caesarean section delivery.

      Which of the following feature of rocuronium ensures the neonate shows no clinical signs of muscle relaxation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Highly ionised

      Explanation:

      Drugs cross the placenta by Simple, Ion channel and Facilitated diffusion; Exocytosis and Endocytosis, Osmosis, and Active transport (primary and secondary)

      The following factors influence rate of diffusion across the placenta:

      Protein binding
      Degree of ionisation
      Placental blood flow
      Maternal and foetal blood pH
      Materno-foetal concentration gradient.
      Thickness of placental membrane
      Molecular weight of drug <600 Daltons cross by diffusion
      Lipid solubility (lipid soluble molecules readily diffuse across the placenta)

      Rocuronium has a F/M ratios of 0.16, a 30% plasma protein binding, low lipid solubility, a low volume of distribution (0.25L/kg), and a high molecular weight (530Da).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 89 - A 21-year-old woman presents to ER following the deliberate ingestion of 2 g...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman presents to ER following the deliberate ingestion of 2 g of amitriptyline. On clinical examination:
      Glasgow coma score: 10
      Pulse rate: 140 beats per minute
      Blood pressure: 80/50 mmHg.
      ECG showed a QRS duration of 233 Ms.

      Which of the following statement describes the most important initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give fluid boluses

      Explanation:

      The first line of treatment in case of hypotension is fluid resuscitation.

      Activated charcoal can be used within one hour of tricyclic antidepressant ingestion but an intact and secure airway must be checked before intervention. The risk of aspiration should be assessed.

      Vasopressors are indicated for the treatment of hypotension following (Tricyclic Antidepressant) TCA overdose when patients fail to respond to fluids and bicarbonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 90 - Activation of which of the following GABA A receptor subunit leads to anxiolytic...

    Incorrect

    • Activation of which of the following GABA A receptor subunit leads to anxiolytic effects of Benzodiazepines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 91 - Which of the following antiplatelet drugs would be best for rapid offset action?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antiplatelet drugs would be best for rapid offset action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epoprostenol

      Explanation:

      Epoprostenol has a half-life of only 42 seconds and has rapid offset. It is used for the treatment of pulmonary hypertension.

      Aspirin inhibits the COX enzyme irreversibly. It inhibits thromboxane synthesis but does not inhibit the enzyme thromboxane synthetase.

      Ticlopidine, clopidogrel and prasugrel act as irreversible antagonists of P2 Y12 receptor of Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP). These drugs interfere with the activation of platelets by ADP and fibrinogen. Both aspirin and clopidogrel act irreversibly so they are not correct.

      Paclitaxel is a long-acting antiproliferative agent used for the prevention of restenosis (recurrent narrowing) of coronary and peripheral stents and is not the correct answer.

      Tirofiban has the next shortest duration of action after epoprostenol. If epoprostenol is not given in the question, it would be the best answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 92 - An 80-year old female was taken to the emergency room for chest pain....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year old female was taken to the emergency room for chest pain. She has a medical history of coronary artery disease and previous episodes of atrial fibrillation. She was immediately attached to the cardiac monitor, which showed tachycardia at 148 beats per minute. The 12-lead ECG revealed atrial fibrillation.

      Digoxin was given as an anti-arrhythmic at 500 micrograms, which is higher than the maintenance dose routinely given. Why is this so?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It has a high volume of distribution

      Explanation:

      When the loading dose of Digoxin is given, the primary thing to consider is the volume of distribution. The volume of distribution is the proportionality factor that relates the total amount of drug in the body to the concentration. LD is computed as:

      LD = Volume of distribution X (desired plasma concentration/bioavailability)

      Digoxin is an anti-arrhythmic drug with a large volume of distribution and high bioavailability, and only a small percentage of Digoxin is bound to plasma proteins (,20%).

      In the case, since the arrhythmia is not life-threatening, there is no need for the medication to work rapidly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 93 - Regarding management of chronic pain, which of the following describes the mode of...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding management of chronic pain, which of the following describes the mode of action of gabapentin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Modulation of voltage dependent calcium channels and NMDA receptor transmission

      Explanation:

      Gabapentin is an amino acid-like molecules that was originally synthesized as an analogue of GABA but is now known not to act through GABA mechanisms. It is used in the treatment of focal seizures and various nonepilepsy indications, such as neuropathic pain, restless legs syndrome, and anxiety disorders.

      Despite its close structural resemblance to GABA, gabapentin does not act through effects on GABA receptors or any other mechanism related to GABA-mediated neurotransmission. Rather gabapentin binds avidly to ?2?, a protein that serves as an auxiliary subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels. Moreover, it binds to NMDA receptor to modulate its transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 94 - An inguinal hernia repair under general anaesthesia is scheduled for a fit 36-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • An inguinal hernia repair under general anaesthesia is scheduled for a fit 36-year-old man (75 kg). For perioperative and postoperative analgesia, you decide to perform an inguinal field block.

      Which of the following local anaesthetic solutions is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30 mL bupivacaine 0.5%

      Explanation:

      Perioperative and postoperative analgesia can both be provided by an inguinal hernia field block. The Iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves, as well as the skin, superficial fascia, and deeper structures, must be blocked for maximum effectiveness. The local anaesthetic should ideally have a long duration of action, be highly concentrated, and have a volume of at least 30 mL.

      Plain bupivacaine has a maximum safe dose of 2 mg/kg body weight.

      Because the patient weighs 75 kg, 150 mg bupivacaine can be safely administered. Both 30 mL 0.5 percent bupivacaine (150 mg) and 60 mL 0.25 percent bupivacaine (150 mg) are acceptable doses, but 30 mL 0.5 percent bupivacaine represents the optimal volume and strength, potentially providing a denser and longer block.

      The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine has been estimated to be between 3.5 and 5 mg/kg. The patient weighs 75 kg and can receive a maximum of 375 mg using the higher dosage regimen:

      There are 200 mg of lidocaine in 10 mL of 2% lidocaine (and therefore 11 mL contains 220 mg)
      200 mg of lidocaine is contained in 20 mL of 1% lidocaine.

      While alternatives are available, Although the doses of 11 mL lidocaine 2% and 20 mL lidocaine 1% are well within the dose limit, the volumes used are insufficient for effective field block for this surgery.

      With 1 in 200,000 epinephrine, the maximum safe dose of lidocaine is 7 mg/kg. The patient can be given 525 mg in this case. Even with epinephrine, 60 mL of 1% lidocaine is 600 mg, which could be considered an overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 95 - The physiological properties of a fast glycolytic (fast twitch) muscle fibre are characterised...

    Incorrect

    • The physiological properties of a fast glycolytic (fast twitch) muscle fibre are characterised by which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Synthesis of ATP is brought about by anaerobic respiration

      Explanation:

      Muscle fibre myosin ATPase histochemistry is used to divide the biochemical classification into two groups: type 1 and type II.

      Type I (slow twitch) muscle fibres rely on aerobic glycolytic and aerobic oxidative metabolism to function. They have a lot of mitochondria, a good blood supply, a lot of myoglobin, and they don’t get tired easily.

      Because they contain more motor units, Type II (fast twitch) muscle fibres are thicker. They are more easily fatigued, but produce powerful bursts. The capillary networks and mitochondria are less dense in these white muscle fibres than in type I fibres. They have a low myoglobin content as well.

      Muscle fibres of type II (fast twitch) are divided into three types:

      Type IIa – aerobic/oxidative metabolism is used.
      Type IIb – anaerobic/glycolytic metabolism is used by these fibres.

      When compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac and smooth muscle twitch at a slower rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 96 - A 74-year-old man presents to a hospital for manipulation of Colles fracture. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old man presents to a hospital for manipulation of Colles fracture. The patient is 50 kg and the anaesthetic plan is to perform an intravenous regional (Bier's) block.

      Which of the following is the appropriate dose of local anaesthetic for the procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.5% prilocaine (40 ml)

      Explanation:

      Prilocaine is the drug of choice for intravenous regional anaesthesia. 0.5% prilocaine (40 ml) is indicated for this condition.
      Lidocaine is another alternative for this condition but volume and dose are likely to be inadequate for the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 97 - A post-operative patient was given paracetamol and pethidine for post-operative analgesia. A few...

    Incorrect

    • A post-operative patient was given paracetamol and pethidine for post-operative analgesia. A few hours later, the patient developed fever of 38°C, hypertension, and agitation.

      According to the patient's medical history, he is maintained on Levodopa and Selegiline for Parkinson's disease.

      Which of the following is the most probable cause of his manifestation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pethidine

      Explanation:

      Selegiline is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor. Inhibition of monoamine oxidase leads to increased levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system.

      Pethidine, also known as meperidine, is a strong agonist at the mu and kappa receptors. It inhibits pain neurotransmission and blocks muscarinic-specific actions.

      Administering opioid analgesic is relatively contraindicated to individuals taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors. This is because of the high incidence of serotonin syndrome, which is characterized by fever, agitation, tremor, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis. Onset of symptoms is within hours, and the treatment is mainly through sedation, paralysis, intubation and ventilation.

      The clinical findings are more consistent with Serotonin syndrome rather than exacerbation of Parkinson’s. Parkinson’s Disease (PD) exacerbations are defined as patient-reported or caregiver-reported episodes of subacute worsening of PD motor function in 1 or more domains (bradykinesia, tremor, rigidity, or PD-related postural instability/gait disturbance) that caused a decline in functional status, developed over a period of < 2 months, did not fluctuate with medication timing, and are not caused by intentional adjustments of PD medications by the treating neurologist. Malignant hyperthermia usually occurs within minutes of administration of a volatile anaesthetic, such as halothane, or succinylcholine. There is massive release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, leading to fever, acidosis, rhabdomyolysis, trismus, clonus, and hypertension. In sepsis, it more common for patients to present with hypotension rather than hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 98 - A new intravenous neuromuscular blocking agent has been developed. It has a hepatic...

    Incorrect

    • A new intravenous neuromuscular blocking agent has been developed. It has a hepatic extraction ratio of 0.25 and three quaternary nitrogen atoms in its structure. It has been discovered that it has a half-life of fifteen minutes in healthy volunteers.

      Which of the following elimination mechanisms is the most likely to explain this pharmacological behaviour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is filtered and not reabsorbed by the renal tubules

      Explanation:

      The neuromuscular blocking agent is likely to be filtered and not reabsorbed by the renal tubules due to an exclusion process.

      Neuromuscular blocking agents that contain one or more quaternary nitrogen atoms are polar and ionised. As a result, the molecules have low lipid solubility, low membrane diffusion capacity, and low distribution volume.

      It’s unlikely that a compound with three quaternary nitrogen atoms is an ester. Its high polarity would prevent molecules from moving quickly into tissues.

      When drugs have a low hepatic extraction ratio (0.3), the venous and arterial drug concentrations are nearly identical. The liver is not the primary site of drug metabolism.

      Therefore:

      Changes in liver blood flow have no effect on clearance.
      Protein binding, intrinsic metabolism, and excretion are all very sensitive to changes in clearance.
      When taken orally, there is no first-pass metabolism.

      There is no reason for the lungs to eliminate any neuromuscular blocking agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 99 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding opioid receptors? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding opioid receptors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Binding with an opioid agonist increases potassium conductance

      Explanation:

      Opioid receptors are a large family of seven transmembrane domain receptors. They are of four types:

      1) Delta opioid receptor

      2) Mu opioid receptor

      3) Kappa opioid receptor

      4) Orphan receptor-like 1

      They contain about 372-400 amino acids and thus their molecular weight is different.

      Opioid receptor activation reduces the intracellular cAMP formation and opens K+ channels (mainly through µ and δ receptors) or suppresses voltage-gated N-type Ca2+ channels (mainly κ receptor). These actions result in neuronal hyperpolarization and reduced availability of intracellular Ca2+ which results in decreased neurotransmitter release by cerebral, spinal, and myenteric neurons (e.g. glutamate from primary nociceptive afferents).

      However, other mechanisms and second messengers may also be involved, particularly in the long-term

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 100 - A 50-year old female came to the Obstetric and Gynaecology department for an...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old female came to the Obstetric and Gynaecology department for an elective hysterectomy under general anaesthesia. Upon physical examination, she was noted to be obese (BMI = 40).

      Regarding the optimal dose of thiopentone, which of the following parameters must be considered for the computation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lean body weight

      Explanation:

      Using a lean body weight metric encompasses a more scientific approach to weight-based dosing. Lean body weight reflects the weight of all ‘non-fat’ body components, including muscle and vascular organs such as the liver and kidneys. As lean body weight contributes to approximately 99% of a drug’s clearance, it is useful for guiding dosing in obesity.

      This metric has undergone a number of transformations. The most commonly cited formula derived by Cheymol is not optimal for dosing across body compositions and can even produce a negative result. A new formula has been developed that appears stable across different body sizes, in particular the obese to morbidly obese.

      A practical downfall of the calculation of lean body weight (and other body size descriptors) is the numerical complexity, which may not be palatable to a busy clinician. Often limited time is available for prescribing and an immediate calculation is required. Lean body weight calculators are available online, for example in the Therapeutic Guidelines.

      Using total body weight assumes that the pharmacokinetics of the drug are linearly scalable from normal-weight patients to those who are obese. This is inaccurate. For example, we cannot assume that a 150 kg patient eliminates a drug twice as fast as a 75 kg patient and therefore double the dose. Clinicians are alert to toxicities with higher doses, for example nephro- and neurotoxicity with some antibiotics and chemotherapeutics, and bleeding with anticoagulants. Arbitrary dose reductions or ‘caps’ are used to avoid these toxicities, but if too low can result in sub-therapeutic exposure and treatment failure.

      Body surface area is traditionally used to dose chemotherapeutics. It is a function of weight and height and has been shown to correlate with cardiac output, blood volume and renal function. However, it is controversial in patients at extremes of size because it does not account for varying body compositions. As a consequence, some older drugs such as cyclophosphamide, paclitaxel and doxorubicin were ‘capped’ (commonly at 2 m^2) potentially resulting in sub-therapeutic treatment. Recent guidelines suggest that unless there is a justifiable reason to reduce the dose (e.g. renal disease), total body weight should be used in the calculation of body surface area, until further research is done. Little research into dosing based on body surface area has been conducted for other medicines.

      Ideal body weight was developed for insurance purposes not for drug dosing. It is a function of height and gender only and, like body surface area, does not take into account body composition. Using ideal body weight, all patients of the same height and sex would receive the same dose, which is inadequate and generally results in under-dosing. For example a male who has a total body weight of 150 kg and a height of 170 cm will have the same ideal body weight as a male who is 80 kg and 170 cm tall. Both could potentially receive a mg/kg dose based on 65 kg (ideal body weight).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 101 - A 70-year-old female is on bisoprolol, amitriptyline, and gabapentin medication and required hemiarthroplasty...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female is on bisoprolol, amitriptyline, and gabapentin medication and required hemiarthroplasty for a fractured neck of the femur. Spinal anaesthesia using 10 mg of IV ketamine to aid positioning was decided to be used. This resulting block extended to T8 and she required boluses of metaraminol for hypotension.

      She became profoundly hypertensive and had multiple ventricular ectopic beats on ECG following positioning in theatre.

      Which of the following is the cause for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ketamine

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is primarily used for the induction and maintenance of anaesthesia. It induces dissociative anaesthesia. But it is contraindicated in cardiovascular diseases such as unstable angina or poorly controlled hypertension.

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCA) are primarily used as antidepressants which is important for the management of depression. These are second-line drugs next to SSRI. They work by competitively preventing re-uptake of amines (noradrenaline and serotonin) from the synaptic cleft so increasing their concentration. But TCA overdoses are toxic and have cardiovascular effects, central effects, and anticholinergics effects. Cardiovascular effects like prolonged QT and widened QRS at lower doses progressing to ventricular arrhythmias and refractory hypotension at higher doses can be life-threatening. When used in the perioperative period, it can lead to increased sensitivity to circulating catecholamines therefore care is needed perioperatively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 102 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of macrolides?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits protein synthesis

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of macrolides is inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis by preventing peptidyltransferase from adding to the growing peptide which is attached to tRNA to the next amino acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 103 - Which of the following statements is true regarding oxytocin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding oxytocin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduces the threshold for depolarisation of the uterine smooth muscle

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH). It increases the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus.

      Oxytocin acts through G protein-coupled receptor and phosphoinositide-calcium second messenger system to contract uterine smooth muscle.

      It has 0.5 to 1 % ADH activity introducing possibilities of water intoxication when used in high doses.

      The sensitivity of the uterus to oxytocin increases as the pregnancy progresses.

      It is used for induction of labour in post maturity and uterine inertia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 104 - Which of the following statements is true regarding sucralfate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding sucralfate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Sucralfate is an octasulfate of glucose to which Al(OH)3 has been added. It undergoes extensive cross-linking in an acidic environment and forms a polymer which adheres to the ulcer base for up to 6 hours and protects it from further erosion. Since it is not systemically absorbed it is virtually devoid of side effects. However, it may cause constipation in about 2% of cases due to the Aluminium component in it.

      Sucralfate does not have antibacterial action against Helicobacter pylori. However, Bismuth has antibacterial action due to its oligodynamic effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 105 - Which of the following statements regarding anticholinergic drugs (hyoscine hydrobromide, atropine and glycopyrrolate)...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding anticholinergic drugs (hyoscine hydrobromide, atropine and glycopyrrolate) is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyoscine hydrobromide use may precipitate excitement and ataxia

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic agents are a group of drugs that blocks the action of the neurotransmitter called acetylcholine at synapses in the central and peripheral nervous system.

      Hyoscine, atropine, and glycopyrrolate are anticholinergic which acts at muscarinic receptors with little activity at the nicotinic receptors.

      Hyoscine and atropine are naturally occurring esters. Since Glycopyrrolate is a synthetic quaternary amine, it does not cross the blood brain barrier. Noteworthy, hyoscine, butylbromide also does not cross the blood brain barrier significantly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 106 - When combined with a general anaesthetic or central neuraxial block, which of the...

    Incorrect

    • When combined with a general anaesthetic or central neuraxial block, which of the following medications used to treat dementia involves the risk of significant hypotension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Risperidone

      Explanation:

      Atypical antipsychotic drugs include risperidone and quetiapine. They not only inhibit dopamine receptors in the limbic system, but also histamine (H1) and alpha2 adrenoreceptors. When combined with general and/or central neuraxial block, this might result in severe hypotension.

      Donepezil (Aricept) is an acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitor that increases the neurotransmitter acetylcholine in the cerebral cortex and hippocampus in a reversible, non-competitive manner. It is used to reduce the advancement of Alzheimer’s disease symptoms (AD). Rivastigmine and galantamine are two more drugs that work in the same way.

      Ginkgo Biloba contains anti-oxidant characteristics and is used to treat early-stage Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and peripheral vascular disease. It lowers platelet adhesiveness and decreases platelet activating factor (PAF) increasing the risk f bleeding, especially in individuals who are also taking anticoagulants and antiplatelet medication.

      Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA receptor. Synaptic plasticity, which is thought to be a critical component of learning and memory, can be inhibited at high doses. The use of ketamine is a relative contraindication since antagonism of this receptor can cause a dissociative state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 107 - Which of the following anaesthetic agents is most suitable for inhalational induction in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following anaesthetic agents is most suitable for inhalational induction in an 8-year-old child for inhalational induction of anaesthesia before routine surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sevoflurane at 4%

      Explanation:

      The ideal agent for this case should have low blood: gas coefficient, pleasant smell, and high oil: gas coefficient (potent with a low Minimum alveolar coefficient (MAC)). Among the given options, Sevoflurane is perfect with 0.692 blood: gas partition coefficient and is low pungency, and is sweet.

      Other drugs with their blood: gas partition coefficient and their smell are given as:
      Blood/gas partition coefficient MAC Smell
      Enflurane 1.8 1.68 Pungent, ethereal
      Desflurane 0.42 7 Pungent, ethereal
      Halothane 2.54 0.71 Sweet
      Isoflurane 1.4 1.15 Pungent, ethereal

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 108 - Regarding a drug whose elimination exhibits first-order kinetics, which of the following statements...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding a drug whose elimination exhibits first-order kinetics, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration

      Explanation:

      The elimination of phenytoin follows first order kinetics. Plasma concentrations determine the rate of elimination. The relationship between drug X plasma concentration and time is described by an exponential process in the following equation used to describe the rate of elimination:

      C = C0. e-kt

      C=drug concentration, C0= drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated), k = rate constant and t=time

      As enzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations are above the usual range, clearance of the medication becomes zero-order. The medication is metabolised at a constant pace, regardless of its plasma levels. Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are two more significant examples of medications that operate in this way.

      A plot of drug concentration with time is a washout exponential curve.

      A graph of concentration with time is a straight line i.e. Zero-order kinetics

      The amount eliminated per unit time is constant defines the point at which zero order kinetics commences.

      Elimination involves a rate-limiting reaction operating at its maximal velocity is incorrect.

      The half life of the drug is proportional to the drug concentration in the plasma corresponds to a definition of first-order kinetics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 109 - A 70-year-old female presented with a productive cough and is prescribed a bacteriostatic...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female presented with a productive cough and is prescribed a bacteriostatic antibiotic?
      Which of the following best explains the mechanism of action of bacteriostatic drugs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Protein synthesis inhibition

      Explanation:

      Cell membrane pore formation, Bacterial DNA damage, Peptidoglycan cross-linking inhibition, and peptidoglycan synthesis inhibitor are always lethal and such mechanisms are possible only in bactericidal drugs. But Protein synthesis inhibition would only prevent cell replication or cell growth and is responsible for bacteriostatic effects of the drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 110 - Which of the following factors significantly increases the risk of hepatotoxicity and fulminant...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors significantly increases the risk of hepatotoxicity and fulminant hepatic failure in halothane administration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple exposure

      Explanation:

      Hepatotoxicity due to halothane administration is relatively common and is a major factor in its rapidly declining use. Type 1 hepatotoxicity has an incidence of 20% to 30%. A comprehensive report in 1969 demonstrated an incidence of type 2 hepatotoxicity (hepatitis) of 1 case per 6000 to 20000 cases, with fatal cases occurring approximately once in 35000 patients following a single exposure to the anaesthetic. This incidence of fatal cases increases to approximately 1 in 1000 patients following multiple exposures. Following this study was a large-scale review in the United Kingdom, which showed similar results. To put this into perspective, there is only a single case of hepatotoxicity confirmed after the administration of desflurane and 2 cases per 1 million after enflurane. By the 1970s, halothane was the most common cause of drug-induced liver failure.

      Halothane-induced hepatotoxicity has a female to male ratio of two to one. Younger patients are less likely to be affected; 80% of the cases are typically in patients 40 years or older. Other risk factors include obesity and underlying liver dysfunction. Medications such as phenobarbital, alcohol, and isoniazid may play a role in affecting CYP2E1 metabolism, increasing one’s risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 111 - Which of the following statements is true regarding drug dose and response? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding drug dose and response?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response

      Explanation:

      There are two types of drug dose-response relationships, namely, the graded dose-response and the quantal dose-response relationships.

      Drug response curves are plotted as percentage response again LOG drug concentration. This graph is sigmoid in shape.

      Agonists are drugs with high affinity and high intrinsic activity. Meanwhile, the antagonist is a drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity. Intrinsic activity determines the maximal response. The maximal response can be achieved even by activation of a small proportion of receptor sites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 112 - After consuming 12 g of paracetamol, a 37-year-old man is admitted to the...

    Incorrect

    • After consuming 12 g of paracetamol, a 37-year-old man is admitted to the medical admissions unit. He has hepatocellular necrosis in both clinical and biochemical aspects.

      The most significant reason for paracetamol causing toxicity is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glutathione is rapidly exhausted

      Explanation:

      Phase I and phase II metabolism are used by the liver to break down paracetamol.

      1st Phase:

      Prostaglandin synthetase and cytochrome P450 (CYP1A2, CYP2E2, CYP3A4 and CYP2D6) to N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine (NAPQI) and N-acetylbenzo-semiquinoneimine. NAPQI is a toxic metabolite that binds to the sulfhydryl groups of cellular proteins in hepatocytes, making it toxic. This can result in centrilobular necrosis.

      Glutathione and glutathione transferases prevent NAPQI from binding to hepatocytes at low paracetamol doses by preferentially binding to these toxic metabolites. The cysteine and mercapturic acid conjugates are then excreted in the urine. Depletion of glutathione occurs at higher doses of paracetamol, resulting in high levels of NAPQI and the risk of hepatocellular damage. Hepatotoxicity would not be an issue if the body’s glutathione stores were sufficient.

      N-acetylcysteine is a precursor for glutathione synthesis and is the drug of choice for the treatment of paracetamol overdose.

      Phase II:

      Conjugation with glucuronic acid to paracetamol glucuronide is the most common method of metabolism and excretion, accounting for 60% of renally excreted metabolites. Paracetamol sulphate (35%), unchanged paracetamol (5%), and mercapturic acid are among the other renally excreted metabolites (3 percent ). The capacity of conjugation pathways is limited. The capacity of the sulphate conjugation pathway is lower than that of the glucuronidation pathway.

      Because of the low pH in the stomach, paracetamol absorption is minimal (pKa value is 9.5). Paracetamol is absorbed quickly and completely in the alkaline environment of the small intestine. Oral bioavailability is extremely high, approaching 100%.

      As a result, measuring paracetamol levels in plasma after an injury is important. Peak plasma concentrations are reached after 30-60 minutes, with a volume of distribution of 0.95 L/kg. It binds to plasma proteins at a rate of 10% to 25%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 113 - A caudal epidural block is planned for a 6-year-old child scheduled for...

    Incorrect

    • A caudal epidural block is planned for a 6-year-old child scheduled for an inguinoscrotal hernia repair under general anaesthesia. The weight of the child is 20kg.

      The most important safety aspect the anaesthetist must keep in mind while performing the block is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Limiting the bupivacaine dose to no more than 40 mg

      Explanation:

      Choosing an appropriate dose of local anaesthetic to reduce the chance of toxicity is the most important safety aspect in performing a caudal block.

      The caudal will have to be inserted following induction of anaesthesia as performing it in an awake child is not a viable option.

      The patient is placed in the lateral position and the sacral hiatus is identified. Under strict asepsis, a needle ( usually a 21-23FG needle) is advanced at an angle of approximately 55-65° to the coronal plane at the apex of the sacrococcygeal membrane. When there is loss of resistance, thats the endpoint. The needle must first be aspirated before anaesthetic agent is injected because there is a risk (1 in 2000) of perforating the dura or vascular puncture.

      Alternatively, a 22-gauge plastic cannula can be used. Following perforation of the sacrococcygeal membrane, the stilette is removed and only the blunter plastic cannula is advanced. This reduces the risk of intravascular perforation.

      Eliciting an appropriate end motor response at an appropriate current strength when the caudal and epidural spaces are stimulated helps in improving the efficacy and safety of neural blockade. A 22G insulated needle is advanced in the caudal canal until a pop is felt. If the needle is placed correctly, an anal sphincter contractions (S2 to S4) is seen when an electrical stimulation of 1-10 mA is applied.

      The application of ultrasound guidance in identification of the caudal epidural space has been shown to prevent inadvertent dural puncture and to increase the safety and efficacy of the block in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 114 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of rifampicin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit RNA synthesis

      Explanation:

      Rifampicin is a derivative of a rifamycin (other derivatives are rifabutin and rifapentine). It is bactericidal against both dividing and non-dividing mycobacterium and acts by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase. Thus this drug inhibits RNA synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 115 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of doxycycline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit 30S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      Doxycycline belongs to the family of tetracyclines and inhibits protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 116 - Prior to an urgent appendicectomy, a 49-year-old man requires a rapid sequence induction.

    His...

    Incorrect

    • Prior to an urgent appendicectomy, a 49-year-old man requires a rapid sequence induction.

      His BMI is equal to 50.

      Which of the following formulas is the most appropriate for calculating a suxamethonium dose in order to achieve optimal intubating conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1-1.5 × actual body weight (mg)

      Explanation:

      The usual method of calculating the dose of a drug to be given to patients of normal weight is to use total body weight (TBW). This is because the lean body weight (LBW) and ideal body weight (IBW) dosing scalars are similar in these patients.

      Because the LBW and fat mass do not increase in proportion in patients with morbid obesity, this is not the case. Drugs that are lipid soluble, such as propofol or thiopentone, can cause a relative overdose. Lean body mass is a better scalar in these situations.

      Suxamethonium has a small volume of distribution, so the dose is best calculated using the TBW to ensure optimal and deep intubating conditions. The higher dose was justified because these patients’ plasma cholinesterase activity was elevated.

      Other scalars include:

      The dose of highly lipid soluble drugs like benzodiazepines, thiopentone, and propofol can be calculated using lean body weight (LBW). The formula LBW = IBW + 20% can be used on occasion.

      Fentanyl, rocuronium, atracurium, vecuronium, morphine, paracetamol, bupivacaine, and lidocaine are all administered with LBW.

      Formulas can be used to calculate the ideal body weight (IBW). There are a number of drawbacks, including the fact that patients of the same height receive the same dose, and the formulae do not account for changes in body composition associated with obesity. Because IBW is typically lower than LBW, administering a drug based on IBW may result in underdosing. The body mass index (BMI) isn’t used to calculate drug dosage directly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 117 - All the following statements are false regarding local anaesthetic except ...

    Incorrect

    • All the following statements are false regarding local anaesthetic except

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Potency is directly related to lipid solubility

      Explanation:

      The potency of local anaesthetics is directly proportional to lipid solubility because they need to penetrate the lipid-soluble membrane to enter the cell.

      Protein binding has a direct relationship with the duration of action because the higher the ability of the drug to bind with membrane protein, the higher is the duration of action.

      Higher the pKa of a drug, slower the onset of action. Because a drug with higher pKa will be more ionized than the one with lower pKa at a given pH. Local anaesthetics are weak bases, and unionized form diffuses more rapidly across the nerve membrane than the protonated form. As a result drugs with higher pKa will be more ionized will diffuse less across the nerve membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 118 - A 55-year-old man with a ventricular rate of 210 beats per minute is...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a ventricular rate of 210 beats per minute is admitted to the emergency department with atrial fibrillation. The patient develops ventricular fibrillation shortly after receiving pharmacotherapy to treat his arrhythmia, from which he is successfully resuscitated.

      He has a PR interval of 40 Ms, a prominent delta wave in lead I, and a QRS duration of 120 Ms, according to an ECG from a previous admission.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be involved in this patient's development of ventricular fibrillation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      The Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome (WPWS) is linked to an additional electrical conduction pathway between the atria and ventricles. This accessory pathway (bundle of Kent), unlike the atrioventricular (AV) node, is incapable of slowing down a rapid rate of atrial depolarization. In other words, a short circuit bypasses the AV node. Patients with a rapid ventricular response or narrow complex AV re-entry tachycardia are more likely to develop atrial fibrillation or flutter.

      Digoxin can promote impulse transmission through this accessory pathway if a patient with WPWS develops atrial fibrillation because it works by blocking the AV node. This can cause ventricular fibrillation and an extremely rapid ventricular rate. As a result, it’s not advised.

      Adenosine, beta-blockers, and calcium channel blockers, among other drugs that interfere with AV nodal conduction, are also generally contraindicated.

      The class III antiarrhythmic drugs amiodarone and ibutilide (K+ channel block) and procainamide (Na+ channel block) are the drugs of choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 119 - Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.

      Vancomycin binds to the acyl-D-ala-D-ala portion of the growing cell wall in a susceptible gram-positive bacterium. After binding, it prevents the cell wall from forming the cross-linking.

      Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid. Tetrahydrofolic acid is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 120 - An acidic drug with a pKA of 4.3 is injected intravenously into a...

    Incorrect

    • An acidic drug with a pKA of 4.3 is injected intravenously into a patient.

      At a normal physiological pH, the approximate ratio of ionised to unionised forms of this drug in the plasma is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1000:01:00

      Explanation:

      The pH at which the drug exists in 50 percent ionised and 50 percent unionised forms is known as the pKa.

      To calculate the proportion of ionised to unionised form of an ACID, use the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation.

      pH = pKa + log ([A-]/[HA])

      or

      pH = pKa + log [(salt)/(acid)]
      pH = pKa + log ([ionised]/[unionised]).

      Hence, if the pKa − pH = 0, then 50% of drug is ionised and 50% is unionised.

      In this example:

      7.4 = 4.3 + log ([ionised]/[unionised])
      7.4 − 4.3 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])
      log 3.1 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])

      Simply put, the antilog is the inverse log calculation. In other words, if you know the logarithm of a number, you can use the antilog to find the value of the number. The antilogarithm’s definition is as follows:

      y = antilog x = 10x

      Antilog to the base 10 of 0 = 1, 1 = 10, 2 =100, 3 = 1000, and 4 = 10,000.

      If you want to find the antilogarithm of 3.1, for a number between 3 and 4, the antilogarithm will return a value between 1000 and 10,000. The ratio is 1:1 if pKa = pH, that is, pH pKa = log 0. (50 percent ionised and unionised).

      According to the above value, there is only one unionised molecule for every approximately 1000 (1259) ionised molecules of this drug in plasma, implying that this drug is largely ionised in plasma (99.99 percent ).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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