When a drug is given via intravenous infusion, the plasma concentration rises exponentially as a wash-in curve until it reaches steady-state concentration (the point at which the infusion rate is balanced by the elimination rate or clearance). To reach this steady state, the drug will take 4-5 half-lives.

Cpss (target plasma concentration at steady state) and clearance (CL) in ml/minute or litre/hour are the two factors that determine the infusion rate or dose (ID) in mg/hour of a drug.

ID = Cpss × CL

We know the infusion rate is 20 ml/hour in this case. The drug’s concentration is 5 mg/mL. The patient is receiving 100 mg of the drug per hour, with a 20 L/hour clearance rate.

ID = Cpss × 20

Therefore,

Cpss = 100 mg/20000 ml

Cpss = 0.005 mg/mL or 5 mcg/mL

Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.

Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.

SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.

Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
-Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
-Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
-Tissue hypoxia
-Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.

Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
1. Intraoperatively
– Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
-Cover surgical site with dressing

In contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.

2. Post operatively
Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intention

Use of diathermy for skin incisions
In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used.

Daptomycin alters the curvature of the membrane, which creates holes that leak ions. This causes rapid depolarization, resulting in loss of membrane potential. Thus it interferes with the outer membrane of gram-positive bacteria resulting in cell death.

The total body water content of a 70kg man is (70 × 0.6) = 42 litres. For a woman, the calculation is (70 × 0.55) = 38.5 litres.

For a man, it is subdivided into:

Extracellular fluid (ECF) = 14L (1/3)
Intracellular fluid (ICF) = 28L (2/3).

The ECF volume is further divided into:

Interstitial fluid = 10.5 litres
Plasma = 3 litres
Transcellular fluid (CSF/synovial fluid) = 0.5 litres.

Directly measured fluid compartments:

Heavy water (deuterium) can be used to measure total body water content, which is freely distributed.
Albumin labelled with a radioactive isotope or using a dye called Evans blue can be used to measure Plasma volume . They do not diffuse into red blood cells.
Radiolabelled (Cr-51) red blood cells can be used to measure total erythrocyte volume.
Inulin as the tracer can be used to measure ECF volume as it circulate freely in the interstitial and plasma volumes.

Indirectly measured fluid compartments:

Total blood volume can be calculated with the level of haematocrit and the volume of total circulating red blood cells.
ICF volume can be calculated by subtracting ECF volume from total blood volume.

The Beers criteria, a US set of criteria for good prescribing in the older patient, preclude the use of metoclopramide in Parkinson’s disease. The Adverse Reactions Register of the UK Committee on Safety of Medicines (CSM) for the years 1967 to 1982 contained 479 reports of extrapyramidal reactions in which metoclopramide was the suspected drug; 455 were for dystonic-dyskinetic reactions, 20 for parkinsonism and four for tardive dyskinesia. Effects can occur within days of initiation of treatment and may take months to wear off.

Other antiemetics are available, such as cyclizine (Valoid), domperidone and ondansetron, which would be more appropriate to use in those with Parkinson’s disease.

Cyclizine is a piperazine derivative with histamine H1 receptor antagonist and anticholinergic activity. It is used for the treatment of nausea, vomiting, (particularly opioid-induced vomiting), vertigo, motion sickness, and labyrinthine disorders.

Prochlorperazine is an antipsychotic known to cause tardive dyskinesia, tremor and parkinsonian symptoms and is therefore likely to exacerbate Parkinson’s disease. Prochlorperazine is not favoured for older patients because of the increased risk of stroke and transient ischaemic attack (TIA).

Droperidol and phenothiazine are also potent antagonists on D2 receptors and must also be avoided.

With regards to compensatory response to blood loss, the following sequence of events take place:

1. Decrease in venous return, right atrial pressure and cardiac output
2. Baroreceptor reflexes (carotid sinus and aortic arch) are immediately activated
3. There is decreased afferent input to the cardiovascular centre in medulla. This inhibits parasympathetic reflexes and increases sympathetic response
4. This results in an increased cardiac output and increased SVR by direct sympathetic stimulation. There is increased circulating catecholamines and local tissue mediators (adenosine, potassium, NO2)
5. Fluid moves into the intravascular space as a result of decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure absorbing interstitial fluid.

A slower response is mounted by the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis.
6. Reduced renal blood flow is sensed by the intra renal baroreceptors and this stimulates release of renin by the juxta-glomerular apparatus.
7. There is cleavage of circulating Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I, which is converted to Angiotensin II in the lungs (by Angiotensin Converting Enzyme ACE)

Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor that sets off other endocrine pathways.
8. The adrenal cortex releases Aldosterone
9. There is antidiuretic hormone release from posterior pituitary (also in response to hypovolaemia being sensed by atrial stretch receptors)
10. This leads to sodium and water retention in the distal convoluted renal tubule to conserve fluid
Fluid conservation is also aided by an increased amount of cortisol which is secreted in response to the increase in circulating catecholamines and sympathetic stimulation.

Barbituric acid is the barbiturates’ pharmacologically inactive precursor. A pyrimidine heterocyclic nucleus is formed by the condensation of urea and malonic acid. Its pharmacological activity can be influenced by minor structural changes (structure function relationship).

The duration of action and potency as a sedative are influenced by the length of the side chains at C5. Barbiturates with three carbon atoms in their chain last longer than those with two. Anticonvulsant properties are enhanced by branched chains.

The addition of a methyl group at N1 causes a faster onset/offset of action, but it also causes excitatory phenomena (twitching/lower convulsive threshold).

The addition of oxygen and sulphur to C2 increases the molecule’s lipid solubility and thus its potency. Thiopentone (thiobarbiturate) has sulphur groups at C2, making it 20-200 times more lipid soluble than oxybarbiturates.

The question mentions a quantitative, ratio scale data set. The use of mean would be ideal under normal circumstances, however, in this situation median is preferred as it is less sensitive to the skewness of data. The median is usually preferred to other measures of central tendency when your data set is skewed (i.e., forms a skewed distribution)

Approximately 20% of halothane and 0.02% desflurane undergo hepatic biotransformation. Desflurane, halothane, and isoflurane are metabolised in the liver by cytochrome p450 to trifluoroacetate. Through an immunological mechanism involving trifluoroacetyl hapten formation, trifluoroacetate is thought to be responsible for hepatotoxicity.

Potency of inhaled anaesthetic agents is measured using the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC). The MAC of halothane is 0.74% while that of desflurane is 6.3%. The potency can also be compared using the oil: gas partition coefficient (224 and 18.7 for halothane and desflurane respectively).

Onset of action of volatile agents depends on the blood:gas partition coefficient. A lower blood:gas partition coefficient and insolubility in blood means faster onset and offset of action. The blood gas coefficient for halothane is 2.4 while that of desflurane is 0.42. Desflurane is less soluble than halothane in blood. Halothane has a pungent smell that can irritate the airway which limits its use for a gaseous induction especially in paediatric anaesthesia. desflurane is not pungent.

Desfluranes boiling point is only slightly above normal room temperature (22.8°C) making it extremely volatile while the boiling point of halothane is approximately 50.2°C.

Automated blood gas analysers are commonly used to analyse blood gas samples, and they measure specific components of the arterial blood gas sample, whether directly or indirectly.

The following are the components of arterial blood gas:

pH = measured (directly determined) acid-base balance of the blood

PaO2 = measured partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood

PaCO2 = measured partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood

HCO3 = calculated (indirectly determined) concentration of bicarbonate in arterial blood

Base excess/deficit = calculated relative excess or deficit of base in arterial blood

SaO2 = calculated arterial oxygen saturation unless a co-oximetry is obtained, in which case it is measured

Breathing 100% oxygen for three minutes will provide the best reservoir of oxygen during apnoea by oxygenating the functional residual capacity (FRC).

Sitting at 45 degrees might increase the FRC and improve oxygen reserve but not compared with 100% oxygenation.

The following table compares the oxygen reserves in the body following pre-oxygenation with room air and 100% oxygen:

Compartment Factors Room air (mL) 100% O2 (mL)
Lung FAO2, FRC 630 2850
Plasma PaO2, DF, PV 7 45
Red blood cells Hb, TGV, SaO2 788 805
Myoglobin – 200 200
Interstitial space – 25 160

FAO2 = alveolar fraction of oxygen.
FRC = Functional residual capacity.
PaO2 = partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in arterial blood
DF = dissolved form.
PV = plasma volume.
TG = total globular volume .
Hb = haemoglobin concentration.
SaO2 = arterial oxygen saturation

Stopping smoking one month prior to surgery will not be more effective than pre-oxygenation with 100% oxygen though it may reduce postoperative pulmonary complications. Note that both long term and short term abstinence reduces pulse rate and blood pressure thus reducing oxygen consumption and also reduce carboxyhaemoglobin levels.

Blood transfusion will not make a big difference in oxygen reserve, particularly if a blood transfusion is administered within 12-24-hours before surgery.

Heliox (79% helium and 21% oxygen) despite its lower viscosity is unlikely to be more effective than 100% oxygen .

The intrinsic pathway is best assessed by the aPTT time.

D-dimer is a fibrin degradation product which is raised in the presence of blood clots.

A 50:50 mixing study is used to assess if a prolonged PT or aPTT is due to factor deficiency or a factor inhibitor.

The thrombin time is a test used to assess fibrin formation from fibrinogen in plasma. Factors that prolong the thrombin time include heparin, fibrin degradation products, and fibrinogen deficiency.

Intrinsic pathway – Best assessed by APTT. Factors 8,9,11,12 are involved. Prolonged aPTT can be seen in haemophilia and use of heparin.

Extrinsic pathway – Best assessed by Increased PT. Factor 7 involved.

Common pathway – Best assessed by APTT & PT. Factors 2,5,10 involved.

Vitamin K dependent factors are factors 2,7,9,10

Ptosis and mydriasis are visible in surgical third nerve palsy, and the eye looks ‘down and out.’ The loss of innervation to all of the major structures supplied by the oculomotor nerve is reflected in these characteristics.

Ptosis is caused by the paralysis of the levator palpebrae superioris in oculomotor nerve palsy. Due to the unopposed actions of the superior oblique and lateral rectus muscles, the eye rotates down and out.

Mydriasis is caused by surgical (compressive) causes of third nerve palsy, which disrupt the parasympathetic pupillomotor fibres on the nerve’s periphery.

Medical (ischaemic) causes of a third nerve palsy, on the other hand, leave the superficial parasympathetic fibres relatively unaffected and the pupil unaffected.

Horner’s syndrome is characterised by ptosis, anhidrosis, and miosis, which are caused by a loss of sympathetic innervation to the tarsal muscle of the upper lid, facial skin, and dilator pupillae, respectively.

Specific knowledge of the anatomical relationship is required to address this examination question.

The first rib is small and thick and contains a single facet that articulates at the costovertebral joint. It consist of a head, neck and shaft but a discrete angle is deficit. Along the side the shaft is indented with a groove for the subclavian artery and the lower brachial plexus trunk. Front to the scalene tubercle is a space for the subclavian vein.

The first rib has the scalenus front muscle joined to the scalene tubercle, isolating the subclavian vein (anteriorly) from the subclavian artery (posteriorly). This anatomical relationship is of major significance with respect to subclavian vein cannulation.

The 1st rib has the following relationships:

superior: lower trunk of the brachial plexus, subclavian vessels, clavicle.

inferior: intercostal vessels and nerves

posterior and inferior: pleura

anterior: sympathetic trunk (over neck)

superior intercostal artery, ventral T1 nerve root

The ions found in higher concentrations intracellularly than outside the cells are:

ATP
AMP
Potassium
Phosphate, and
Magnesium Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)

Sodium is a primarily extracellular ion.

The following is the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock:

Class I haemorrhage:
It has blood loss up to 15%. There is very less tachycardia, and no changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure. Usually, fluid replacement is not required.

Class II haemorrhage:
It has 15-30% blood loss, equivalent to 750 – 1500 ml. There is tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure. Patient may be frightened, hostile and anxious. It can be stabilised by crystalloid and blood transfusion.

Class III haemorrhage:
There is 30-40% blood loss. It portrays inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, altered mental state and fall in systolic pressure. It requires blood transfusion.

Class IV haemorrhage:
There is > 40% blood volume loss. It is a preterminal event, and the patient will die in minutes. It portrays tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and pulse pressure, altered mental state, and cold clammy skin. There is need for rapid transfusion and surgical intervention.

Perioperative and postoperative analgesia can both be provided by an inguinal hernia field block. The Iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves, as well as the skin, superficial fascia, and deeper structures, must be blocked for maximum effectiveness. The local anaesthetic should ideally have a long duration of action, be highly concentrated, and have a volume of at least 30 mL.

Plain bupivacaine has a maximum safe dose of 2 mg/kg body weight.

Because the patient weighs 75 kg, 150 mg bupivacaine can be safely administered. Both 30 mL 0.5 percent bupivacaine (150 mg) and 60 mL 0.25 percent bupivacaine (150 mg) are acceptable doses, but 30 mL 0.5 percent bupivacaine represents the optimal volume and strength, potentially providing a denser and longer block.

The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine has been estimated to be between 3.5 and 5 mg/kg. The patient weighs 75 kg and can receive a maximum of 375 mg using the higher dosage regimen:

There are 200 mg of lidocaine in 10 mL of 2% lidocaine (and therefore 11 mL contains 220 mg)
200 mg of lidocaine is contained in 20 mL of 1% lidocaine.

While alternatives are available, Although the doses of 11 mL lidocaine 2% and 20 mL lidocaine 1% are well within the dose limit, the volumes used are insufficient for effective field block for this surgery.

With 1 in 200,000 epinephrine, the maximum safe dose of lidocaine is 7 mg/kg. The patient can be given 525 mg in this case. Even with epinephrine, 60 mL of 1% lidocaine is 600 mg, which could be considered an overdose.

The left gastric artery is the smallest branch that originates from the coeliac trunk—the coeliac trunk branches of the abdominal aorta at the vertebral level of T12.

The left gastric artery runs along the superior portion of the lesser curvature of the stomach. A peptic ulcer that is serious enough to erode through the stomach mucosa into a branch of the left gastric artery can cause massive blood loss in the stomach, leading to hematemesis. The patient also takes Naproxen, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug that is a common cause for peptic ulcers in otherwise healthy patients.

The left gastric artery is responsible for 85% of upper GI bleeds. In cases refractory to initial treatment, angiography is sometimes needed to embolise the vessel at its origin and stop bleeding. During an angiogram, the radiologist will enter the aorta via the femoral artery, ascend to the level of the 12th vertebrae and then enter the left gastric artery via the coeliac trunk.

The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:

T12 – Coeliac trunk

L1 – Left renal artery

L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries

L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery

L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta

The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines on infective endocarditis prophylaxis (IE). The goal was to create clear guidelines for antibiotic prophylaxis in patients undergoing dental procedures as well as certain non-dental interventional procedures. A number of studies have found an inconsistent link between recent interventional procedures and the development of infective endocarditis in both dental and non-dental procedures.

Antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis is not advised or required in the following situations:

Dental patients undergoing procedures
Patients undergoing procedures involving the upper and lower gastrointestinal tracts, the genitourinary tract (including urological, gynaecological, and obstetric procedures, as well as childbirth), and the upper and lower respiratory tract (including ear, nose and throat procedures and bronchoscopy).

Antibiotic resistance can be exacerbated by the indiscriminate use of prophylactic antibiotics, but this is not the primary reason for avoiding their use in these situations.

To reduce the risk of endocarditis, any patient who is at risk of developing IE should be investigated and treated as soon as possible. Patients with the following conditions are at risk of developing IE:
acquired valvular heart disease with regurgitation or stenosis
previous valve replacement
structural congenital heart disease
past history of IE, or
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM)

It would also be appropriate for high-risk dental procedures and those with severe gingival disease.

Although this patient may not have structural heart disease, ABs should be administered on a case-by-case basis.

The standard error of the mean (SEM) is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations – i.e. how ‘accurate’ the calculated sample mean is from the true population mean. The relationship between the standard error of the mean and the standard deviation is such that, for a given sample size, the standard error of the mean equals the standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.

SEM = SD / square root (n)

where SD = standard deviation and n = sample size

Spirometry measures the total volume of air that can be forced out in one maximum breath, that is the total lung capacity (TLC), to maximal expiration, that is the residual volume (RV).

It is conducted using a spirometer which is capable of measuring lung volumes using techniques of dilution.

During spirometry, the following measurements can be determined:
Forced vital capacity (FVC)/vital capacity (VC): The maximum volume of air exhaled in one single forced breathe.
Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1)
FEV1/FVC ratio
Peak expiratory flow (PEF): the maximum amount of air flow exhaled in one blow.
Forced expiratory flow (mid expiratory flow): the flow at 25%, 50% and 75% of FVC
Inspiratory vital capacity (IVC): The maximum volume of air inhaled after a full total expiration.

Anatomical dead space is measured using a single breath nitrogen washout called the Fowler’s method.

Residual volume and total lung capacity are both measured using the body plethysmograph or helium dilution

The functional residual capacity is usually measured using a nitrogen washout or the helium dilution technique.

The normal distribution is a symmetrical, bell-shaped distribution in which the mean, median and mode are all equal.

Adrenaline acts on ?1, ?2,?1, and ?2 receptors and also on dopamine receptors (D1, D2) and have sympathomimetic effects.

Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

Adrenaline is a sympathomimetic amine with both alpha and beta-adrenergic stimulating properties.
Adrenaline is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock
Adrenaline is also used in patients with cardiac arrest. The preferred route is i.v. followed by the intra-osseous and endotracheal route.

Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.

It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.

It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.

It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas
It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue

Potassium maintains the resting potential of cardiac myocytes, with depolarization triggered by a rapid influx of sodium ions, and repolarization due to efflux of potassium. A slow influx of calcium is responsible for the longer duration of a cardiac action potential compared with skeletal muscle.

The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:

Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms.

Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.

Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.

Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

Mean, also known as the average, is the most common measure of central tendency. It is the sum of all observed values divided by the number of observation. It is not useful for skewed data, which has an abnormal distribution. It is useful, instead, for numerical data that have symmetric distribution. It reflects the contributions of each data in the group, and are sensitive to outliers.

The median is the value that falls in the middle position when the observations are ranked in order from the smallest to the largest. If the number of observations is odd, the median is the middle number. If it is even, the median is the average of the two middle numbers. Unlike the mean, the median is useful on skewed data, and can be used for ordinal or numerical data if skewed.

The mode is the value that occurs with the greatest frequency in a set of observations, and is utilized for bimodal distribution.

The variance and the standard deviation are not measures of central tendency, but of dispersion.

The intercostal nerves arise from the ventral rami of the first 11 thoracic spinal nerves. they course along the costal groove on the lower margin of the rib.

The twelfth intercoastal nerve is called the subcostal nerve. This is because it is below the 12th rib.

Each intercostal nerve is connected to a ganglion of the sympathetic trunk from which it carries preganglionic and postganglionic fibres that innervate blood vessels, sweat glands, and muscles.

The lateral and medial pectoral nerves innervates pectoralis major muscle.

Since an arterial pressure transducer, and every other measuring apparatus, is prone to errors due to offset and gradient drifts, regular calibration is required to maintain accuracy of the instrument. The two-point calibration pressure values of 0 mmHg and 200 mmHg are within the physiologic range and can best compensate for the gradient drift.

All of the muscles of the larynx are innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve, except the cricothyroid muscle.

Cricothyroid muscle is located deep in the anterior neck, between the cricoid and thyroid cartilage and is innervated by the external laryngeal nerve. Any injury to this muscle can cause paralysis and lead to hoarseness. When cricothyroid muscle contracts, it leads to tightening, stretching and thinning of the vocal folds. This produces higher-pitched sounds during vocalization.

A patient experiencing hoarseness due to possible injury to the external laryngeal nerve should be reassured that the hoarseness will resolve in time due to increased compensation from the other muscles.

This is a classical case of unstable angina or NSTEMI (Non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction). As soon as the diagnosis of unstable angina or NSTEMI is made the initial treatment is Aspirin and antithrombin therapy.

Betablocker is known to reduce mortality from acute myocardial infarction by reducing oxygen demand. If there is no contraindication (heart block, bradycardia, hypotension, severe left ventricular dysfunction, and asthma), a beta-blocker should be given early. This patient has hypotension and therefore metoprolol is contraindicated.

If three doses of nitroglycerine tablets or Nitrolingual sprays and intravenous beta-blockers too cannot relieve the symptoms intravenous Glyceryl Trinitrate (GTN) should be considered provided that there is no hypotension. But in this case, the patient is hypotensive, and therefore, it is contraindicated.

If the symptoms are not relieved after three serial doses of nitroglycerine or if symptoms recur despite adequate anti-anginal treatment morphine sulphate is indicated.

The epiploic foramen (foramen of Winslow or aditus to the lesser sac) is found behind the free right border of the lesser omentum. A short, 3 cm slit serves as the entrance to the lesser sac from the greater sac.

The epiploic foramen has the following boundaries:
Anteriorly: hepatoduodenal ligament, the bile duct (anteriorly on the right), the hepatic artery (anteriorly on the left), and the portal vein (posteriorly) together with nerves and lymphatics
Superiorly: the peritoneum of the posterior layer of the hepatoduodenal ligament runs over the caudate process of the liver
Posteriorly: inferior vena cava
Floor: upper border of the first part of the duodenum
The anterior and posterior walls of the foramen are normally
apposed, which partly explains why patients can develop large fluid
collections isolated to the greater or lesser sac

Rapid control of the hepatic artery and portal vein can be obtained by compression of the free edge of the lesser omentum (a ‘Pringle’ manoeuvre), which is a potentially useful technique in liver trauma and surgery.

Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.

Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.

SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.

Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
-Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
-Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
-Tissue hypoxia
-Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.

Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
1. Intraoperatively
– Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
-Cover surgical site with dressing

In contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.

2. Post operatively
Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intention

Use of diathermy for skin incisions
In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used.

Warming, humidifying, and filtering inspired anaesthetic gases is done by heat and moisture exchangers (HME) and breathing system filters. They are made of glass fibres materials and are supported by a sturdy frame. Pleating increases the surface area to reduce resistance to air flow and boost efficiency.

Filters’ effectiveness is determined by the amount and size of particles they keep out of the patient’s airway. The efficiency of filters might be classified as 95, 99.95, or 99.97 percent. Pores with a diameter of 0.2 µm are common. The following are examples of typical particle sizes:
Red blood cell – 5 µm
Lymphocyte – 5-8 µm
Viruses – 0.02-0.3 µm
Bacteria – 0.5-1 µm
Depending on particle size, gas flow speed, and charge, particles are collected via a number of processes. Mechanical sieve, interception, diffusion, electrostatic filtration, and inertial impaction are some of the options:

Sieve:
The diameter of the particle the filter is supposed to collect is smaller than the apertures of the filter’s fibres.

Interception:
When a particle following a gas streamline approaches a fibre within one radius of itself, it becomes attached and captured.
Diffusion:

A particle’s random (Brownian) zig-zag path or motion causes it to collide with a fibre.
By attracting and capturing a particle from within the gas flow, it generates a lower-concentration patch within the gas flow into which another particle diffuses, only to be captured. At low gas velocities and with smaller particles (0.1µm diameter), this is more common.

Electrostatic:

These filters use large diameter fibre media and rely on electrostatic charges to improve fine particle removal effectiveness.

Impaction due to inertia:

When a particle is too large to respond fast to abrupt changes in streamline direction near a filter fibre, this happens. Because of its inertia, the particle will continue on its original course and collide with the filter fibre. When high gas velocities and dense fibre packing of the filter media are present, this sort of filtration mechanism is most prevalent.

The basilic vein is one of the primary veins that drain the upper limb, like the cephalic vein. It begins as the dorsal venous arch. The basilic vein originates from the ulnar side of the dorsal arch of the upper limb passes along the posteromedial aspect of the forearm, moving towards the anterior surface of the elbow.

The basilic vein pierces the deep fascia at the elbow and joins the venae commitantes of the brachial vein to form the axillary vein.

The basilic vein passes deep under the muscles as it moves midway up the humerus. At the lower border of the teres major muscle, the anterior and posterior circumflex humeral veins feed into it.

The pH at which the drug exists in 50 percent ionised and 50 percent unionised forms is known as the pKa.

To calculate the proportion of ionised to unionised form of an ACID, use the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation.

pH = pKa + log ([A-]/[HA])

or

pH = pKa + log [(salt)/(acid)]
pH = pKa + log ([ionised]/[unionised]).

Hence, if the pKa − pH = 0, then 50% of drug is ionised and 50% is unionised.

In this example:

7.4 = 4.3 + log ([ionised]/[unionised])
7.4 − 4.3 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])
log 3.1 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])

Simply put, the antilog is the inverse log calculation. In other words, if you know the logarithm of a number, you can use the antilog to find the value of the number. The antilogarithm’s definition is as follows:

y = antilog x = 10x

Antilog to the base 10 of 0 = 1, 1 = 10, 2 =100, 3 = 1000, and 4 = 10,000.

If you want to find the antilogarithm of 3.1, for a number between 3 and 4, the antilogarithm will return a value between 1000 and 10,000. The ratio is 1:1 if pKa = pH, that is, pH pKa = log 0. (50 percent ionised and unionised).

According to the above value, there is only one unionised molecule for every approximately 1000 (1259) ionised molecules of this drug in plasma, implying that this drug is largely ionised in plasma (99.99 percent ).

The ?-2 adrenoceptor has three subtypes (2a, 2b and 2c). The receptors are generally presynaptic, meaning they prevent noradrenaline from being released at nerve endings. Both the central and peripheral nerve systems are affected by the ?-2 agonists. ?-2 agonists cause drowsiness, analgesia, and euphoria centrally in the locus coeruleus (in the brainstem), lower the MAC of volatile anaesthetic drugs, and are used to treat acute withdrawal symptoms in chronic opioid addicts.

The most common impact of ?-2 agonists on heart rate is bradycardia. The adrenoreceptors ?-1 and ?-2 are blocked by phenoxybenzamine.

Clonidine is a selective agonist for the ? -2 receptor, having a 200:1 affinity ratio for the ?-2: ?-1 receptors, respectively.

Tizanidine is similar to clonidine but has a few key variances. It has the same sedative, anxiolytic, and analgesic characteristics as clonidine, although for a shorter period of time and with less effect on heart rate and blood pressure.

Dexmedetomidine, like clonidine, is a highly selective ?-2 adrenoreceptor agonist having a higher affinity for the ?-2 receptor. In the case of ?-2: ?-1 receptors, the affinity ratio is 1620:1. It has a biphasic blood pressure impact and induces a brief rise in blood pressure and reflex bradycardia (activation of ?-2b subtypes of receptors in vascular smooth muscles), followed by a reduction in sympathetic outflow from the brainstem and hypotension/bradycardia.

A prodrug is methyldopa. It blocks the enzyme dopa-decarboxylase, which converts L-dopa to dopamine (a precursor of noradrenaline and adrenaline). It is also converted to alpha-methyl noradrenaline, a centrally active agonist of the ?-2 adrenoreceptor. These two processes contribute to its blood pressure-lowering effect. Without a rise in heart rate, cardiac output is generally maintained. The heart rate of certain patients is slowed.

Phentolamine is a short-acting antagonist of peripheral ?-1 and ?-2 receptors that causes peripheral vascular resistance to reduce and vasodilation to increase. It’s used to treat hypertensive situations that aren’t life threatening (e.g. hypertension from phaeochromocytoma).

A baroreceptor reflex commonly causes reflex tachycardia when systemic vascular resistance drops.

The first line of defence against acid-base disorder is buffering. The blood mainly utilizes bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) for its buffering capacity (total of 53%, plasma and red blood cells combined).

Strong acids, when acted upon by a buffer, release H+, which then combines to HCO3- and forms carbonic acid (H2CO3). When acted upon by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, H2CO3 dissociates into H2O and CO.

The rest are the percentage of utilization for the following buffers:
Haemoglobin (by RBCs) – 35%
Plasma proteins (by plasma) – 7%
Organic phosphates (by RBCs) – 3%
Inorganic phosphates (by plasma) – 2%

The following are the pharmacokinetic properties of drugs with a low hepatic extraction ratio:

Changes in liver blood flow have no effect on drug clearance.
When given orally, drug clearance is extremely sensitive to changes in protein binding, intrinsic metabolism, and excretion, and there is no first-pass metabolism.

Warfarin and phenytoin are two drugs with low hepatic extraction ratios.

The following are the pharmacokinetic properties of drugs with a high hepatic extraction ratio:

When taken orally, undergo extensive first-pass metabolism; drug clearance is dependent on liver blood flow, and drug clearance is less sensitive to changes in protein binding and intrinsic metabolism.

Morphine, lidocaine, propranolol, and etomidate are examples of drugs with high hepatic extraction ratios.

Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.

It can be found as:

NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).

where ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)

So,

ARR= (43.9-37.3)

ARR= 6.6

NNT= 1000/6.6

NNT=151.5

The inferior phrenic nerves are at the highest risk of damage as they are the first branches of the abdominal aorta. The potential space at the level of the diaphragmatic hiatus is a potentially useful site for aortic occlusion. However, leaving the clamp applied for more than 10 -15 minutes usually leads to poor outcomes.

The superior phrenic artery branches from the thoracic aorta.

The abdominal aorta begins at the level of the body of T12 near the midline, as a continuation of the thoracic aorta. It descends and bifurcates at the level of L4 into the common iliac arteries.

The branches of the abdominal aorta (with their vertebra level) are:
1. Inferior phrenic arteries: T12 (upper border)
2. Coeliac artery: T12
3. Superior mesenteric artery: L1
4. Middle suprarenal arteries: L1
5. Renal arteries: Between L1 and L2
6. Gonadal arteries: L2 (in males, it is the testicular artery, and in females, the ovarian artery)
7. Inferior mesenteric artery: L3
8. Median sacral artery: L4
9. Lumbar arteries: Between L1 and L4

PaCO2 is one of the most important factors that regulate cerebral vascular tone. CO2 induces cerebral vasodilatation and as a result, it increases CBF. Between 20 mmHg (2.7 kPa) and 80 mmHg (10.7 kPa), there is a linear increase of PaCO2.

Sometimes, there are areas where auto regulation has failed locally but not globally. Similarly, local vs. systemic acidosis will have similar effects. When the PaO2 falls below 50 mmHg (6.5 kPa), the CBF progressively increases.

An increase in the cerebral metabolic rate for oxygen (CMRO2) and therefore CBF can be caused by hyperthermia.
A late feature of cerebral injury is hyperthermia secondary to hypothalamic injury. Therefore this is not the most likely cause of an increased CBF in this scenario.

Risk ratio (relative risk) compares the probability of an event in an exposed (experimental) group to that of an event in the unexposed (control) group.

A relative risk of 1 suggests that there is no discernible difference in the outcome whether or not it has been exposed.

A relative risk of less than 1 indicates that probability of occurrence of an event is less if there is exposure.

A relative risk of greater than 1 highlights that an event is most likely to occur if it was provided exposure. Since you believe that exposure (the new drug) would have side effects, the value should be greater than 1.

There are two types of drug dose-response relationships, namely, the graded dose-response and the quantal dose-response relationships.

Drug response curves are plotted as percentage response again LOG drug concentration. This graph is sigmoid in shape.

Agonists are drugs with high affinity and high intrinsic activity. Meanwhile, the antagonist is a drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity. Intrinsic activity determines the maximal response. The maximal response can be achieved even by activation of a small proportion of receptor sites.

Adrenaline acts on ?1, ?2,?1, and ?2 receptors and also on dopamine receptors (D1, D2) and have sympathomimetic effects.

Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

Adrenaline is a sympathomimetic amine with both alpha and beta-adrenergic stimulating properties.
Adrenaline is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock
Adrenaline is also used in patients with cardiac arrest. The preferred route is i.v. followed by the intra-osseous and endotracheal route.

Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.

It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.

It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.

It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas. It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue

Taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is carried by chorda tympani, a branch of the facial nerve.

The general somatic sensation of the anterior two-third of the tongue is supplied by the lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular nerve.

Both general somatic sensation and taste from the posterior third of the tongue are carried by the glossopharyngeal nerve.

All the muscles of the tongue except palatoglossus are supplied by the hypoglossal nerve whereas palatoglossus is supplied by the vagus nerve. (This is because palatoglossus is the only tongue muscle derived from the fourth branchial arch)

With a history of drug abuse, the patient is likely dependent on and tolerant to opioids. He is also likely to experience significant pain from his injuries. Providing adequate pain relief with regular paracetamol and NSAIDs in combination with a pure opioid agonist while at the same time avoiding occurrence of acute withdrawal syndrome is the goal.

Administering a baseline dose of opioid corresponding to the patient’s usual opioid use plus an opioid dose required to address the level of pain the patient experience can help prevent opioid withdrawal. The best approach is by empowering the patient to use patient controlled analgesia (PCA). The infusion rate, bolus dose and lock-out time are adjusted accordingly. Using PCA helps in avoiding staff/patient confrontations about dose and dosing interval.

2.5 mg heroin is equivalent to 3.3 mg morphine. This patient is usually on 200 mg of heroin per 24 hours. The equivalent dose of morphine is 80 × 3.3 =254 mg per 24 hours (11 mg/hour).

Epidural or spinal opioids might be the best choice for providing a systemic dose of opioids when patients are in remission to avoid withdrawal. Lumbar vertebral fractures is a contraindication to this route of analgesia.

The long half life of Oral methadone make titration to response difficult. Also, absorption of methadone by the gastrointestinal tract is variable. It is therefore NOT the best choice for acute pain management.

A damped sine wave is a smooth, periodic oscillation with an amplitude that approaches zero as time goes to infinity. In other words, the wave gets flatter as the x-values become larger.

Critical damping is defined as the threshold between overdamping and underdamping. In the case of critical damping, the oscillator returns to the equilibrium position as quickly as possible, without oscillating, and passes it once at most.

In overdamping, the system moves slowly towards the equilibrium. An underdamped system moves quickly to equilibrium, but will oscillate about the equilibrium point as it does so.

Optimal damping has a damping coefficient of around 0.64-0.7. It maximizes frequency response, minimizes overshoot of oscillations, and minimizes phase and amplitude distortion.

In an undamped system, the amplitude of the waves that are being generated remain unchanged and constant over time.

The glucose molecule enters the Bowman’s capsule freely and becomes part of the filtrate.

All glucose is reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule when blood glucose concentrations are below a certain threshold (approximately 11 mmol/L) (PCT). Active transportation makes this possible. In the proximal tubular cells, sodium/glucose cotransporters (SGLT1 and SGLT2) are the proteins responsible.

Glucose does not normally appear in the urine below the renal threshold.

The renal glucose threshold is not set in stone and is affected by a variety of factors, including GFR, TmG, and the quantity of splay.

The different absorptive and filtering capacities of individual nephrons cause splay, which is the rounding of a glucose reabsorption curve.

The SGLT proteins have a high affinity for glucose, but not an infinite affinity. As a result, some glucose may escape reabsorption before the TmG. A decrease in renal threshold may be caused by an increase in splay.

Because the filtered glucose load is reduced and the PCT can reabsorb all of the filtered glucose despite hyperglycaemia, a low GFR causes an increase in TmG. In contrast, lowering the TmG lowers the threshold because the tubules’ ability to reabsorb glucose is reduced.

A reduction in GFR caused by severe dehydration and reduced perfusion pressure is the most obvious cause of the discrepancy between plasma and urinary glucose in this scenario.

Noradrenaline also called norepinephrine belongs to the catecholamine family that functions in the brain and body as both a hormone and neurotransmitter.

They have sympathomimetic effects acting via adrenoceptors (?1, ?2,?1, ?2, ?3) or dopamine receptors (D1, D2).

May cause reflex bradycardia, reduce cardiac output and increase myocardial oxygen consumption

Normally, the oesophagus is lined by non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. This epithelium can undergo metaplasia and convert to the columnar epithelium (stomach’s lining) in long-standing GERD that leads to Barret’s oesophagus.

CBF is defined as the blood volume that flows per unit mass per unit time in brain tissue and is typically expressed in units of ml blood/100 g tissue/minute. The normal average CBF in adults human is about 50 ml/100 g/min, with lower values in the white matter (,20 ml/100 g/min) and greater values in the gray matter (,80 ml/100 g/min).

Low CBF levels between 30-40 ml/100 g/min may begin to show poor prognostic EEG. EEG findings consistently associated with a poor outcome are isoelectric EEG, low voltage EEG, and burst suppression (specifically burst suppression with identical bursts), as well as the absence of EEG reactivity.

Staphylococcus aureus colonizes the nasopharynx in >20% of the general population.

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is resistant to flucloxacillin.

Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF). THF is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.

All ?-lactam antibiotics like penicillin interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The ?-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place

The patient is rebreathing carbon dioxide that has been exhaled.

Exhaustion of the soda lime and failure of the expiratory valve are the two most likely causes. A leak in the inspiratory limb is a less likely cause. Increased inhaled and exhaled carbon dioxide levels may appear with a normal-looking capnogram if the expiratory valve is ineffective.

The patient will exhale into both the inspiratory and expiratory limbs if the inspiratory valve is inoperable. A slanted downstroke inspiratory phase (as the patient inhales carbon dioxide-containing gas from the inspiratory limb) and increased end-tidal carbon dioxide can be seen on the capnogram.

Even if the soda lime were exhausted, a high fresh gas flow would be enough to prevent rebreathing. The difference in oxygen concentrations in inspired and expired breaths would be less pronounced.

Hypercapnia is caused by respiratory obstruction and malignant hyperthermia, but not by rebreathing.

The blood alcohol concentration depends on:

-The rate of alcohol absorption from the gastrointestinal tract
-The volume of distribution of alcohol in the body, and
-The rate of elimination of alcohol from the body.

Total body water is approximately 50% in a female as compared to 60% in a typical male. This means that the volume of distribution of alcohol is lower in female compared with men. This is the principal reason for higher peak in alcohol levels.

About 4% of ingested alcohol is metabolised by the liver accounting for first pass metabolism and 0.4% is metabolised by gastric alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH). The absorbed alcohol is NOT distributed to fat cells but it is distributed throughout the water compartments (plasma, interstitial and intracellular) of the body. Women have very little gastric ADH, which further influences this exaggerated rise.

85-98% of the alcohol is oxidised by the liver to acetaldehyde and then to acetate. The metabolic pathway initially observes first order kinetics and then saturation or zero order kinetics leading to peaks in alcohol levels.

Clearance of ethanol per unit lean body mass is lower in male. The calculated alcohol elimination rate and liver volume per kilogram of lean body mass were 33% and 38% higher in women than in men, respectively.

Available evidence in the literature about the relationship of alcohol metabolism to the phases of the menstrual cycle is conflicting.

Sugammadex is used for immediate reversal of rocuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade.
It is used at a dose of 16 mg/kg.

Since the patient in the question is 70 kg, the required dose of sugammadex can be calculated as:
16×70 = 1120 mg.

Sugammadex selectively binds rocuronium or vecuronium, thereby reversing their neuromuscular blocking action. Due to its 1:1 binding of rocuronium or vecuronium, it can reverse any depth of neuromuscular block.

The patient likely suffers from pulmonary embolism due to her history of frequent international travels. A filter is placed in the inferior vena cava to decrease the risk of future episodes of pulmonary embolism. The IVC filter is a small, wiry device that can catch blood clots and stop them from going into the heart and lungs. Your IVC is a major vessel that brings deoxygenated blood from the lower body to the heart, from where it is pumped into the lungs.

The filter is placed via a thin catheter inserted into the femoral vein in the groin. The catheter is gently moved up into your IVC, and a filter is introduced.

The IVC is a retroperitoneal organ.

An ankle block is commonly used for anaesthesia and postoperative analgesia when operating on bunions. It results in the selective block of the superficial peroneal, deep peroneal, and posterior tibial nerves.

The deep peroneal nerve supplies sensory input to the web space between the first and second toes (L4-5).

The L2-S1 nerve, often known as the superficial peroneal nerve, is a mixed motor and sensory neuron. It gives sensory supply to the anterolateral region of the leg, the anterior aspect of the 1st, 2nd, 3rd, and 4th toes, and innervates the peroneus longus and brevis muscles (with the exception of the web space between 1st and 2nd toes).

The sensory area of the saphenous nerve (L3-4) in the foot stretches from the proximal portion of the midfoot on the medial side to the proximal part of the midfoot on the lateral side.

The lateral side of the little (fifth) toe is innervated by the sural nerve’s sensory supply (S1-2). The heel, medial (medial plantar nerve), and lateral (lateral plantar nerve) soles of the foot are all served by the posterior tibial nerve.

Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is the maximum speed of air flow generated during a single forced exhaled breath. It is most useful when expressed as a percentage of the best value obtained from the patient.

Forced expiratory volume over 1 second (FEV1) is a lung parameter measured using spirometry. It is the amount of air forced out of the lung in one exhaled breath. It is a more accurate measure of lung obstructions as it doesn’t rely on effort like PEFR

PEFR and FEV1 are usually similar, but become more different in asthmatic patients as airflow becomes increasingly obstructed.

Acute severe asthma is most often diagnosed on history taking and examinations:

Respiratory rate: >25 breaths/min
Heart rate: >110 beats/min
PEFR: 33 – 50% predicted (<200L/min)
Patient state: Unable to complete a sentence in a single breath.

A chest x-ray is not routinely required, and is only indicated in specific circumstances, which are:

If a pneumomediastinum or pneumothorax is suspected
Possible life threatening asthma
Possible consolidation
Unresponsive asthma
If ventilation is required.

An echocardiograph (ECG) is not necessary in this case

Routine haematological and biochemical investigations are not urgent in this case as any abnormalities they detect will be secondary to the patient’s presentation.

An arterial blood gas (ABG) will only be indicated if SPO2 was <92% or if patient presented with life threatening symptoms.

Normally, at rest vagal influence is dominant producing the heart rate of 60-80 beats per minute even if the intrinsic automaticity of Sinoatrial Node is 100-110 beats per minute.

The transplanted heart has no autonomic nervous supply. So, it will respond to endogenous and exogenous catecholamine. This loss of parasympathetic innervation is responsible for the tachycardia in this patient.

Hypokalaemia can cause myocardial excitability and potential for ventricular ectopic and supraventricular arrhythmias. Hypothyroidism is also unlikely to cause tachycardia in this patient.

Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) was established by government under the Health and Safety at Work act in 1989. Their employers work on identification and management of those substances that are dangerous to health. The implications for anaesthetists include gas scavenging, equipment contamination and environmental safety. Adequate ventilation is required in areas where anaesthetic gases are present. The minimum air supply that is legally required in each specific area is: Operating theatres: 0.65 m3/second. Anaesthetic rooms: 0.15 m3/s. Preparation rooms: 0.1 m3/s. Recovery rooms need 15 air changes per hour

Boyle’s law is correctly stated as it states that the volume of a gas of known mass is inversely proportional with absolute pressure, at a constant temperature.

Beer’s law states that radiation absorption by a solution of known thickness and concentration is identical to that of a solution of double thickness and half concentration.

Bougner’s (or Lambert’s) law states that every layer with the same thickness will absorb the same amount of radiation as it passes through.

Graham’s law states that the diffusion rate of a gas is inversely related to the square root of its molecular weight.

Raoult’s law states that the reduction of a solvent’s vapour pressure is directly proportional to the solute’s molar concentration.

Omitted variable bias occurs when a statistician passes over one or more relevant variables from the study.

Publication bias occurs in publish academic research. it occurs when the results of the study effect the decision whether to publish or not.

Expectation bias occurs when the expectation of a researcher about the results effect the behaviour of the participants. Expectations may come from communication and experiences.

Work up bias occurs in the study of diagnostic test validity, whether a gold standard procedure has been used. work up bias can seriously affect the specificity of the test.

Recall bias introduced when participants in a study are systematically more or less likely to recall and relate information on exposure depending on their outcome status. Recall bias is more potential for Case-control studies.

Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits (not 50s) which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

They penetrate macrophages and are thus a drug of choice for treating infections due to intracellular organisms.

Tetracycline does not inhibit transpeptidation. Meanwhile, it is chloramphenicol which is responsible for inhibiting transpeptidation.

Tetracycline can get deposited in growing bone and teeth due to its calcium-binding effect and thus causes dental discoloration and dental hypoplasia. Due to this reason, they should be avoided in pregnant or lactating mothers.

Simultaneous administration of aluminium hydroxide can impede the absorption of tetracyclines.

This question is asking which structure would lie posterior to the rectus abdominis muscle and not the prosthetic mesh, as only peritoneum lies posterior to mesh during a total extraperitoneal (TEP) hernia repair.

The region of the repair lies below the arcuate line, meaning that the transversalis fascia and peritoneum lie posterior to the rectus abdominis.

The bucks fascia lies within the penis.

The porta hepatis is a fissure in the inferior surface of the liver. All the neurovascular structures that enter and leave the porta hepatis are:
1. hepatic portal vein
2. hepatic artery
3. hepatic ducts
4. hepatic nerve plexus (It contains the sympathetic branch to the liver and gallbladder and the parasympathetic, hepatic branch of the vagus nerve.)

These structures supply and drain the liver. Only the hepatic vein is not part of the porta hepatis.
The porta hepatis is also surrounded by lymph nodes, that may enlarge to produce obstructive jaundice.
These structures divide immediately after or within the porta hepatis to supply the functional left and right lobes of the liver.

The cystic duct lies outside the porta hepatis and is an important landmark in laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

The ECG changes seen in hypomagnesaemia include:

Prolonged PR interval
Prolonged QT interval
Flattening of T waves
ST segment depression
Prominent U waves

These changes are almost the same as those of hypokalaemia.

There is an increased risk of digoxin toxicity and a risk of atrial and ventricular ectopic and ventricular arrhythmias.

There is impaired synthesis and release of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in chronic hypomagnesaemia leading to impaired target organ response to PTH. This produces secondary hypocalcaemia.

The use of potassium ‘wasting’ diuretics (e.g. loop diuretics like furosemide) may lead to Hypomagnesaemia.

A tall T wave is seen in hypermagnesemia.

The principal innervation of the small muscles of the hand is T1.

With regards to compensatory response to blood loss, the following sequence of events take place:

1. Decrease in venous return, right atrial pressure and cardiac output
2. Baroreceptor reflexes (carotid sinus and aortic arch) are immediately activated
3. There is decreased afferent input to the cardiovascular centre in medulla. This inhibits parasympathetic reflexes and increases sympathetic response
4. This results in an increased cardiac output and increased SVR by direct sympathetic stimulation. There is increased circulating catecholamines and local tissue mediators (adenosine, potassium, NO2)
5. Fluid moves into the intravascular space as a result of decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure absorbing interstitial fluid.

A slower response is mounted by the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis.
6. Reduced renal blood flow is sensed by the intra renal baroreceptors and this stimulates release of renin by the juxta-glomerular apparatus.
7. There is cleavage of circulating Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I, which is converted to Angiotensin II in the lungs (by Angiotensin Converting Enzyme ACE)

Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor that sets off other endocrine pathways.
8. The adrenal cortex releases Aldosterone
9. There is antidiuretic hormone release from posterior pituitary (also in response to hypovolaemia being sensed by atrial stretch receptors)
10. This leads to sodium and water retention in the distal convoluted renal tubule to conserve fluid
Fluid conservation is also aided by an increased amount of cortisol which is secreted in response to the increase in circulating catecholamines and sympathetic stimulation.

This patient’s limited haematological profile includes mild normocytic anaemia and a normal platelet count.

Iron deficiency is the most common cause of anaemia during pregnancy. It affects 75 to 95 percent of patients. A haemoglobin level of less than 110 g/L in the first trimester and less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters is considered anaemia. There will usually be a low mean cell volume (MCV), mean cell haemoglobin (MCH), and mean cell haemoglobin concentration in addition to a low haemoglobin (MCHC). The MCV may be normal in mild cases of iron deficiency or coexisting vitamin B12 and folate deficiency.

To determine whether you have an iron deficiency, you’ll need to take more tests. Low serum ferritin (15 g/L) and less reliable indices like serum iron and total iron binding capacity are among them.

A number of factors contribute to iron deficiency in pregnancy, including:

Insufficient dietary iron to meet the mother’s and foetus’ nutritional needs
Multiple pregnancies
Blood loss, as well as
Absorption of iron from the gut is reduced.

The volume of plasma increases by about 50% during pregnancy, but the mass of red blood cells (RBCs) increases by only 30%. Dilutional anaemia is the result of this situation. From the first trimester to delivery, the RBC mass increases linearly, while the plasma volume plateaus, stabilises, or falls slightly near term. As a result, between 28 and 34 weeks of pregnancy, haemoglobin concentrations are at their lowest. The effects of haemodilution will be negated in this patient because she is 37 weeks pregnant.

Vitamin B12 and folate deficiency are less common causes of anaemia in pregnancy. The diagnosis could be ruled out if the MVC is normal.

During pregnancy, the platelet count drops, especially in the third trimester. Gestational thrombocytopenia is the medical term for this condition. It’s due to a combination of factors, including haemodilution and increased platelet activation and clearance. Pre-eclampsia and HELLP syndrome are common causes of thrombocytopenia. Pre-eclampsia isn’t the only cause of anaemia during pregnancy.

A typical blood picture of a haemoglobinopathy like sickle cell disease shows quantitative and qualitative defects, with the former leading to a severe anaemia exacerbated by haemodilution and other factors that contribute to iron deficiency. Microcytic cells are the most common type.

Always call for help early. This patient is at risk of gastro-oesophageal reflux, which is why a rapid sequence induction has been chosen. The patient is not pregnant, and the surgery is not urgent.

Plan A is to perform a rapid sequence induction under optimal conditions and secure the airway with a tracheal tube.

No more than three attempts with a direct laryngoscope (plus one attempt with a videolaryngoscope) should be made to intubate the trachea. Keep in mind that suxamethonium is wearing off. Ensuring adequate neuromuscular blockade at this stage is crucial; this might include administering a non-depolarizing relaxant if oxygenation can be maintained with bag-mask ventilation. Given the non-immediate nature of the surgery, there should be a low threshold to abandon intubation attempts and resort to Plan B.

An alternative strategy can then be planned.

The most important initial step is to declare a “failed intubation.” This will prevent further intubation attempts and alert your assistant that Plan A has failed. Maintaining oxygenation and anesthesia is also critical before implementing Plan B.

Do not administer another dose of suxamethonium. Insert a supraglottic airway if oxygenation fails and adequate ventilation cannot be maintained.

Plan D follows the declaration of a CICO (Cannot Intubate, Cannot Oxygenate) situation.

Nausea and vomiting occur commonly due to Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CTZ) stimulation by dopamine (Domperidone but not metoclopramide can be used for the treatment of this vomiting)

Dopamine itself cannot cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB) but its precursor levodopa can cross BBB.

Dopamine can modulate extrapyramidal symptoms like acute dyskinesia, tardive dyskinesia, Parkinsonism, and Neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

Dopamine inhibits the secretion of prolactin from the pituitary gland.

There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:

Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially

Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)

Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature

Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output

Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.

Severity of a reduction in restrictive defect (%FVC) or obstructive defect (%FEV1/FVC) predicted are classified as follows:

Mild 70-80%
Moderate 60-69%
Moderately severe 50-59%
Severe 35-49%
Very severe <35% This patient has a %FVC predicted of 60.4% and this corresponds to a moderate restrictive deficit. %FEV1/FVC ratio is 93.5%. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC < 80% = mixed picture. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC > 80% = obstructive picture.

FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC > 80% = normal picture.

FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC < 80% predicted= restrictive picture. The integrity of the alveolar-capillary barrier is measured by carbon monoxide transfer factor (TLCO) and carbon monoxide transfer coefficient (KCO). These values are seen to be reduced in emphysema, interstitial lung diseases and in pulmonary vascular pathology. However, the KCO (as % predicted) is high in extrapulmonary restriction (pleural, chest wall and respiratory neuromuscular disease), and in loss of lung units provided the structure of the lung remaining is normal. The KCO distinguishes extrapulmonary (high KCO) causes of ‘restriction’ from intrapulmonary causes (low KCO).

The major action of ADH is to increase reabsorption of osmotically unencumbered water from the glomerular filtrate and decreases the volume of urine passed. The osmolarity of urine is increased to a maximum of four times that of plasma (approx. 1200 mOsm/kg) by Increasing water reabsorption.

Chronic water loading, Lithium, potassium deficiency, cortisol and calcium excess, all blunt the action of ADH. This leads to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.

ADH’s primary site of action is the distal tubule and collecting duct.

The correct answer is the mean, median and mode of normally distributed data are the same value. This is as a result of the bell shaped curve which is equal on both sides.

The bell-shape indicates that values around the mean are more frequent in occurrence than the values farther away.

In a normal distribution:
1) +/- one standard deviation of the mean accounts for 68% of the data.
2) +/- two standard deviations of the mean accounts for 95% of the data.
3) +/- three standard deviations of the mean accounts for 99.7% of the data.

Based on the presenting symptoms and clinical examination, it is a case of an adult sinus bradycardia with adverse signs. The first pharmacological treatment for this condition is atropine 500mcg intravenously and if necessary repeat every three to five minutes up to a maximum of 3 mg.

If the bradycardia does not subside even after the administration of atropine, cardiac pacing should be considered. If pacing cannot be achieved promptly, we should consider the use of second-line drugs like adrenaline, dobutamine, or isoprenaline.

Foramen ovale, ductus arteriosus (DA) and ductus venosus (DV) are the three important cardiac shunts in-utero.

At birth the umbilical vessels constrict in response to stretch as they are clamped. Blood flow through the ductus venosus (DV) decreases but the DV closes passively in 3-10 days.

As the pulmonary circulation is established, there is a drastic fall in pulmonary vascular resistance and an increased pulmonary blood flow. This increases flow and pressure in the Left Atrium that exceeds that of the right atrium. The difference in pressure usually leads to the IMMEDIATE closure of the foramen ovale.

The DA is functionally closed within the first 36-hours of birth in a healthy full-term newborn. Subsequent endothelial and fibroblast proliferation leads to permanent anatomical closure within 2 – 3 weeks.

Oxygenated blood from the placenta passes via the umbilical vein to the liver. Blood also bypasses the liver via the ductus venosus into the inferior vena cava (IVC). The Crista dividens is a tissue flap situated at the junction of the IVC and the right atrium (RA). This flap directs the oxygen-rich blood, along the posterior aspect of the IVC, through the foramen ovale into the left atrium (LA).

The Eustachian valve also known as the valve of The IVC is a remnant of the crista dividens.

The AAGBI and the British Hypertension Society has published guidelines for the measurement of adult blood pressure and management of hypertension before elective surgery.

The objective is to ensure that patients admitted for elective surgery have a known systolic blood pressure below 160 mmHg and diastolic blood pressures below 100 mmHg. The primary health care teams, if possible, should ensure that this is the case and provide evidence to the pre-assessment clinic staff or on admission.

Avoiding cancellation on the day of surgery because of white coat hypertension is a secondary objective.

Patients with blood pressures below 180 mmHg systolic and 110 mmHg diastolic (measured in the preop assessment clinic), who present to pre-operative assessment clinics without documented evidence of primary care blood pressures should proceed to elective surgery.

In this question, the history/assessment does not appear to point to obvious end-organ damage so there is no indication for further investigation for secondary causes of hypertension or an echocardiogram at this point. Further review and treatment at this point is not required.

However, you should write to the patient’s GP and encourage serial blood pressure measurements in the primary health care setting.

The needle should be inserted just below the skin at the mid inguinal point which is the surface indicator for the femoral artery.

It is well known that atropine will cross the placenta and that maternal administration results in an increase in fetal heart rate.

Atropine is highly selective for muscarinic receptors. Its potency at nicotinic receptors is much lower, and actions at non-muscarinic receptors are generally undetectable clinically. Atropine does not distinguish among the M1, M2, and M3 subgroups of muscarinic receptors. In contrast, other antimuscarinic drugs are moderately selective for one or another of these subgroups. Most synthetic antimuscarinic drugs are considerably less selective than atropine in interactions with nonmuscarinic receptors.

A study on glycopyrrolate, a quaternary ammonium salt, was found to have a fetal: maternal serum concentration ratio of 0.4 indicating partial transfer.

Heparin, suxamethonium, and vecuronium do not cross the placenta.

The option that is most responsible is the progressive decrease in venous return of blood to the right atrium. The heart rate does not usually change with PEEP so the fall in cardiac output is due to a reduction in left ventricular (LV) stroke volume (SV).

Note that the interventricular septum does shift toward the left and there is an increased pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) from overdistention of alveolar air sacs that contribute to the reduction in cardiac output. Any increase in PVR will be associated with reduced pulmonary vascular capacitance.

It’s a minute volume divider – True
The Manley MP3 ventilator is classed as a minute volume divider. The entire fresh gas flow or minute volume is delivered to the patient, having been divided into readily set tidal volumes.

Can efficiently ventilate patients with poor pulmonary compliance – False
Ventilating patients with poor pulmonary compliance is not easily achieved, which makes it an unsuitable ventilator for a modern ICU.

Can generate tidal volume up to 1500ml – False
It can generate tidal volumes up to 1000 ml (not 1500 ml), and the inflation pressure can be adjusted by sliding a weight along a rail.

Functions like a Mapleson A system during spontaneous ventilation – False
The ventilator functions like a Mapleson D breathing system (not Mapleson A) during spontaneous ventilation.

Has three sets of bellows – False
The fresh gas flow drives the ventilator which allows rapid detection of gas supply failure. It has two sets of bellows (not three) and three unidirectional valves.

Nitric oxide (NO), an endothelial-derived relaxant factor (EDRF), is a powerful vasodilator. Its cell-signalling molecule is calcium-dependant and generated endogenous by nitric oxide synthetases from the precursor L-arginine, oxygen and NADPH. Three main isoforms have been isolated and they are inducible (iNO), neuronal (nNO) and endothelial (eNO).

Endothelial NO stimulates intracellular guanylyl cyclase which generates cyclic GMP (cGMP) from its action on guanylyl tri-phosphate (GTP). The cGMP goes on to activate protein kinase G (PKG). PKG phosphorylates cell membrane proteins that regulate intracellular calcium concentrations and level of calcium sensitisation.

Smooth muscle vasodilatation results from:

1. Light chain phosphatase activation.
2. Inhibition of calcium entry into the cell (reducing Ca2+ concentrations) and
3. Hyperpolarisation of cells by activation of H+ channels.

Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.

The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.

Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.

Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.

It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2–1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation

Dorsal column (ascending tract) – Proprioception, vibration, discriminative

Spinocerebellar (ascending tract) – Subconscious muscle position and tone

Corticospinal (descending tract) – Voluntary muscle

Rubrospinal (descending tract) – Flexor muscle tone

Vestibulospinal (descending tract) – Reflexes and muscle tone

Reticulospinal(descending tract) – Voluntary movements, head position.-

Autonomic – Descending tract.

Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume

The amount of oxygen carried by 100 ml of blood is called the arterial oxygen content (CaO2)and is normally 17-24 ml/dL and can be determined by this equation:

CaO2 = oxygen bound to haemoglobin + oxygen dissolved in plasma

CaO2 = (1.34 × Hgb × SaO2 × 0.01) + (0.003 × PaO2)

where:

1.34 = Huffner’s constant (D) – Huffner’s constant does not change and its magnitude relatively small.
Hgb is the haemoglobin level in g/dL and SaO2 is the percent oxyhaemoglobin saturation of arterial blood
PaO2 is (0.0225 = ml of O2 dissolved per 100 ml plasma per kPa, or 0.003 ml per mmHg).

Quantitatively, the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma is 0.3 mL/dL.

Henry’s law states that at constant temperature, the amount of gas dissolved at equilibrium in a given quantity of a liquid is proportional to the pressure of the gas in contact with the liquid.

Given a haemoglobin concentration of 15 g/dL and a SaO2 of 100% and a PaO2 of 13.3 kPa, the amount of oxygen bound to haemoglobin is 20.4 mL/100mL.

Cardiac output is an important determinant of oxygen delivery but does not influence the oxygen content of blood.

The walls of the anterior nasal passage are supplied by the anterior ethmoidal branch of the nasociliary nerve, and the floor is innervated by the superior dental nerve (not the sphenopalatine nerves).

The walls and floor of the posterior nasal passage are innervated by the long and short sphenopalatine nerves and the great palatine nerve (not the superior dental nerves and the nasociliary nerve).

The vestibule is innervated by small branches of the infraorbital branch of the maxillary nerve.

The nasopharynx is innervated by the sensory branches of the trigeminal nerve (not the great palatine nerve).

The laryngeal folds are comprised of two types of folds; the vestibular fold and the vocal fold. The vocal folds are mobile, and concerned with voice production. They are formed by the mucous membrane covering the vocal ligament. They are avascular, hence, are white in colour.

The internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve provides sensation above the vocal cords. Lesions to this nerve may lead to loss of sensation above the vocal cords and loss of taste on the epiglottis.

The recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies the lateral and posterior cricoarytenoid, the thyroarytenoid. It also provides sensation below the vocal cords. Lesions to this nerve may cause respiratory obstruction, hoarseness, inability to speak and loss of sensation below the vocal cords.

The external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve supplies the cricothyroid muscle.

The glossopharyngeal nerve contains both sensory and motor components, and provides somatic innervation to the stylopharyngeus muscle, visceral motor innervation to the parotid gland, and carries afferent sensory fibres from the posterior third of the tongue, pharynx and tympanic cavity.

When the eye is compressed or the extra-ocular muscles are tractioned, the oculocardiac reflex causes a decrease in heart rate.

The ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve provides the afferent limb. This synapses with the vagus nerve’s visceral motor nucleus in the brainstem. The efferent signal is carried by the vagus nerve to the heart, where increased parasympathetic tone reduces sinoatrial node output and slows heart rate.

The most common symptom is sinus bradycardia, but junctional rhythm and asystole can also occur.

Immunoglobulin E (IgE) are an antibody subtype produced by the immune system. They are the least abundant type and function in parasitic infections and allergy responses.

The most predominant type of immunoglobulin is IgG. It is able to be transmitted across the placenta to provide immunity to the foetus.

IgE is involved in the type I hypersensitivity reaction as it stimulates mast cells to release histamine. It has no role in type 2 hypersensitivity.

Its concentration in the serum is normally the least abundant, however certain reactions cause a rise in its concentration, such as atopy, but not in acute asthma.

Unionised molecules are more likely than ionised molecules to cross membranes (such as the blood-brain barrier).

Because alfentanil and fentanyl are weak bases, the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation says that the ratio of ionised to unionised molecules is determined by the parent compound’s pKa in relation to physiological pH.

Alfentanil has a pKa of 6.5, while fentanyl has a pKa of 8.4.
At a pH of 7.4, 89 percent of alfentanil is unionised, whereas 9% of fentanyl is.

As a result, alfentanil has a faster onset than fentanyl.

Fentanyl is 83% plasma protein bound
Alfentanil is 90% plasma protein bound.

Alfentanil’s pharmacokinetics are affected by its higher plasma protein binding. Because alfentanil has a low hepatic extraction ratio (0.4), clearance is determined by the degree of protein binding rather than the time it takes to take effect.

A mercury barometer can be used to determine absolute pressure. A glass tube with one closed end serves as the barometer. The open end is inserted into a mercury-filled open vessel. The mercury in the container is pushed into the tube by atmospheric pressure exerted on its surface. Absolute pressure is the distance between the tube’s meniscus and the mercury surface.

Pressure is defined as force in newtons per unit area (F) (A). 

Mass of mercury = area (A) × density (ρ) × length (L)
Pressure = ((A × ρ × L) × 9.8 m/s2)/A
Pressure = ρ × L x 9.8
Pressure is proportional to L

The numerator and denominator of the above equation, area (A), cancel out. The constants are density and the gravitational acceleration value.

The length is proportional to the applied pressure.

To denote large measured units, the following SI mathematical prefixes are used:

1 deca = 10 bytes (101)
1 hecto (h) = 100 bytes
1 kilo (k)= 1,000 bytes
1 mega (M) = 1,000,000 bytes
1 giga (G) = 1,000,000,000 bytes
1 Tera (T) = 1,000,000,000,000 bytes
1 Peta (P) = 1,000,000,000,000,000 bytes

The bispectral index (BIS) monitors works to determine the level of consciousness of a patient by processing electroencephalographic (EEG) signals to obtain a value between 0 and 100, where 0 reflects no brain activity, and 100 reflects a patient is completely awake.

The general meaning of BIS values are:

>95: Patient is in an awake state.
65-85: Patient is in a sedated state.
40-65: Patient is in a state that is optimal for general surgery.
<40: Patient is in a deep hypnotic state It is important in measuring the depths of anaesthesia to prevent haemodynamic changes or patient awareness during surgery. The nature of anaesthetic agent used is a determinant factor in resultant BIS values. Intravenous agents, such as propofol, thiopental and midazolam, result in a deeper hypnotic state, whilst inhalation agents have a lesser hypnotic effect at the same BIS values. Certain agents result in inaccurate BIS values such as ketamine and nitrous oxide (NO). These two agents appear to increase the BIS value, whilst putting the patient in a deeper hypnotic state, and should therefore not be used with BIS monitoring. Hypothermia also affects the BIS value as it causes a 1.12 per °C decrease in body temperature.

The attributable risk is the rate of a disease in an exposed group to that of a group that has not been exposed to it. It involves the measure of association that is pertinent to making decisions for the individuals.

The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) has been used in outcome models as a measure of physiological derangement and as a tool for assessing head trauma.

Eye opening (E):

4 Spontaneously
3 Responds to voice
2 Responds to painful stimulus
1 No response.

Best verbal response (V):

5 Orientated, converses normally
4 Confused, disoriented conversation, but able to answer basic questions
3 Inappropriate responses, words discernible
2 Incomprehensible speech
1 Makes no sounds.

Best motor response (M):

6 Obeys commands for movement
5 Purposeful movement to painful stimulus
4 Withdraws from pain
3 Abnormal (spastic) flexor response to painful stimuli, decorticate posture
2 Extensor response to painful stimuli, decerebrate posture
1 No response.

In this case, GCS = 2+3+5 = 10.

Platelets are fragments of megakaryocytes and they are encapsulated by membrane.

They have no nucleus but are metabolically active and are able to express membrane receptors and release stored substances when triggered. adenosine diphosphate and serotonin are 2 of its content.

Because they have no nucleus, they are not able to produce new proteins. This is why aspirin and other drugs affect function for their entire lifespan after exposure. Its lifespan is approximately 9-10 days in normal individuals.

Platelets does NOT PRODUCE prostacyclin but are able to produce nitric oxide, prostaglandins and thromboxane.

Cardiac conduction

Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period