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  • Question 1 - Which of the following involving the scalp may produce alopecia (hair loss)? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following involving the scalp may produce alopecia (hair loss)?

      Your Answer: Discoid lupus erythematosus

      Explanation:

      Infective causes of hair loss include:
      Dissecting cellulitis
      Fungal infections (such as tinea capitis)
      Folliculitis
      Secondary syphilis
      Demodex folliculorum
      Lupus erythematosus (hair loss may be permanent due to scarring of the hair follicles).
      Psoriasis and seborrheic dermatitis commonly involve the scalp but do not produce hair loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • The Skin
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An alcoholic man was found in a critical condition outside the pub. He...

    Correct

    • An alcoholic man was found in a critical condition outside the pub. He was sweating heavily, was drowsy and there were some empty cans of cider lying near him. What is the most appropriate initial test that should be done in such patients?

      Your Answer: Capillary blood sugar

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate initial test should be checking the blood sugar level. Patients with hypoglycaemia can present with drowsiness, profuse sweating and dizziness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old male developed difficulty in breathing following administration of IV Co-amoxiclav. On...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male developed difficulty in breathing following administration of IV Co-amoxiclav. On examination he was flushed, there were bilateral rhonchi and his blood pressure was 80/50 mmHg. What is the immediate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Epinephrine 0.5 mg IM

      Explanation:

      This case indicates an anaphylactic reaction. The causative factor should be stopped or removed as soon as possible and IM Epinephrine 0.5mg administered. IV Epinephrine can also be considered provided that it is adequately diluted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An soccer player suddenly collapsed on the field and started coughing along with...

    Correct

    • An soccer player suddenly collapsed on the field and started coughing along with shortness of breath. The investigation of choice in this case would be?

      Your Answer: Chest x-ray

      Explanation:

      Exercise induced asthma is characterised by sudden onset wheezing, cough and shortness of breath while performing hectic physical activity. The best investigation to perform is a chest X-ray.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 47-year-old woman diagnosed with oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer three months back...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman diagnosed with oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer three months back was started on treatment with tamoxifen. Which of the following is most likely a complaint of this patient during her review today?

      Your Answer: Hot flushes

      Explanation:

      The most likely complaint of this patient would be hot flushes.

      Alopecia and cataracts are listed in the BNF as possible side-effects. They are however not as prevalent as hot flushes, which are very common in pre-menopausal women.

      Tamoxifen is a Selective Oestrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) which acts as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. It is used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer

      Adverse effects:
      Menstrual disturbance: vaginal bleeding, amenorrhoea
      Hot flushes – 3% of patients stop taking tamoxifen due to climacteric side-effects.
      Venous thromboembolism.
      Endometrial cancer
      Tamoxifen is typically used for 5 years following the removal of the tumour.

      Raloxifene is a pure oestrogen receptor antagonist and carries a lower risk of endometrial cancer.

      Although antagonistic with respects to breast tissue tamoxifen may serve as an agonist at other sites. Therefore the risk of endometrial cancer is increased cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Women's Health
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 23-year-old man visited the OPD with a complaint of pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man visited the OPD with a complaint of pain in the abdomen and dark urine. His blood pressure was found to be elevated. Which of the following should be done next to reach a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urine microscopy

      Correct Answer: US

      Explanation:

      Hypertension along with haematuria give an indication of cystic kidneys which can be diagnosed with an ultrasound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 34-year-old male patient is admitted with hemisection of the spinal cord at...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old male patient is admitted with hemisection of the spinal cord at the level T5, after being stabbed in the back. Which sign would you expect to see by assessing the patient's sensory function and muscle strength?

      Your Answer: Contralateral loss of temperature, ipsilateral loss of fine touch and vibration, ipsilateral spastic paresis

      Explanation:

      Depending on the level of SCI, patients experience paraplegia or tetraplegia. Paraplegia is defined as the impairment of sensory or motor function in lower extremities. Patients with incomplete paraplegia generally have a good prognosis in regaining locomotor ability (,76% of patients) within a year. Complete paraplegic patients, however, experience limited recovery of lower limb function if their NLI is above T9. The spinothalamic tract is the one responsible for sensory information such as pain or temperature. However, it decussates at the same level the nerve root enters the spinal cord, meaning that the sensory loss will be contralateral. However, the dorsal column carries sensory fibres for fine touch and vibration and it decussates at the medulla which means that the sensory loss will be ipsilateral. The corticospinal tract is responsible for motor functions and it decussates at the medulla, meaning that the motor function loss will be ipsilateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      125.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 19-year-old woman is diagnosed with acute purulent meningitis after returning from a...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old woman is diagnosed with acute purulent meningitis after returning from a recent holiday abroad. Which of the following investigations is the least relevant?

      Your Answer: India ink staining of CSF

      Correct Answer: PCR of CSF for Mycobacterium TB

      Explanation:

      Amoebic, bacterial and fungal meningitis may present acutely but this is not common in tuberculous meningitis. Amoebic meningitis is caused by Naegleria fowleri as a result of swimming in infected freshwater. The organism may be found in fresh CSF specimens with phase contrast microscopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 2-day-old girl is admitted by her mother because she gets cyanotic upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day-old girl is admitted by her mother because she gets cyanotic upon feeding and she wouldn't stop crying. The doctors suspect a congenital heart disease. What is the most probable aetiology?

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Explanation:

      Transposition of the great arteries results in a significant hypoxemic status that is observed clinically by central cyanosis. The bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes is therefore the basic pattern of clinical presentation in transposition. Its onset and severity depend on anatomical and functional variants that influence the degree of mixing between the two circulations. Limited intercirculatory mixing, usually present if the ventricular septum is intact or the atrial septal defect is restrictive, is related to progressive and profound central cyanosis evident within the first hours of life. Tachypnoea, tachycardia, diaphoresis, poor weight gain, a gallop rhythm, and eventually hepatomegaly can be then detected later on during infancy. Heart murmurs associated with left outflow tract obstruction, due to a persistent arterial duct or a septal defect may be heard, but they are not a constant finding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old gentleman presented with 2 weeks history of exertional dyspnoea, orthopnoea and...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old gentleman presented with 2 weeks history of exertional dyspnoea, orthopnoea and chest pain. Past history revealed that a few years ago, he had been treated with antibiotics for complaints of fever, joint pains and chest pain. The most likely diagnosis will be?

      Your Answer: Mitral valve stenosis

      Explanation:

      The commonest symptom of mitral valve stenosis is dyspnoea, and it is one of the most common clinical findings which can be seen in rheumatic fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A patient who has mild benign prostatic hyperplasia has been advised to take...

    Correct

    • A patient who has mild benign prostatic hyperplasia has been advised to take finasteride.
      The mechanism of action of this drug involves inhibition of the production of which of the following androgens?

      Your Answer: Dihydrotestosterone

      Explanation:

      Finasteride inhibits the formation of dihydrotestosterone.
      Finasteride is a 5?-reductase inhibitor and thus, inhibits the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT).

      DHT is much more active than testosterone and binds more avidly to cytoplasmic receptors. DHT stimulates prostate growth and may be responsible for benign prostatic hyperplasia in the elderly.

      Thus, finasteride can cause a reduction in prostatic volume and help in managing a patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Men's Health
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 19-year-old football player was hit in his chest by an opponent. He...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old football player was hit in his chest by an opponent. He became breathless and turned blue. What will be the initial management?

      Your Answer: Give oxygen

      Explanation:

      As the patient is turning blue, giving oxygen will be the first priority in his management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 46-year-old alcoholic, with a past history of gallstones, presented in a critical...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old alcoholic, with a past history of gallstones, presented in a critical condition with complaints of severe abdominal pain which radiated backward, vomiting, dehydration and profuse sweating. He was tachycardic and hypotensive. What will be the first investigation to be performed in this case?

      Your Answer: Serum lipase

      Explanation:

      This patient is suffering from pancreatitis. Points favouring pancreatitis includes alcoholism, past history of gallstones and state of shock. Serum lipase and amylase should be performed to rule out the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 78-year-old male with long-standing Alzheimer's disease is being reviewed in your clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old male with long-standing Alzheimer's disease is being reviewed in your clinic. Which among the following is true regarding memantine, a drug which has been approved for the management of dementia in the UK?

      Your Answer: It is a cholinesterase inhibitor

      Correct Answer: It is an NMDA-receptor agonist

      Explanation:

      Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA (N-Methyl-D-Aspartate)-receptor subtype of glutamate receptor. It is used to slow the neurotoxicity thought to be involved in Alzheimer’s disease and other neurodegenerative diseases.

      Drug interactions:
      When given concomitantly with other NMDA-receptor antagonists (e.g., ketamine, amantadine) increase the risk of psychosis.
      Dopamine agonists, L-dopa, and anticholinergics enhance effects of memantine.
      Antispasmodics (e.g., baclofen)  enhance effects, as memantine has some antispasmodic effects.
      Drugs excreted by cationic transporters in the kidney (e.g. quinine, cimetidine, ranitidine) reduce excretion.

      Common adverse effects include dizziness, headache, confusion, diarrhoea, and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 61-year-old man presents post seizure. On examination, he is oriented and alert...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old man presents post seizure. On examination, he is oriented and alert with hyperreflexia of the left arm, and inattention on the left side of the body. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cerebral tumour

      Explanation:

      Brain tumour symptoms include gradual paralysis on one side of the body, extreme headaches, and seizures. Hyperreflexia is defined as overactive reflexes including twitching or spastic tendencies, which are indicative of upper motor neuron disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 66 year-old marketing analyst presents to the respiratory clinic with a 2-month...

    Correct

    • A 66 year-old marketing analyst presents to the respiratory clinic with a 2-month history of progressive weakness and shortness of breath. He finds it difficult to stand from sitting, and struggles climbing stairs. He is an ex-smoker with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). He had a recent exacerbation one month ago for which he was treated by the GP with a course of oral prednisolone, during which time his weakness transiently improved. On examination, you note a left-sided monophonic wheeze and reduced breath sounds at the left lung base. Blood tests and a chest x-ray are requested.

      Hb 145 g/L
      WCC10.5 109/l
      Na+136 mmol/L
      K+ 4.3 mmol/L
      Urea 6.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine 93 mmol/L
      Calcium 2.62 mmol/L
      Phosphate 1.44 mmol/L


      Chest x-ray shows hyperinflated lungs, left lower lobe collapse and a bulky left hilum

      What is the most likely cause of this patient's weakness?

      Your Answer: Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome

      Explanation:

      This man has a small-cell lung cancer (SCLC) and associated Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome – a well-recognized paraneoplastic manifestation of SCLC. This classically affects the proximal muscles, especially in the legs, causing difficulty in standing from a seated position and climbing stairs. In contrast to myasthenia gravis, eye involvement is uncommon. Treatment with steroids is often helpful, which explains his transient symptomatic improvement during treatment for his COPD exacerbation. Steroid myopathy does not fit as the symptoms started well before his course of prednisolone. Although the patient is mildly hypercalcaemic, this would not be sufficient to produce his presenting symptoms, although it does reinforce the suspicion of lung malignancy. Motor neurone disease would be unlikely in this context and would not improve with steroids. Myasthenia gravis could produce these symptoms, but in the context of a new lung mass is a less viable diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      41.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old male is involved in a motorcycle accident. He sustained a direct...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male is involved in a motorcycle accident. He sustained a direct blow to his lower chest. His blood pressure is 83/48, HR 113 bpm. On examination, there are multiple bruises on the chest with bowel sounds heard on auscultation of his chest. The single most likely diagnosis is?

      Your Answer: Diaphragmatic rupture

      Explanation:

      Ruptured diaphragm is a serious condition that is very difficult to diagnose and requires rapid intervention. The presence of bowel sounds on chest auscultation is highly suggestive of this.
      Ruptured oesophagus is excluded by the absence of haematemesis and normal intestinal sounds.
      Fractured ribs could be life threatening if associated with a tension pneumothorax which is excluded by a normal chest auscultation.
      Flail chest is characterised by paradoxical breathing and respiratory failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old woman is presenting with diarrhoea and abdominal bloating over the last...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman is presenting with diarrhoea and abdominal bloating over the last 4 months. On examination, she has a blistering rash over her elbows. Biochemical investigation showed that she has low serum albumin, calcium and folate concentrations. On jejunal biopsy there is shortening of the villi and lymphocytosis. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Celiac disease has characteristic shortened intestinal villi. When patients with celiac disease eat products containing gluten, they are unable to absorb the nutrients due to flattened or shortened intestinal villi. The blistering rash present on the patient’s elbows strongly suggests celiac disease. This rash is a sign of the condition Dermatitis Herpetiformis which is associate with celiac disease. Therefore, it is also often called ‘gluten rash’.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 60-year-old man has consistently elevated levels of white blood cells in the...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man has consistently elevated levels of white blood cells in the blood, despite several courses of antibiotics.

      His full blood count done (FBC) today shows:
      Hb: 9.1 g/dL
      Plts: 250 x 10^9/L
      WCC: 32.2 x 10^9/L
      Neutrophils: 28.1 x 10^9/L

      However, he has at no point shown signs of any infection. The consultant suggests contacting the haematology department for ascertaining the leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score.

      Out of the following, which related condition would have a high LAP score?

      Your Answer: Leukemoid reaction

      Explanation:

      Leukemoid reaction has a high LAP score.

      Leukemoid reaction refers to leucocytosis occurring as a physiological response to stress or infection which may be mistaken for leukaemia, especially chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML). Leucocytosis occurs, initially, because of accelerated release of cells from the bone marrow and is associated with increased count of more immature neutrophils in the blood (left-shift). In order to differentiate, LAP score is used. Leukocytic alkaline phosphatase (ALP) activity is high in a leukemoid reaction but low in CML.

      LAP score is high in:
      1. Leukemoid reaction
      2. Infections
      3. Myelofibrosis
      4. Polycythaemia rubra vera
      5. Steroids, Cushing’s syndrome
      6. Pregnancy, oral contraceptive pill

      LAP score is low in:
      1. CML
      2. Pernicious anaemia
      3. Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)
      4. Infectious mononucleosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      37.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 23-year-old woman complains of a tender lump that is smooth and mobile...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman complains of a tender lump that is smooth and mobile in her left breast measuring 1-2 cm. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fibroadenoma

      Explanation:

      Fibroadenoma usually occurs in younger women. These non-tender masses can be removed for aesthetic purposes. Breast cysts are common shifting masses inside the breast tissue more common in women over the age of 35.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Women's Health
      65.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 4-year-old baby was brought in by her mother with complaints of generalized...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old baby was brought in by her mother with complaints of generalized pallor, loss of weight and loose stools. The baby's stools were frothy in nature and difficult to flush. Which investigation can help in diagnosing this patient?

      Your Answer: Sweat chloride test

      Correct Answer: Anti-endomysial antibodies

      Explanation:

      The presence of anti-endomysial antibodies confirms the diagnosis of Celiac disease, which is the primary cause of illness in this patient. The sweat chloride test is performed with cystic fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the statements is most accurate regarding the lung? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the statements is most accurate regarding the lung?

      Your Answer: In normal subjects the small airways contribute to most of the resistance

      Correct Answer: The medial basal segment is absent in the left lower lobe

      Explanation:

      The right and left lung anatomy are similar but asymmetrical. The right lung consists of three lobes: right upper lobe (RUL), right middle lobe (RML), and right lower lobe (RLL). The left lung consists of two lobes: right upper lobe (RUL) and right lower lobe (RLL). The right lobe is divided by an oblique and horizontal fissure, where the horizontal fissure divides the upper and middle lobe, and the oblique fissure divides the middle and lower lobes. In the left lobe there is only an oblique fissure that separates the upper and lower lobe.

      The lobes further divide into segments which are associated with specific segmental bronchi. Segmental bronchi are the third-order branches off the second-order branches (lobar bronchi) that come off the main bronchus.

      The right lung consists of ten segments. There are three segments in the RUL (apical, anterior and posterior), two in the RML (medial and lateral), and five in the RLL (superior, medial, anterior, lateral, and posterior). The oblique fissure separates the RUL from the RML, and the horizontal fissure separates the RLL from the RML and RUL.

      There are eight to nine segments on the left depending on the division of the lobe. In general, there are four segments in the left upper lobe (anterior, apicoposterior, inferior and superior lingula) and four or five in the left lower lobe (lateral, anteromedial, superior and posterior). The medium sized airways offer the maximum airway resistance, not smaller ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 42-year-old woman who has been a smoker since she was a teenager...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman who has been a smoker since she was a teenager has the following blood result: Hgb=19. What hormone should you check?

      Your Answer: Erythropoietin

      Explanation:

      An increase in the patient’s haemoglobin tells us that the patient might be having an increased number of red blood cells. Smoking causes raised carboxyhaemoglobin levels and thus hypoxemia. Hypoxemia will increase the erythropoietin levels in the blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 72-year-old male presented to the Emergency Department with a broad complex tachycardia....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male presented to the Emergency Department with a broad complex tachycardia. Which of the following features is more suggestive that this has resulted because of a supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) rather than a ventricular tachycardia (VT)?

      Your Answer: Left axis deviation on ECG

      Correct Answer: Absence of QRS concordance in chest leads on ECG

      Explanation:

      To differentiate ventricular tachycardia (VT) from supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) with aberrant conduction the following electrocardiographic features should be looked for:

      Evidence of preceding atrial activity for SVT. Oesophageal leads are helpful if P waves are hidden in the QRS complex.
      QRS duration more than 140 ms for VT.
      QRS morphology: Features of QRS morphology that favour SVT are RBBB or triphasic patterns like rSR in V1 and qRS in V6. Monophasic pattern like R or qR in V1 and rS or QS in V6 or multiple morphology QRS complexes favour VT.
      AV dissociation for VT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 26-year-old woman is 32 weeks pregnant. She has a history of Sjogren...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman is 32 weeks pregnant. She has a history of Sjogren Syndrome. The foetus would be at a risk for which of the following?

      Your Answer: All correct

      Explanation:

      Women with Sjögren syndrome are likely to experience more complications during pregnancy than women without an autoimmune disease as the anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies cross the placenta and lead to various life threatening complications. Studies show a high incidence of poor fetal outcomes for these patients. Congenital heart block, neonatal lupus, congestive cardiac failure, hydrops fetalis can all be caused as a result of Sjogren syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 15-year-old girl is admitted to hospital following a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is admitted to hospital following a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. She comes from a family of Jehovah's Witnesses. Her haemoglobin on admission is 6.7 g/dl. She consents to a blood transfusion but her mother refuses. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Ask the hospital lawyer to come in and decide upon the correct course of action

      Correct Answer: Give the blood transfusion

      Explanation:

      People aged 16 or over are entitled to consent to their own treatment. This can only be overruled in exceptional circumstances. Children under the age of 16 can consent to their own treatment if they’re believed to have enough intelligence, competence and understanding to fully appreciate what’s involved in their treatment. This is known as being Gillick competent.

      Otherwise, someone with parental responsibility can consent for them.
      This could be:
      the child’s mother or father
      the child’s legally appointed guardian
      a person with a residence order concerning the child
      a local authority designated to care for the child
      a local authority or person with an emergency protection order for the child.
      Giving the blood transfusion is therefore both clinically and ethically the right course of action.
      Jehovah’s Witnesses frequently carry a signed and witnessed Advance Decision Document listing the blood products and autologous procedures that are, or are not, acceptable to them It is appropriate to have a frank, confidential discussion with the patient about the potential risks of their decision and the possible alternatives to transfusion, but the freely expressed wish of a competent adult must always be respected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethical & Legal
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 18-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her boyfriend. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 18-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her boyfriend. He is concerned that she may have taken an overdose of her mom's morphine sulphate pills after being depressed about her mother, who is dying of carcinoma of the breast.
      Which of the following may point towards his suspicion?

      Your Answer: Dilated pupils

      Correct Answer: Sweating

      Explanation:

      Excessive sweating points towards a morphine overdose.

      Morphine is considered the classic opioid analgesic with which other painkillers are compared. Like other medications in this class, morphine has an affinity for delta, kappa, and mu-opioid receptors.
      Most commonly used in pain management, morphine provides major relief to patients afflicted with pain.

      Among the more common adverse effects of morphine use is constipation. Other side effects include nausea, vomiting, drowsiness, and confusion. Psychological and physical dependence may occur.

      Other side effects include bronchospasm, angioedema, urinary retention, ureteric or biliary spasm, dry mouth, sweating, rash, facial flushing, vertigo, tachycardia, bradycardia, palpitations, orthostatic hypotension, hypothermia, restlessness, mood change, hallucinations, seizures (adults and children) and miosis, headache and allergic reactions (including anaphylaxis) and decreased libido or potency.

      Raised intracranial pressure occurs in some patients. Muscle rigidity may occur with high doses. Elevated liver enzymes may occur due to biliary sphincter constriction. Large doses can lead to respiratory depression, circulatory failure, and coma.

      Treatment of opioid overdose:
      Initial treatment of overdose begins with supportive care.
      Naloxone is a pure competitive antagonist of opiate receptors and has no agonistic activity. The drug is relatively safe and can be administered intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous or via the endotracheal tube.
      Alternatively, nalmefene and naltrexone maybe considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 57-year-old man, who suffers from biventricular cardiac failure, comes to his doctor...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man, who suffers from biventricular cardiac failure, comes to his doctor for a review. His symptoms are currently well controlled; he is taking Ramipril 10mg, Spironolactone 25mg, Bisoprolol 10mg, and Furosemide 40mg. His main complaint is of painful gynaecomastia that he says has developed over the past 6 months. Physical exam reveals a blood pressure of 125/80 mmHg and no residual signs of cardiac failure. Renal function is unchanged from 6 months earlier, with stable creatinine at 125 µmol/l.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Change the spironolactone to eplerenone

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist diuretic that is well-known to cause gynaecomastia because it increases testosterone clearance and oestradiol production. The patient’s primary complaint of gynaecomastia should immediately prompt discontinuation of spironolactone and replacement with Eplerenone, which lacks the antiandrogenic effects, and thus there is less risk of gynaecomastia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which one of the following statements regarding epidemiological measures is correct? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding epidemiological measures is correct?

      Your Answer: Cross-sectional surveys can be used to estimate the prevalence of a condition in the population

      Explanation:

      The incidence rate is the number of new cases per population at risk in a given time period. For example, if a population initially contains 1,000 non-diseased persons and 28 develop a condition over two years of observation, the incidence proportion is 28 cases per 1,000 persons per two years, i.e. 2.8% per two years.
      Prevalence is the proportion of a particular population found to be affected by a medical condition (typically a disease or a risk factor such as smoking or seat-belt use). It is derived by comparing the number of people found to have the condition with the total number of people studied, and is usually expressed as a fraction, as a percentage, or as the number of cases per 10,000 or 100,000 people.
      Incidence should not be confused with prevalence, which is the proportion of cases in the population at a given time rather than rate of occurrence of new cases. Thus, incidence conveys information about the risk of contracting the disease, whereas prevalence indicates how widespread the disease is.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      56.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old male patient presents with severe pharyngitis and dysphagia. He's found to...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old male patient presents with severe pharyngitis and dysphagia. He's found to be HIV positive and with oesophageal candidiasis. Which of the following regarding HIV virus is correct?

      Your Answer: HIV is an RNA virus

      Explanation:

      The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is grouped to the genus Lentivirus within the family of Retroviridae, subfamily Orthoretrovirinae. The HIV genome consists of two identical single-stranded RNA molecules that are enclosed within the core of the virus particle. The genome of the HIV provirus, also known as proviral DNA, is generated by the reverse transcription of the viral RNA genome into DNA, degradation of the RNA and integration of the double-stranded HIV DNA into the human genome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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