In situations of poisoning or drug overdose with acid dugs like salicylates and barbiturates, forced alkaline diuresis may be used.

With regards to overdose with alkaline drugs, forced acid diuresis is used.

By changing the pH of the urine, the ionised portion of the drug stays in the urine, and this prevents its diffusion back into the blood. Charged molecules do not readily cross biological membranes.

The process involves the infusion of specific fluids at a rate of about 500ml per hour. This requires monitoring of the central venous pressure, urine output, plasma electrolytes, especially potassium, and blood gas analysis.

The fluid regimen recommended is:
500ml of 1.26% sodium bicarbonate (not 200ml of 8.4%)
500ml of 5% dextrose and
500ml of 0.9% sodium chloride.

The axillary nerve arises from spinal roots C5-C6. It has both sensory and motor functions:

Sensory: Provides innervation to the skin over the lower deltoid area

Motor: Provides innervation to the teres minor (responsible for stabilisation of glenohumeral joint and external rotation of shoulder joint) and deltoid muscles (responsible for abduction of arms glenohumeral joint).

Injury to the axillary nerve will result in the patient being unable to abduct the arm beyond 15 degrees and a loss of sensory feeling over lower deltoid area.

These symptoms could also be a result of over-abduction of the arm (>90°) which would cause the head of the humerus to become dislocated.

Adrenaline acts on ?1, ?2,?1, and ?2 receptors and also on dopamine receptors (D1, D2) and have sympathomimetic effects.

Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

Adrenaline is a sympathomimetic amine with both alpha and beta-adrenergic stimulating properties.
Adrenaline is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock
Adrenaline is also used in patients with cardiac arrest. The preferred route is i.v. followed by the intra-osseous and endotracheal route.

Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.

It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.

It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.

It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas
It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue

The ions found in higher concentrations intracellularly than outside the cells are:

ATP
AMP
Potassium
Phosphate, and
Magnesium Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)

Sodium is a primarily extracellular ion.

The trochlear nerve (CN IV) is the fourth and smallest cranial nerve. It’s role is to provide somatic motor innervation of the superior oblique muscle which is responsible for oculomotion.

Injury to the trochlear nerve will result in vertical diplopia, which worsens when looking downwards or inwards. This diplopia presents as an upward deviation of the eye with a head tilt away from the site of the lesion.

The abducens nerve (CN VI) provides somatic motor innervation for the lateral rectus muscle which functions to abduct the eye. Injury to this nerve will cause diplopia and an inability to abduct the eye, causing the patient to have to rotate their head to look sideways.

The facial nerve (CN VII) provides sensory, motor and parasympathetic innervations. It’s motor aspect controls the muscles of facial expression. Damage will cause paralysis of facial expression.

The oculomotor nerve (CN III) provides motor and parasympathetic innervations. Its motor component controls most of the other extraocular muscles. Damage to it will result in ptosis, dilatation of the pupil and a down and out eye position.

The ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (CN VI) is responsible for sensory innervation of skin, mucous membranes and sinuses of the upper face and scalp.

Cephalosporin belongs to a family of beta-lactam antibiotics. All ?-lactam antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The ?-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place i.e. they inhibit bacterial cell wall formation.

Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) refers to the resistance to blood flow to the left atrium from the pulmonary artery.
It is derived mathematically by:

PVR = MPAP – PCWP
CO
where,
MPAP: Mean pulmonary artery pressure
PCWP: Pulmonary capillary occlusion pressure
CO: Cardiac output

For this patient:
PVR = 10 – 5 = 1mmHg
5

Remember, multiply by correction factor 80 to change units:

PVR = 1mmHg x 80 = 80 dynes·s·cm-5

Normal values range between 20-130 dynes·s·cm-5

When a drug is given via intravenous infusion, the plasma concentration rises exponentially as a wash-in curve until it reaches steady-state concentration (the point at which the infusion rate is balanced by the elimination rate or clearance). To reach this steady state, the drug will take 4-5 half-lives.

Cpss (target plasma concentration at steady state) and clearance (CL) in ml/minute or litre/hour are the two factors that determine the infusion rate or dose (ID) in mg/hour of a drug.

ID = Cpss × CL

We know the infusion rate is 20 ml/hour in this case. The drug’s concentration is 5 mg/mL. The patient is receiving 100 mg of the drug per hour, with a 20 L/hour clearance rate.

ID = Cpss × 20

Therefore,

Cpss = 100 mg/20000 ml

Cpss = 0.005 mg/mL or 5 mcg/mL

Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.

It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.

It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.

It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas
It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue

In the Child-Pugh classification system, the following 5 components are determined or calculated in order:

Ascites

Grade of encephalopathy

Serum bilirubin (?mol/L)

Serum Albumin (g/L)

Prothrombin time or INR

Raised liver enzymes are not the component of the classification system.

The vagus nerve is a mixed nerve with both autonomic and somatic effects. Its most important somatic effect is the motor supply to the larynx via recurrent laryngeal nerves. If one vagus nerve is damaged, the result will be the same as damage to a single recurrent laryngeal nerve, leading to hoarseness of voice.

The vagus exits the skull via the jugular foramen, accompanied by the accessory nerve.

Anal tone, erections, and urination are all controlled by the sacral parasympathetic and would not be affected by the loss of the vagus. Parasympathetic controlled pupillary constriction is via the oculomotor nerve and would not be affected by the loss of the vagus.

The measurements of GFR are done using renally inert indicators like inulin, where passive rate of filtration at the glomerulus = rate of excretion. Normal value is about 180 litres per day.

GFR is altered by renal blood flow but blood flow does not need to be measured.

The reabsorption of Na leads to a low excretion rate and low urine concentration and therefore its use as an indicator would lead to an erroneously LOW GFR.

If there is tubular secretion of any solute, the clearance value will be higher than that of inulin. This will be either due to tubular reabsorption or the solute not being freely filtered at the glomerulus.

The equation for calculating vaporiser output is:

Vaporiser output (VO) mL = Carrier gas flow (mL/minute) × SVP of agent (kPa)
Ambient pressure (kPa) − SVP of agent (kPa)

The saturated vapour pressure of sevoflurane at 1 atm (100 kPa) and 20°C is 21 kPa.

VO = (100 mL × 21 kPa)/(100 kPa − 21kPa) for sevoflurane,
VO = 26.6 mL

26.6 mL of 100% sevoflurane and 100 mL bypass carrier gas is being added to the fresh gas flow per minute.

2660 mL of 1% sevoflurane and 100 mL bypass carrier gas is approximately 2.7 L/minute.

pH=7.36, PaCO2=8.5kPa, PaO2=7.5kPa, HCO3- = 43mmol/L is the correct answer.

Since the pH is the lower limit of normal, it is compensated despite a raised PaCO2. Retention of bicarbonate ions by the renal system suggests this process is chronic.

pH=7.24, PaCO2=3.5kPa, PaO2=8.5kPa, HCO3- =18mmol/L represents an acute uncompensated metabolic acidosis

The remaining stems are degrees of uncompensated respiratory acidosis and therefore incorrect.

Such a high rise of end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) in a patient who is spontaneously breathing is often encountered.

Close observation should occur for further rises in EtCO2 and other signs of malignant hyperthermia. If this were to rise even more, it might be wise to ensure that ventilatory support is available.

A lot would depend on whether surgery was almost completed. At this stage of anaesthesia, it would be inappropriate to administer opioid antagonists or respiratory stimulants.

Always call for help early. This patient is at risk of gastro-oesophageal reflux, which is why a rapid sequence induction has been chosen. The patient is not pregnant, and the surgery is not urgent.

Plan A is to perform a rapid sequence induction under optimal conditions and secure the airway with a tracheal tube.

No more than three attempts with a direct laryngoscope (plus one attempt with a videolaryngoscope) should be made to intubate the trachea. Keep in mind that suxamethonium is wearing off. Ensuring adequate neuromuscular blockade at this stage is crucial; this might include administering a non-depolarizing relaxant if oxygenation can be maintained with bag-mask ventilation. Given the non-immediate nature of the surgery, there should be a low threshold to abandon intubation attempts and resort to Plan B.

An alternative strategy can then be planned.

The most important initial step is to declare a “failed intubation.” This will prevent further intubation attempts and alert your assistant that Plan A has failed. Maintaining oxygenation and anesthesia is also critical before implementing Plan B.

Do not administer another dose of suxamethonium. Insert a supraglottic airway if oxygenation fails and adequate ventilation cannot be maintained.

Plan D follows the declaration of a CICO (Cannot Intubate, Cannot Oxygenate) situation.

Drugs cross the placenta by Simple, Ion channel and Facilitated diffusion; Exocytosis and Endocytosis, Osmosis, and Active transport (primary and secondary)

The following factors influence rate of diffusion across the placenta:

Protein binding
Degree of ionisation
Placental blood flow
Maternal and foetal blood pH
Materno-foetal concentration gradient.
Thickness of placental membrane
Molecular weight of drug <600 Daltons cross by diffusion
Lipid solubility (lipid soluble molecules readily diffuse across the placenta)

Rocuronium has a F/M ratios of 0.16, a 30% plasma protein binding, low lipid solubility, a low volume of distribution (0.25L/kg), and a high molecular weight (530Da).

Drug A is a pure agonist for the receptor, with high intrinsic efficacy and affinity, according to the log-dose response curve.

Drug B, on the other hand, works as a competitive antagonist. It binds to the receptor but has no inherent efficacy. Drug A’s efficacy will not change, but its potency will be reduced.

A partial agonist is a drug with partial intrinsic efficacy and affinity for the receptor. Giving a partial agonist after a pure agonist will not increase receptor occupancy or decrease receptor activity, and thus will not affect drug A’s efficacy. The inverse agonist flumazenil can reverse all benzodiazepines.

An inverse agonist is a drug that binds to the receptor but has the opposite pharmacological effect.

A non-competitive antagonist is a drug that has affinity for a receptor but has different pharmacological effects and reduces the efficacy of an agonist for that receptor.

Taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is carried by chorda tympani, a branch of the facial nerve.

The general somatic sensation of the anterior two-third of the tongue is supplied by the lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular nerve.

Both general somatic sensation and taste from the posterior third of the tongue are carried by the glossopharyngeal nerve.

All the muscles of the tongue except palatoglossus are supplied by the hypoglossal nerve whereas palatoglossus is supplied by the vagus nerve. (This is because palatoglossus is the only tongue muscle derived from the fourth branchial arch)

Propofol infusion syndrome is a rare but extremely dangerous complication of propofol administration

Common organ systems affected by PRIS include the following:
1. cardiovascular
widening of QRS complex, Brugada syndrome-like patterns (particularly type 1), ventricular tachyarrhythmias, cardiogenic shock, and asystole

2. hepatic
Liver enzymes elevation, hepatomegaly, and steatosis

3. skeletal muscular
myopathy and overt rhabdomyolysis

4. renal
Hyperkalaemia, acute kidney injury

5. metabolic
High anion gap metabolic acidosis (due to elevation in lactic acid)

The first line of defence against acid-base disorder is buffering. The blood mainly utilizes bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) for its buffering capacity (total of 53%, plasma and red blood cells combined).

Strong acids, when acted upon by a buffer, release H+, which then combines to HCO3- and forms carbonic acid (H2CO3). When acted upon by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, H2CO3 dissociates into H2O and CO.

The rest are the percentage of utilization for the following buffers:
Haemoglobin (by RBCs) – 35%
Plasma proteins (by plasma) – 7%
Organic phosphates (by RBCs) – 3%
Inorganic phosphates (by plasma) – 2%

The following is the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock:

Class I haemorrhage:
It has blood loss up to 15%. There is very less tachycardia, and no changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure. Usually, fluid replacement is not required.

Class II haemorrhage:
It has 15-30% blood loss, equivalent to 750 – 1500 ml. There is tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure. Patient may be frightened, hostile and anxious. It can be stabilised by crystalloid and blood transfusion.

Class III haemorrhage:
There is 30-40% blood loss. It portrays inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, altered mental state and fall in systolic pressure. It requires blood transfusion.

Class IV haemorrhage:
There is > 40% blood volume loss. It is a preterminal event, and the patient will die in minutes. It portrays tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and pulse pressure, altered mental state, and cold clammy skin. There is need for rapid transfusion and surgical intervention.

Linear regression, using a technique called curve fitting, allows us to make predictions regarding a certain variable.

Correlation coefficient gives us an idea whether or not the two parameters provide have any relation of some sort or not i.e. does change in one prompt any change in other?

The most likely diagnosis is a spinal epidural haematoma, a neurological emergency. A full examination must be carried out to determine the nature of the neurological problem before conducting any investigations or imaging.

The effects of spinal anaesthesia should have worn off by this time point, and the severe back pain is a red flag.

The patient will also require an urgent neurological team referral as a spinal epidural haematoma requires immediate evacuation for spinal decompression. Analgesics may be prescribed for pain management.

Heparin would have been fully metabolised and so a reversal is unnecessary.

A spinal epidural haematoma is a pooling of blood in the epidural space, which can cause compression of the spinal cord. Its presenting symptoms are:

Usually begins with severe backpain and percussion tenderness
Cauda equina syndrome
Paralysis of the lower extremities.
If infected, a fever occurs in 66% of cases
Lower limb weakness developing after stopping an epidural infusion or weakness of the lower limbs which does not resolve within four hours of cessation of infusion of epidural local anaesthetic
Meningism.

Haemorrhage, including intracranial bleeding, is a common and potentially fatal side effect of warfarin therapy, and reversing anticoagulation quickly and completely can save lives. When complete and immediate correction of the coagulation defect is required in orally anticoagulated patients with life-threatening haemorrhage, clotting factor concentrates are the only viable option.

For rapid reversal of vitamin K anticoagulants, prothrombin complex concentrates (PCC) are recommended. They contain the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X and are derived from human plasma. They can be used as an adjunctive therapy in patients with major bleeding because they normalise vitamin K dependent clotting factors and restore haemostasis.

The most common treatments are fresh frozen plasma (FFP) and vitamin K. The efficacy of this approach is questioned due to the variable content of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in FFP and the effects of dilution. Significant intravascular volume challenge, as well as the possibility of rare complications like transfusion-associated lung injury or blood-borne infection, are all potential issues.

To avoid anaphylactic reactions, vitamin K should be given as a slow intravenous infusion over 30 minutes. Regardless of the route of administration, the reversal of INRs with vitamin K can take up to 24 hours to reach its maximum effect.

Reversal of anticoagulation in patients with warfarin-associated intracranial haemorrhage may be considered with factor VIIa (recombinant), but its use is controversial. There are concerns about thromboembolic events following treatment, as well as questions about assessing efficacy in changes in the INR. If the drug is to be administered, patients should be screened for an increased risk of thrombosis before the drug is given.

Sensory innervation of the larynx is controlled by branches of the vagus nerve.

The internal and external bifurcations of the superior laryngeal nerve is responsible for sensory innervation of the aspect of the larynx superior to the vocal cords, while the recurrent laryngeal nerve is responsible for sensory innervation of the intrinsic musculature of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle.

The principal innervation of the small muscles of the hand is T1.

A higher frequency ultrasound comes with a better resolution of the digital image. Ultrasound with a frequency of 15 MHz is best used in imaging of superficial organs such as the thyroid gland, muscles, tendons and breasts whereas deep organs are better imaged using a lower frequency of 2-7MHz because of its ability for deeper penetration but lower resolution. These low frequency probes are also used to diagnose ascites, pleural effusions or can be used in echocardiography.

The US probe emits and then absorbs a reflected wave. Similar to brightness control, increasing the gain will amplify the return signal which is then attenuated by the tissue. This increases the signal to noise ratio.
A high frame rate, which basically means the number of times an image is updated onto the screen per second, improves the resolution of a moving 3D image which has become more accurate as the computing power has increased.

Widening of the image field can be obtained by altering the penetration depth which is obtained by changing the frequency of the US beam

Phase IIa studies are usually pilot studies designed to demonstrate clinical efficacy or biological activity (‘proof of concept’ studies) whereas phase IIb studies determine the optimal dose at which the drug shows biological activity with minimal side-effects (definite dose-finding studies).

Phase III and Phase IV studies are performed on larger set of participants (usually hundreds to thousands) when safety and efficacy have been established.

When there is capillary leakage as seen in dependent oedema or ascites, oncotic pressure becomes a problem.

The intracellular sodium concentration is very sensitive to the extracellular sodium concentrations. When there is an imbalance, osmosis occurs resulting in shifts in water between the two compartments.

The microvascular endothelium relies upon osmosis and other processes as it is not freely permeable to water.