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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following is included in monosynaptic reflexes?
Your Answer: The cremasteric reflex.
Correct Answer: The patellar or knee jerk reflex.
Explanation:Monosynaptic reflexes is a type of reflex arc providing direct communication between motor and sensory innervation in a muscle. It occurs very quickly as it arises and ends in the same muscle. Examples include: biceps reflex, brachioradialis reflex, extensor digitorum reflex, triceps reflex, Achilles reflex and patellar reflex.
Polysynaptic reflexes facilitates contraction and inhibition in muscle by providing communication between multiple muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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If a patient is to be placed under general anaesthesia using total intravenous technique with target-controlled infusions of propofol and remifentanil, what safety precaution is the most vital in this a scenario?
Your Answer: Dedicated intravenous access for infusion
Correct Answer: Cannula access site clearly visible and regularly checked
Explanation:According to the Safe Anaesthesia Liaison Group, the most important factor to consider the cannula access, and if the patient is properly receiving the total intravenous anaesthesia. The cannula access must be regularly checked for kinks, leaks and disconnections.
Below are the safety precautions and policies to be followed for total intravenous anaesthesia among children and adults:
When administering TIVA, a non-return valve must be used on any intravenous fluid line;
When using equipment, it is essential that clinical staff know its limitations and uses;
Sites of intravenous infusions should be visible so they may be monitored for disconnection, leaks or perivenous infusion into the subcutaneous tissues; and,
Organisations must give preference to clearly labelled intravenous connectors and valves. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old girl, Sam, has suffered a road traffic accident. She is brought to the emergency department and undergoes investigations and treatment.
On X-ray of the humerus, she has a mid-shaft fracture.
What structure is at the highest risk of damage with a mid-shaft humeral fracture?Your Answer: Brachial artery
Correct Answer: Radial nerve
Explanation:Mid-shaft fractures of the humerus usually occur after a direct blow to the upper arm, which can occur after a fall or RTAs.
The most important clinical significance of a mid-shaft humeral fracture is an injury to the radial nerve. The radial nerve originates from the brachial plexus and has roots of C5-T1. It crosses the spiral groove on the posterior side of the shaft of the humerus.
On examination, the patient may have a wrist drop, loss or weakness of finger extension, and decreased or absent sensation to the posterior forearm, digits 1 to 3, and the radial half of the fourth digit.The humeral shaft has two compartments:
1. Anterior:
Brachial artery and vein
Biceps brachii, brachialis, coracobrachialis
Musculocutaneous, median, and ulnar nerves
2. Posterior:
Radial nerve
TricepsOther significant nerve injuries are:
1. Axillary nerve – surgical neck fracture of the humerus
2. Brachial Artery – supracondylar fracture of the humerus
3. Axillary artery – surgical neck fracture of the humerus, but is relatively uncommon -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman known to be hypothyroid and taking 150 mcg l-thyroxine daily is reviewed in the preoperative assessment clinic prior to a laparoscopic cholecystectomy.
She has required three increases in her thyroid replacement therapy in the last six months.
Her thyroid function tests are as follows:
TSH 11 (normal range 0.4-4mU/L)
T3 20 (normal range 9-25mU/L)
T4 6.2 (normal range 3.5-7.8mU/L)
What will explain this biochemical picture?Your Answer: Generalised resistance to thyroid hormone (GrTH)
Correct Answer: Poor compliance with medication
Explanation:In patients with an intact hypothalamic-pituitary axis, serial TSH measurements are used to determine the adequacy of treatment with thyroid hormones . changes in TSH levels becoming apparent after approximately eight weeks of therapy with thyroid hormone replacement. Change in T3/T4 levels are seen before changes in TSH .
In patients taking thyroid replacement therapy, the most frequent reason for persistent elevation of serum TSH is poor compliance. Patients who do not regularly take their L-thyroxine try and catch up just before a visit to a clinician for blood test.
Tissue-level unresponsiveness to thyroid hormone is caused by mutation in the gene controlling a receptor for T3 and is rare.
Reduced responsiveness of target tissues to thyroid hormone aka resistance to thyroid hormones (rTH) occurs when there is a mutation in the thyroid hormone receptor ? gene. It is a rare autosomal dominant inherited syndrome of reduced end-organ responsiveness to thyroid hormone and has two types:
Generalised resistance (GrTH)
Pituitary resistance (PrTH)Patients with rTH have normal or slightly elevated serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, elevated serum free thyroxine (FT4) and free triiodothyronine (FT3) concentrations.
Drugs that increase metabolism of thyroxine include:
Warfarin
Rifampin
Phenytoin
Phenobarbital
St John’s Wort
CarbamazepineThese drugs lower circulating thyroid hormones and would be associated with a raised TSH but low T3/T4.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 5
Correct
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All the following statements are false regarding local anaesthetic except
Your Answer: Potency is directly related to lipid solubility
Explanation:The potency of local anaesthetics is directly proportional to lipid solubility because they need to penetrate the lipid-soluble membrane to enter the cell.
Protein binding has a direct relationship with the duration of action because the higher the ability of the drug to bind with membrane protein, the higher is the duration of action.
Higher the pKa of a drug, slower the onset of action. Because a drug with higher pKa will be more ionized than the one with lower pKa at a given pH. Local anaesthetics are weak bases, and unionized form diffuses more rapidly across the nerve membrane than the protonated form. As a result drugs with higher pKa will be more ionized will diffuse less across the nerve membrane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 60-year-old male is being reviewed in the peri-operative assessment before total knee replacement. He had a history of a heart transplant 10 years back. His resting heart rate is 110 beats per minute. On examination, ECG showed sinus tachycardia.
Which of the following explains this tachycardia?Your Answer: Loss of parasympathetic innervation
Explanation:Normally, at rest vagal influence is dominant producing the heart rate of 60-80 beats per minute even if the intrinsic automaticity of Sinoatrial Node is 100-110 beats per minute.
The transplanted heart has no autonomic nervous supply. So, it will respond to endogenous and exogenous catecholamine. This loss of parasympathetic innervation is responsible for the tachycardia in this patient.
Hypokalaemia can cause myocardial excitability and potential for ventricular ectopic and supraventricular arrhythmias. Hypothyroidism is also unlikely to cause tachycardia in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which statement is true with regards to the cardiac action potential?
Your Answer: The absolute refractory period begins with large influx of potassium ions. Offsets action of sodium channels.
Correct Answer: Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close causes the relative refractory period to start
Explanation:Cardiac conduction
Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium
Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop
Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period
Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period
Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 28-year male patient presents to the GP with a 2-day history of abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea. He reports that he was completely fine until one week ago when headache and general tiredness appeared. After further questioning, he revealed eating at a dodgy takeaway 3 days before the start of his symptoms.
Which of the following diagnosis is most likely?Your Answer: E. coli
Correct Answer: Campylobacter
Explanation:Giardiasis is known to have a longer incubation time and doesn’t cause bloody diarrhoea.
Cholera usually doesn’t cause bloody diarrhoea.
Generally, most of the E.coli strains do not cause bloody diarrhoea.
Diverticulitis can be a cause of bloody stool but the history here points out to an infectious cause.
Campylobacter infection is the most probable cause as it is characterized by a prodrome, abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 9
Correct
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An 80-year-old man will be operated on for an arterial bypass procedure to treat claudication and foot ulceration. The anterior tibial artery will be the target for distal arterial anastomosis.
Which structure is NOT closely related to the anterior tibial artery?Your Answer: Tibialis posterior
Explanation:The anterior tibial artery originates from the distal border of the popliteus. In the posterior compartment, it passes between the heads of the tibialis posterior and the oval aperture of the interosseous membrane to reach the anterior compartment.
On entry into the anterior compartment, it runs medially along the deep peroneal nerve.
The upper third of the artery courses between the tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus muscles, while the middle third runs between the tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus muscles.At the ankle, the anterior tibial artery is located approximately midway between the malleoli. It continues on the dorsum of the foot, lateral to extensor hallucis longus, as the dorsalis pedis artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which statement is true about the autonomic nervous system?
Your Answer: Post ganglionic synapses use Acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter with nicotinic receptors in the parasympathetic system
Correct Answer: Preganglionic synapse utilise Acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter in both parasympathetic and sympathetic systems
Explanation:With regards to the autonomic nervous system (ANS)
1. It is not under voluntary control
2. It uses reflex pathways and different to the somatic nervous system.
3. The hypothalamus is the central point of integration of the ANS. However, the gut can coordinate some secretions and information from the baroreceptors which are processed in the medulla.With regards to the central nervous system (CNS)
1. There are myelinated preganglionic fibres which lead to the
ganglion where the nerve cell bodies of the non-myelinated post ganglionic nerves are organised.
2. From the ganglion, the post ganglionic nerves then lead on to the innervated organ.Most organs are under control of both systems although one system normally predominates.
The nerves of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) originate from the lateral horns of the spinal cord, pass into the anterior primary rami and then pass via the white rami communicates into the ganglia from T1-L2.
There are short pre-ganglionic and long post ganglionic fibres.
Pre-ganglionic synapses use acetylcholine (ACh) as a neurotransmitter on nicotinic receptors.
Post ganglionic synapses uses adrenoceptors with norepinephrine / epinephrine as the neurotransmitter.
However, in sweat glands, piloerector muscles and few blood vessels, ACh is still used as a neurotransmitter with nicotinic receptors.The ganglia form the sympathetic trunk – this is a collection of nerves that begin at the base of the skull and travel 2-3 cm lateral to the vertebrae, extending to the coccyx.
There are cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral ganglia and visceral sympathetic innervation is by cardiac, coeliac and hypogastric plexi.
Juxta glomerular apparatus, piloerector muscles and adipose tissue are all organs under sole sympathetic control.
The PNS has a craniosacral outflow. It causes reduced arousal and cardiovascular stimulation and increases visceral activity.
The cranial outflow consists of
1. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) to the eye via the ciliary ganglion,
2. Facial nerve (CN VII) to the submandibular, sublingual and lacrimal glands via the pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglions
3. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) to lungs, larynx and tracheobronchial tree via otic ganglion
4. The vagus nerve (CN X), the largest contributor and carries ¾ of fibres covering innervation of the heart, lungs, larynx, tracheobronchial tree parotid gland and proximal gut to the splenic flexure, liver and pancreasThe sacral outflow (S2 to S4) innervates the bladder, distal gut and genitalia.
The PNS has long preganglionic and short post ganglionic fibres.
Preganglionic synapses, like in the SNS, use ACh as the neuro transmitter with nicotinic receptors.
Post ganglionic synapses also use ACh as the neurotransmitter but have muscarinic receptors.Different types of these muscarinic receptors are present in different organs:
There are:
M1 = pupillary constriction, gastric acid secretion stimulation
M2 = inhibition of cardiac stimulation
M3 = visceral vasodilation, coronary artery constriction, increased secretions in salivary, lacrimal glands and pancreas
M4 = brain and adrenal medulla
M5 = brainThe lacrimal glands are solely under parasympathetic control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Modified rapid sequence induction with 1mg/kg rocuronium was done is a 42-year-old male for emergency appendicectomy. The patient weight was 70 kg and a failed intubation indicated immediate reversal of neuromuscular blockade.
Which of the following is the correct dose of sugammadex for this patient?Your Answer: 140 mg
Correct Answer: 1120 mg
Explanation:Sugammadex is used for immediate reversal of rocuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade.
It is used at a dose of 16 mg/kg.Since the patient in the question is 70 kg, the required dose of sugammadex can be calculated as:
16×70 = 1120 mg.Sugammadex selectively binds rocuronium or vecuronium, thereby reversing their neuromuscular blocking action. Due to its 1:1 binding of rocuronium or vecuronium, it can reverse any depth of neuromuscular block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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The main site of storage of thyroid hormones in the thyroid gland is?
Your Answer: Within vesicles
Correct Answer: Thyroglobulin
Explanation:The follicle is the functional unit of the thyroid gland. The follicular cells surround the follicle which is filled with colloid. Suspended within the colloid is the is a pro-hormone complex thyroglobulin.
The synthesis and storage of thyroid hormones is done by follicular cells and the thyroglobulin within the colloid.
Iodide ions (I−) are actively transported against a concentration gradient into the follicular cell under the influence of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). It then undergoes oxidation to active iodine catalysed by thyroid peroxidase (TPO). The synthesis of thyroglobulin is in the follicular cells and it contains up to 140 tyrosine residues. The tyrosine residues of thyroglobulin and active iodine are merged to form mono- and di-iodotyrosines (MIT and DIT). The iodinated thyroglobulin is then taken up into the colloid where it is stored and dimerised. Two DIT molecules are joined to produce thyroxine (T4) while one MIT and one DIT molecule are joined to produce tri-iodotyrosine (T3) by a process catalysed by TPO.
Thyroglobulin droplets are taken up as vesicles into follicular cells by pinocytosis. This process is stimulated by TSH. When these vesicles fuse with lysosomes, hydrolysis of the thyroglobulin molecules and subsequent release of T4 and T3 into the circulation occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which drug, if given to a pregnant woman, can lead to deleterious fetal effects due to its ability to cross the placenta?
Your Answer: Glycopyrrolate
Correct Answer: Atropine
Explanation:It is well known that atropine will cross the placenta and that maternal administration results in an increase in fetal heart rate.
Atropine is highly selective for muscarinic receptors. Its potency at nicotinic receptors is much lower, and actions at non-muscarinic receptors are generally undetectable clinically. Atropine does not distinguish among the M1, M2, and M3 subgroups of muscarinic receptors. In contrast, other antimuscarinic drugs are moderately selective for one or another of these subgroups. Most synthetic antimuscarinic drugs are considerably less selective than atropine in interactions with nonmuscarinic receptors.
A study on glycopyrrolate, a quaternary ammonium salt, was found to have a fetal: maternal serum concentration ratio of 0.4 indicating partial transfer.
Heparin, suxamethonium, and vecuronium do not cross the placenta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Correct
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Which of the following statement is correct regarding the difference between dabigatran and other anticoagulants?
Your Answer: Competitive thrombin inhibitor blocking both free and bound thrombin
Explanation:Dabigatran template is a prodrug and its active metabolite is a direct thrombin inhibitor. It is a synthetic, reversible, non-peptide thrombin inhibitor. This inhibition of thrombin results in a decrease of fibrin and reduces platelet aggregation.
Drugs like warfarin act by inhibiting the activation of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. These factors are synthesized by the liver and activated by gamma-carboxylation of glutamate residues with the help of vitamin K. Hydroquinone form of vitamin K is converted to epoxide form in this reaction and regeneration of hydroquinone form by enzyme vitamin K epoxide reductase (VKOR) is required for this activity. Oral anticoagulants prevent this regeneration by inhibiting VKOR, thus vitamin K-dependent factors are not activated. These factors include clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X as well as anti-clotting proteins, protein C and protein S.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Correct
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Regarding a paramagnetic oxygen analyser, the following statements are TRUE:
Your Answer: Utilises null deflection
Explanation:The electrons in the outer shell of an oxygen molecule are unpaired, thus it has paramagnetic properties and is attracted into a magnetic field.
It utilizes null deflection -True
Null deflection is a crucial principle in paramagnetic analysers (reflected beam of light on two photocells) which gives very accurate results (typically 0.1%).It can be used to measure the concentration of diamagnetic gases – False
Since most other gases are weakly diamagnetic they are repelled by a magnetic field (nitric oxide is also paramagnetic).Can measure gases dissolved in the blood – False
For accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. Therefore, they are unsuitable to measure gases dissolved in blood.Does not require calibration – False
As with most measurement instruments paramagnetic analysers must be calibrated before use.E) The readings are unaffected by water vapour – False
Water vapour affects the readings hence for accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. That is why they are unsuitable to measure dissolved blood gases. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the internal jugular vein?
Your Answer: The vagus nerve is closely related to it within the carotid sheath
Correct Answer: The terminal part of the thoracic duct crosses anterior to it to insert into the right subclavian vein
Explanation:The internal jugular vein is found on both sides of the neck and collects blood from the brain, superficial regions of the face, and neck. It drains into the right atrium.
It is a continuation of the sigmoid sinus and begins in the posterior cranial fossa and exits the skull via the jugular foramen.
It runs within the carotid sheath as it descends in the neck and is accompanied by the vagus nerve posteriorly and the common carotid anteromedially.The hypoglossal nerve emerges from the hypoglossal canal medial to the internal carotid artery and the internal jugular vein and ninth, tenth, and eleventh cranial nerves.
The internal jugular vein crosses anterior to the thoracic duct on the left side.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 17
Correct
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What is the most sensitive method of detecting an intra-operative air embolism?
Your Answer: Transoesophageal echocardiogram
Explanation:An intra-operative air embolism occurs when air becomes trapped in the blood vessels during surgery.
A transoesophageal echocardiography (OE) uses invasive echocardiography to monitor the integrity and performance of the heart. It is the gold standard as it provides real-time imaging of the heart to enable early diagnosis and treatment.
Precordial doppler ultrasonography can also be used to detect into-operative air emboli. It is non-invasive and more practical, but is less sensitive.
A change in end-tidal CO2 could be indicative of and increase in physiological dead-space, but could also be indicative of any processes that reduces the excretion or increases the production of CO2, making it non-specific.
A transoesophageal stethoscope can be used to listen for the classic mill-wheel murmur produced by a large air embolus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Given the following hormones, which of these will stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis?
Your Answer: Growth hormone
Correct Answer: Corticosteroids
Explanation:Insulin is the primary anabolic hormone that dominates regulation of metabolism during digestive phase. It promotes glucose uptake in skeletal myocytes and adipocytes, and other insulin-target cells. It promotes glycogenesis and inhibits gluconeogenesis.
Glucagon is the primary counterregulatory hormone that increases blood glucose levels, primarily through its effects on liver glucose output.
Similar to glucagon, growth hormone, catecholamines and corticosteroids are also counterregulatory factors released in response to decreased glucose concentrations. Growth hormone promotes glycogenolysis and inhibits gluconeogenesis; catecholamines stimulate glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis; while corticosteroids stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which type of muscle contains the highest amount of mitochondria?
Your Answer: Type IIb skeletal muscle
Correct Answer: Cardiac muscle
Explanation:Among the types of muscles, cardiac muscles have the greatest number if mitochondria due to the heart energy requirements.
Approximately 35% of the cardiac muscle volume is due to the mitochondria. While in skeletal and smooth muscles, it comprises 3-8% of the muscle volume.
Type I muscle fibre has a slow contraction velocity, with a red fibre colour, and predominantly uses oxidative phosphorylation to produce a sustained contraction. It contains more mitochondria and myoglobin than type II, and is often used for endurance training.
Type II muscle fibre has a fast contraction velocity, a white fibre colour, and predominantly uses anaerobic glycolysis. It has fewer mitochondria and myoglobin, and is often used for weight or resistance training and sprinting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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About the vagus nerve, which one of these is true ?
Your Answer: Carries motor fibres to the palatal muscles
Correct Answer: Gives off the recurrent laryngeal nerve on the right as it passes anteriorly across the subclavian artery
Explanation:The tenth cranial nerve (vagus nerve) has both sensory and motor divisions.
It emerges from the anterolateral surface of the medulla in a groove between the olive and the inferior cerebellar peduncle as a series of 8-10 rootlets . It leaves the skull through the middle compartment of the jugular foramen and descends within the carotid sheath between the internal carotid artery and internal jugular vein. The right vagus crosses in front of the first part of the subclavian artery. It gives off the right recurrent laryngeal nerve at this point.
The left recurrent laryngeal nerve passes around the ligamentum arteriosum.
The external laryngeal nerve supplies the cricothyroid muscle while the recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies the other laryngeal muscles.
The cranial part of the accessory nerve supplies all the muscles of the palate, via the pharyngeal plexus and the pharyngeal branch of the vagus nerve, except the tensor veli palatini which is supplied by the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve.
The Sternothyroid, Sternohyoid, and Omohyoid muscles are supplied by the ansa cervicalis while the thyrohyoid muscle is supplied by the hypoglossal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 21
Correct
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The renal glomerulus is able to filter 180 litres of blood per day, as determined by the starling forces present in the glomerulus. Ninety-nine percent of which is reabsorbed thereafter.
Water is reabsorbed in the highest proportion in which segment of the nephron?Your Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule
Explanation:Sixty-seven percent of filtered water is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. The driving force for water reabsorption is a transtubular osmotic gradient established by reabsorption of solutes (e.g., NaCl, Na+-glucose).
Henle’s loop reabsorbs approximately 25% of filtered NaCl and 15% of filtered water. The thin ascending limb reabsorbs NaCl by a passive mechanism, and is impermeable to water. Reabsorption of water, but not NaCl, in the descending thin limb increases the concentration of NaCl in the tubule fluid entering the ascending thin limb. As the NaCl-rich fluid moves toward the cortex, NaCl diffuses out of the tubule lumen across the ascending thin limb and into the medullary interstitial fluid, down a concentration gradient as directed from the tubule fluid to the interstitium. This mechanism is known as the counter current multiplier.
The distal tubule and collecting duct reabsorb approximately 8% of filtered NaCl, secrete variable amounts of K+ and H+, and reabsorb a variable amount of water (approximately 8%-17%).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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After consuming 12 g of paracetamol, a 37-year-old man is admitted to the medical admissions unit. He has hepatocellular necrosis in both clinical and biochemical aspects.
The most significant reason for paracetamol causing toxicity is?Your Answer: Paracetamol is readily absorbed from the gut
Correct Answer: Glutathione is rapidly exhausted
Explanation:Phase I and phase II metabolism are used by the liver to break down paracetamol.
1st Phase:
Prostaglandin synthetase and cytochrome P450 (CYP1A2, CYP2E2, CYP3A4 and CYP2D6) to N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine (NAPQI) and N-acetylbenzo-semiquinoneimine. NAPQI is a toxic metabolite that binds to the sulfhydryl groups of cellular proteins in hepatocytes, making it toxic. This can result in centrilobular necrosis.
Glutathione and glutathione transferases prevent NAPQI from binding to hepatocytes at low paracetamol doses by preferentially binding to these toxic metabolites. The cysteine and mercapturic acid conjugates are then excreted in the urine. Depletion of glutathione occurs at higher doses of paracetamol, resulting in high levels of NAPQI and the risk of hepatocellular damage. Hepatotoxicity would not be an issue if the body’s glutathione stores were sufficient.
N-acetylcysteine is a precursor for glutathione synthesis and is the drug of choice for the treatment of paracetamol overdose.
Phase II:
Conjugation with glucuronic acid to paracetamol glucuronide is the most common method of metabolism and excretion, accounting for 60% of renally excreted metabolites. Paracetamol sulphate (35%), unchanged paracetamol (5%), and mercapturic acid are among the other renally excreted metabolites (3 percent ). The capacity of conjugation pathways is limited. The capacity of the sulphate conjugation pathway is lower than that of the glucuronidation pathway.
Because of the low pH in the stomach, paracetamol absorption is minimal (pKa value is 9.5). Paracetamol is absorbed quickly and completely in the alkaline environment of the small intestine. Oral bioavailability is extremely high, approaching 100%.
As a result, measuring paracetamol levels in plasma after an injury is important. Peak plasma concentrations are reached after 30-60 minutes, with a volume of distribution of 0.95 L/kg. It binds to plasma proteins at a rate of 10% to 25%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old boy is undergoing surgery for indirect inguinal hernia repair. The deep inguinal ring is exposed and held with a retractor at its medial aspect during the procedure.
What structure is most likely to lie under the retractor on the medial side?Your Answer: Internal iliac vein
Correct Answer: Inferior epigastric artery
Explanation:The deep inguinal ring is the entrance of the inguinal canal. It is an opening in the transversalis fascia around 1 cm above the inguinal ligament. Therefore, the superolateral wall is made by the transervalis fascia.
The inferior epigastric vessels run medially to the deep inguinal ring forming its inferomedial border.
The inguinal canal extends obliquely from the deep inguinal ring to the superficial inguinal ring.
An indirect inguinal hernia arises through the deep inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 24
Correct
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A 50-year old man for septoplasty has a BMI of 32kg/m2 and neck circumference of 44 cm. He is troubled by intermittent nasal obstruction which causes his partner sleeps in a separate bedroom because of snoring. He currently on ramipril for hypertension.
Which of the following best approximates to his STOP-BANG score from the information above?Your Answer: 5
Explanation:The STOP-BANG questionnaire is used to screen patients for obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA).
The scoring system assigns one point for each feature.
S: Snoring (louder than talking or loud enough to be heard through closed doors)
T: Feeling tired, fatigued, or sleepy during daytime
O: Observed apnoeas during sleep
P: Hypertension
B: BMI more than 35 kg/m2
A: Age 50-years of age or greater
N: Neck circumference (male 17 inches / 43cm or greater and female 16 inches / 41 or greater)
G: Gender: MaleOur patient has a score of 5 ( O, P, A, N, G)
The score helps clinicians stratify patients for unrecognized OSA and target appropriate clinical management. It can also help triage patients for further investigation. A STOP-BANG score of 5-8 will identify patients with high probability of moderate to severe OSA in the surgical population.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true about the patellar reflex?
Your Answer: Has a reflex arc which involves a single interneuron
Correct Answer: Is abolished immediately after transection of the spinal cord at T6
Explanation:The patellar (knee jerk) reflex is a monosynaptic stretch reflex arising from L2-L4 nerve roots. It occurs after a tap on the patellar tendon which causes the spindles of the quadriceps muscles to stretch.
The afferent nerve pathway occurred through A gamma fibres.
Wesphal’s sign refers to a reduction, or absence of the patellar reflex. It is often indicated of a neurological disease affecting the PNS.
A transection of the spinal cord results in a degree of shock which causes all reflexes to be reduced or completely absent, and required a period of approximately 6 weeks to recover.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 31-year old Caucasian female came into the emergency department due to difficulty of breathing. History revealed exposure to room odorizes that are rich in alkyl nitrites. Upon physical examination, patient is tachypnoeic at 32 breaths per minute, desaturated at 88% while on a non-rebreather mask at 15 litres per minute oxygen. She was also noted to be cyanotic, however with clear breath sounds.
Considering the history, what is the most probable cause of her difficulty of breathing?Your Answer: Low arterial oxygen tension
Correct Answer: Increased affinity of bound oxygen to haemoglobin
Explanation:Amyl nitrate is part of the treatment of cyanide poisoning. The short acting nitrate causes oxidation of Fe2+ in haemoglobin to Fe3+ in methaemoglobin. Methaemoglobin combines with cyanide (cyanmethemoglobin), which reacts with sodium thiosulfate to convert nontoxic thiocyanate and methaemoglobin.
Methaemoglobin is formed when the iron in haemoglobin is converted from the reduced state (Fe2+) to the oxidized state (Fe3+). The oxidized form of haemoglobin (Fe3+) does not bind oxygen as readily as Fe2+, but has high affinity for cyanide. It also results to high affinity of bound oxygen to haemoglobin, thus leading to tissue hypoxia. Arterial oxygen tension is normal despite observations of cyanosis and dyspnoea. Methemoglobinemia can be treated with methylene blue and vitamin C.
Carboxyhaemoglobin can be due to carbon monoxide poisoning. In such cases, patients experience headache and dizziness, but do not develop cyanosis.
2,3-diphosphoglycerate causes a shift in the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, decreasing haemoglobin’s affinity to oxygen to facilitate unloading of oxygen to the tissues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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The muscle that lies behind the first part of the axillary nerve is?
Your Answer: Long head of triceps
Correct Answer: Subscapularis
Explanation:The axillary nerve lies behind the axillary artery initially, and in front of the subscapularis. It passes downward to the lower border of the subscapularis muscle.
In company with the posterior humeral circumflex artery and vein, it winds backward through a quadrilateral space bounded above by the subscapularis (anterior) and teres minor (posterior), below by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps brachii, and laterally by the humerus (surgical neck).
It then divides into an anterior and a posterior part. The anterior division supplies the deltoid (anterior and middle heads) while the posterior division supplies the teres minor and posterior part of deltoid
The posterior division terminates as the superior lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Given the following values:
Expired tidal volume = 800 ml
Plateau pressure = 50 cmH2O
PEEP = 10 cmH2O
Compute for the static pulmonary compliance.Your Answer: 200 ml/cmH2O
Correct Answer: 20 ml/cmH2O
Explanation:Compliance of the respiratory system describes the expandability of the lungs and chest wall. There are two types of compliance: dynamic and static.
Dynamic compliance describes the compliance measured during breathing, which involves a combination of lung compliance and airway resistance. Defined as the change in lung volume per unit change in pressure in the presence of flow.
Static compliance describes pulmonary compliance when there is no airflow, like an inspiratory pause. Defined as the change in lung volume per unit change in pressure in the absence of flow.
For example, if a person was to fill the lung with pressure and then not move it, the pressure would eventually decrease; this is the static compliance measurement. Dynamic compliance is measured by dividing the tidal volume, the average volume of air in one breath cycle, by the difference between the pressure of the lungs at full inspiration and full expiration. Static compliance is always a higher value than dynamic
Static compliance can be computed using the formula:
Cstat = Tidal volume/Plateau pressure – PEEP
Substituting the values given,
Cstat = 800/50-10
Cstat = 20 ml/cmH2O -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Systemic vascular resistance (multiplied by 80) to produce the units of dynes.s.cm-5 is represented by?
Your Answer: Mean pulmonary artery pressure (MPAP) - central venous pressure (CVP)/ stroke volume (SV)
Correct Answer: Mean arterial pressure (MAP) - central venous pressure (CVP)/cardiac output (CO)
Explanation:Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is a derived value based on:
SVR = (MAP-CVP)/CO x 80
= (60 -10)/5 x 80 = 800 dynes.s.cm-5
A correction factor of 80 is needed in converting mmHg to dynes.s.cm-5
Normal values is between 700 -1600 dynes.s.cm-5Pulmonary resistance (PVR) = (MPAP-PCWP)/CO x 80
= (10 – 5)/5 x 80 = 80 dynes.s.cm-5
To account for body size, cardiac index (CI) can be used instead of CO. CI = CO/body surface area (m2) or mL/minute/m2.
N/B: either MAP and CVP, or MPAP and PCWP are used in calculation to get dynes.s.cm-5 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the best marker of mast cell degranulation in a patient with suspected anaphylaxis who became hypotensive and developed widespread urticarial rash after administration of Augmentin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tryptase
Explanation:Mast cell tryptase is a reliable marker of mast cell degranulation. Tryptase is a protease enzyme that acts via widespread protease-activated receptors (PARs).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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