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  • Question 1 - Which of the following stimulates the secretion of gastrin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following stimulates the secretion of gastrin?

      Your Answer: Somatostatin

      Correct Answer: Amino acids

      Explanation:

      Gastrin is released from G cells in the antrum of the stomach after a meal. It stimulates parietal cells to release HCl. Gastrin is stimulated by a number of things: antrum distention, vagal stimulation, peptides (especially amino acids) in the stomach, hypercalcemia. Gastrin release is inhibited by acid, SST, GIP, VIP, secretin, glucagon, and calcitonin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      14.3
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old woman with lung cancer develops deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with lung cancer develops deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She is reviewed in the hospital clinic and started on low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH).

      Which of the following should be the most appropriate treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Switch to warfarin, continue for 6 months

      Correct Answer: Continue on LMWH for 6 months

      Explanation:

      Patients with active cancer are at a continuous risk of having venous thromboembolism (VTE), such as DVT. Therefore, a six-month course of an anticoagulant such as LMWH is recommended. LMWH is the drug of choice since its side effects can be reversed and it can be stopped easily in case of a cancer-related bleed, for example, massive haemoptysis in a patient with lung cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      48.7
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - All of the following are true regarding carcinoid syndrome, except? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are true regarding carcinoid syndrome, except?

      Your Answer: Niacin supplementation can prevent pellagra in patients with marked elevation of urinary 5HIAA

      Correct Answer: Pharmacological blockade is clinically useful in only 10% of patients

      Explanation:

      For medical management of carcinoid syndrome, there are two somatostatin analogues available, Octreotide and Lanreotide. Somatostatin is an amino acid peptide which is an inhibitory hormone, which is synthesized by paracrine cells located ubiquitously throughout the gastrointestinal tract. Both somatostatin analogues provide symptom relief in 50% to 70% of patients and biochemical response in 40% to 60% patients. Many studies have shown that Octreotide and Lanreotide also inhibit the proliferation of tumour cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      35.9
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old man presented with retrosternal chest pain associated with excessive sweating and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presented with retrosternal chest pain associated with excessive sweating and vomiting. On examination his BP was 100/60 mmHg and pulse rate was 72 bpm. Bibasal crepitations were auscultated. His ECG showed ST elevation in V1 to V4 and ST depression in leads II, III and aVF. Which of the following would be the finding during angioplasty?

      Your Answer: Vasospasm

      Correct Answer: Complete occlusion of the left anterior descending artery

      Explanation:

      The ECG findings are suggestive of anterior myocardial infarction and the most likely artery affected is the left anterior descending artery. Occlusion of the right coronary artery will be shown by ST elevation in lead II, III, aVF and occlusion of the circumflex artery will show changes in leads I, aVL, V5 and V6. To have ST elevation, there should be complete occlusion of the artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      106.5
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old female presented with weight loss, night sweats and abdominal pain for...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old female presented with weight loss, night sweats and abdominal pain for 6 months. Abdominal ultrasound scan showed a tubo-ovarian mass. What is the most likely organism, which is responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Constitutional symptoms such as weight loss, evening pyrexia and night sweats are associated with Mycobacterium Tuberculosis (TB). TB can affect any system of the body and should be top in the list of differentials particularly if the patient has a history of contact with a known TB patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      23.8
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old female patient presents with butterfly rash, haematuria and photosensitivity. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient presents with butterfly rash, haematuria and photosensitivity. She is currently on TB treatment. Which antibody would you expect positive?

      Your Answer: Anti-Ds DNA

      Correct Answer: Anti-Histone

      Explanation:

      This patient is probably suffering from a drug-induced lupus. There’s a 95% chance that anti-histone antibodies are positive. Drug-induced lupus is a lupus-like disease caused by certain prescription drugs. The drugs most commonly connected with drug-induced lupus are: hydralazine (used to treat high blood pressure or hypertension), procainamide (used to treat irregular heart rhythms) and isoniazid (used to treat tuberculosis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      16.2
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old male presented with palpitations for 1 week. The palpitations were intermittent...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male presented with palpitations for 1 week. The palpitations were intermittent and lasted a few hours per day. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: ECHO

      Correct Answer: 24 hr ECG

      Explanation:

      Palpitations can be due to many reasons. As palpitations are not constant in this case, a 24 hr ECG is important to isolate these episodes and find any cardiac cause. Drugs depend on the cause for the palpitations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      46.1
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of breathlessness and pyrexia. She's been...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of breathlessness and pyrexia. She's been diagnosed with eczema and tuberculosis (TB). The following findings were established: pre-bronchodilator test=2/3.5, post-bronchodilator=3/3.7. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture of the patient together with paraclinical investigations (spirometry) suggest COPD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      68.1
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old male is admitted with vomiting. He has a long history of...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male is admitted with vomiting. He has a long history of alcohol abuse, appears slightly jaundiced and is dishevelled and unkempt. He was started on an intravenous glucose infusion and diazepam and he symptomatically improved.

      One day later he becomes confused, develops vomiting, diplopia and is unable to stand. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B deficiency

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis is Wernicke’s encephalopathy. This presents in a long time alcoholic from vitamin BI deficiency. Symptoms include confusion and confabulation, oculomotor symptoms/signs, and ataxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      57.8
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - A 71-year-old woman presents with dyspnoea and unsteadiness. She's known to suffer from...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old woman presents with dyspnoea and unsteadiness. She's known to suffer from epilepsy and is managed on carbamazepine. Blood exams are as follows: MCV=70, Hb=8.5, WBC=2, Neutrophils=1, Platelets=50. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Correct Answer: Aplastic anaemia

      Explanation:

      The results of the blood exam are suggestive of aplastic anaemia which might be secondary to carbamazepine use. The use of antiepileptic’s, in particular carbamazepine and valproate, is associated with a nine fold increased risk of aplastic anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      37.4
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - A 56-year-old male has presented with visual loss on his left side and...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old male has presented with visual loss on his left side and a history of right sided weakness. Where is the occlusion in this patient?

      Your Answer: Mid meningeal artery

      Correct Answer: Carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The carotid artery divides itself into two parts: the internal carotid and the external carotid. The internal carotid continues down as the middle cerebral and gives rise to the ophthalmic branch. For this reason, middle cerebral occlusion may give rise to partial visual loss but not complete mono-ocular blindness. Middle cerebral artery occlusion causes paralysis or weakness of contralateral face and arm (faciobracheal). It also causes sensory loss of the contralateral face and arm. Anterior cerebral artery occlusion causes paralysis or weakness of the contralateral foot and leg. Again, sensory loss is experienced at the contralateral foot and leg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      87.7
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - A 16-year-old boy was stabbed in his right upper back and brought to...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy was stabbed in his right upper back and brought to the ED where he underwent an erect CXR. Findings suggest a homogenous opacity on the lower right lung with the trachea centrally placed. What would explain the those findings?

      Your Answer: Empyema

      Correct Answer: Haemothorax

      Explanation:

      Findings suggest a haemothorax which is very likely to happen, in the absence of a haemo-pneumothorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      30.5
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old male complains of numbness in the little and ring fingers of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male complains of numbness in the little and ring fingers of his left hand. Which of the following nerves is responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Radial Nerve

      Correct Answer: Ulnar Nerve

      Explanation:

      There are three branches of the ulnar nerve that are responsible for its sensory innervation. The palmar cutaneous branch innervates the medial half of the palm. The dorsal cutaneous branch innervates the dorsal surface of the medial one and a half fingers, and the associated dorsal hand area. The superficial branch innervates the palmar surface of the medial one and a half fingers. According to the given history, the superficial branch of ulnar nerve has been affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      91.2
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - A 78-year-old male presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath that...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old male presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath that has developed gradually over the last 4 days. His symptoms include fever and cough productive of greenish sputum. Past history is notable for COPD for which he was once admitted to the ICU, 2 years back. He now takes nebulizers (ipratropium bromide) at home. The patient previously suffered from myocardial infarction 7 years ago. He also has Diabetes Mellitus type II controlled by lifestyle modification.
      On examination, the following vitals are obtained.
      BP : 159/92 mmHg
      Pulse: 91/min (regular)
      Temp: Febrile
      On auscultation, there are scattered ronchi bilaterally and right sided basal crackles. Cardiovascular and abdominal examinations are unremarkable.
      Lab findings are given below:
      pH 7.31
      pa(O2) 7.6 kPa
      pa(CO2) 6.3 kPa
      Bicarbonate 30 mmol/l
      Sodium 136 mmol/l
      Potassium 3.7 mmol/l
      Urea 7.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 111 μmol/l
      Haemoglobin 11.3 g/dl
      Platelets 233 x 109 /l
      Mean cell volume (MCV) 83 fl
      White blood cells (WBC) 15.2 x 109 /l.
      CXR shows an opacity obscuring the right heart border.

      Which of the following interventions should be started immediately while managing this patient?

      Your Answer: High flows oxygen (15 l)

      Correct Answer: Salbutamol and ipratropium bromide nebulisers

      Explanation:

      Acute exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are immediately treated with inhaled beta2 agonists and inhaled anticholinergics, followed by antibiotics (if indicated) and systemic corticosteroids. Methylxanthine therapy may be considered in patients who do not respond to other bronchodilators.
      High flow oxygen would worsen his symptoms. Usually titrated oxygen (88 to 92 %) is given in such patients to avoid the risk of hyperoxic hypercarbia in which increasing oxygen saturation in a chronic carbon dioxide retainer can inadvertently lead to respiratory acidosis and death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      34.5
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - A 77-year-old female who is a known to have COPD and metastatic lung...

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old female who is a known to have COPD and metastatic lung cancer is admitted with increasing shortness of breath. Following discussion with her family, it is decided to withdraw active treatment including fluids and antibiotics as the admission likely represents a terminal event. Two days after admission, she becomes agitated and restless.

      What is the most appropriate management for her agitation and confusion?

      Your Answer: Oral haloperidol

      Correct Answer: Subcutaneous midazolam

      Explanation:

      Generally, underlying causes of confusion need to be looked for and treated as appropriate, for example, hypercalcaemia, infection, urinary retention, and medication. If specific treatments fail, the following may be tried:

      1. First choice: haloperidol
      2. Other options: chlorpromazine, levomepromazine

      In the terminal phase of the illness, agitation or restlessness is best treated with midazolam.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      38.3
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - A 75-year-old woman presented with difficulty in climbing the stairs and difficulty in...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman presented with difficulty in climbing the stairs and difficulty in holding her head up, for the past 6 months. She didn't have any significant joint pain. Her creatinine phosphokinase level was very high and ESR was normal. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Correct Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      Polymyositis is an idiopathic inflammatory myopathy characterized by symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness, elevated skeletal muscle enzyme levels and characteristic electromyography (EMG) and muscle biopsy findings. Weak neck extensors cause difficulty holding the head up. Pain is not a significant symptom, which differentiates it from arthritic conditions. ESR is elevated in only 50% of patients with polymyositis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      50.4
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - Fabry's disease is a rare genetic disorder that leads to excessive deposition of...

    Incorrect

    • Fabry's disease is a rare genetic disorder that leads to excessive deposition of neutral glycosphingolipids in the vascular endothelium of several organs and in epithelial and smooth muscle cells. Which of the following is least likely to be associated with Fabry's disease?

      Your Answer: Mutations in the gene for alpha-galactosidase A

      Correct Answer: Inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion

      Explanation:

      Fabry disease (Angiokeratoma corporis diffusum) is an X-linked lysosomal disorder which occurs due to deficiency or absence of alpha-galactosidase A (?-GAL A) activity as a result of a genetic mutation in the GLA gene. As Fabry’s disease follows X-linked genetics it manifestis predominantly in men. Ongoing burning, tingling pain and discomfort, known as acroparesthesia, mainly affecting the hands and feet is the most debilitating symptom in childhood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      53.7
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - A 20-year-old male was admitted with a right sided pneumothorax. A chest drain...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male was admitted with a right sided pneumothorax. A chest drain was inserted just below the 4th rib in the midclavicular line. What is the structure at risk of damage during the above procedure?

      Your Answer: Intercostal artery

      Explanation:

      From the given answers, the most suitable answer is the intercostal artery. However the most vulnerable structure is the intercostal nerve, then intercostal artery and finally intercostal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      18.9
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old male presents at the OPD complaining of excessive tiredness and frequent...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents at the OPD complaining of excessive tiredness and frequent headaches. On examination, his blood pressure was 205/100 mmHg. Blood tests reveal a decreased serum potassium and renin level and elevated aldosterone level. Which condition is this patient most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: Hypopituitarism

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn's disease)

      Explanation:

      Conn’s disease is a condition in which excessive amounts of aldosterone are secreted from the adrenal glands. Because aldosterone increases the reabsorption of sodium, it leads to a very high blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      28.6
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old female presented with complaints of joint pains, myalgia, haematuria and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presented with complaints of joint pains, myalgia, haematuria and a facial rash which exacerbates on exposure to sunlight. RFTs show raised urea and creatinine, and there were red cell casts on urine microscopy. The investigation of choice in this case would be?

      Your Answer: Joint aspiration

      Correct Answer: Auto antibodies

      Explanation:

      Considering the history and presenting complaints, this patient is most likely suffering from systemic lupus erythematosus, which will be confirmed by testing for auto antibodies like ANA, anti ds DNA, anti histone antibodies etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune System
      92.6
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - A 27 year-old ballet instructor presents with 1-day history of left-sided facial weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year-old ballet instructor presents with 1-day history of left-sided facial weakness and an increased sensitivity to noise in her left ear. She is very anxious because 2 years ago she had some problems with her vision and was told that multiple sclerosis was a possibility. Her medical history is significant only for type 1 diabetes mellitus managed with insulin, and she is also taking a combined oral contraceptive pill. Upon examination, she has a lower motor neuron lesion of the left VII (facial) nerve with Bell's phenomenon present and difficulty closing her left eye. There is no objective hearing loss and no sensory signs. Examination of the auditory meatus and canal is unremarkable. The remainder of the neurological examination appears normal. The next management step in her care should be:

      Your Answer: Visual evoked potentials

      Correct Answer: Eye patch and artificial tears

      Explanation:

      From the given history and physical examination findings, this patient has Bell’s palsy. There is no evidence to suggest involvement of any other cranial nerves, which might raise suspicion of a cerebello-pontine angle space-occupying lesion. With her history of possible optic neuritis, there is a possibility that the lesion is in fact a manifestation of multiple sclerosis, although this should be differentiated by examination of an upper motor neuron lesion (with sparing of the forehead facial muscles because of bilateral innervation). In light of her diabetes and the limited evidence of benefit from corticosteroid use, the most sensible first management step for her would be meticulous eye care to avoid corneal ulceration, as a result of the difficulty she is having closing her left eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      34.9
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - A 1-day-old baby started having pallor and jaundice. The mother's first child did...

    Incorrect

    • A 1-day-old baby started having pallor and jaundice. The mother's first child did not have jaundice at birth. On clinical investigations, direct Coombs test is positive. Mother's blood group is A negative. Baby's blood group is O positive. What is the most probable cause of the condition of this new-born?

      Your Answer: Congenital rubella

      Correct Answer: Rhesus incompatibility

      Explanation:

      Jaundice in a new-born on the day of delivery is most likely due to Rh incompatibility. This occurs when the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive. Antibodies in the mother against the Rh factor in the baby will destroy the red blood cells in the baby, increasing the bilirubin in the blood. Breast milk jaundice and Galactosemia do not occur immediately after birth, and congenital rubella syndrome and formula feeding does not cause jaundice in babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune System
      21
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - Which is NOT a poor prognostic factor for patients with malignant melanoma? ...

    Correct

    • Which is NOT a poor prognostic factor for patients with malignant melanoma?

      Your Answer: Diameter of melanoma > 6 mm

      Explanation:

      Features that affect prognosis are tumour thickness in millimetres (Breslow’s depth – the deeper the Breslow thickness the poorer the prognosis.), depth related to skin structures (Clark level – the level of invasion through the dermis), type of melanoma, presence of ulceration, presence of lymphatic/perineural invasion, presence of tumour-infiltrating lymphocytes (if present, prognosis is better), location of lesion, presence of satellite lesions, and presence of regional or distant metastasis. Malignant melanoma tends to grow radially before entering a vertical growth phase. The diameter it reaches has not been found to be a prognostic factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • The Skin
      31.1
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - Regarding the thymus, which of the following is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the thymus, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: It contains an area known as white pulp

      Correct Answer: DiGeorge's syndrome is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus

      Explanation:

      The thymus is a lymphoid organ located in the anterior mediastinum. In early life, the thymus is responsible for the development and maturation of cell-mediated immunologic functions. The thymus is composed predominantly of epithelial cells and lymphocytes. Precursor cells migrate to the thymus and differentiate into lymphocytes. Most of these lymphocytes are destroyed, with the remainder of these cells migrating to tissues to become T cells.
      DiGeorge’s syndrome (DGS) is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus. The classic triad of features of DGS on presentation is conotruncal cardiac anomalies, hypoplastic thymus, and hypocalcaemia (resulting from parathyroid hypoplasia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      20.4
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - Which of the following drugs will most likely trigger an exacerbation of acute...

    Correct

    • Which of the following drugs will most likely trigger an exacerbation of acute intermittent porphyria (AIP)?

      Your Answer: Oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Hormonal contraceptives all contain man-made oestrogen and progestin hormones in a limited amount. These hormones prevent pregnancy by inhibiting the body’s natural cyclical hormones to prevent pregnancy. Even though all of these drugs except Ibuprofen can cause AIP in a vulnerable woman. The most likely cause is the OCP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      32.1
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old youth was brought to the A&E following a stab injury to...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old youth was brought to the A&E following a stab injury to the right back of the chest. On examination he was dyspnoeic, his trachea was deviated to the left side and there were engorged veins and absent breath sounds on the right side. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tension pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      History is suggestive of right sided tension pneumothorax. It can’t be a simple pneumothorax because of tracheal deviation and engorged veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      49
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - A 42-year-old female presents with morning stiffness that usually takes an hour to...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female presents with morning stiffness that usually takes an hour to settle and a one year history of intermittent pain and swelling of the small joints of her hands. Examination reveals symmetric soft tissue swelling over the PIP and MCP joints and rheumatoid nodules on the elbows. There is also an effusion of both wrists. Lab results are positive for rheumatoid factor. X-ray of the wrists and hands shows erosions and bony decalcification. NSAIDs are started and the patient is referred to a rheumatologist for consideration of DMARD. Previous history is significant for TB. Which of the following should be avoided?

      Your Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Correct Answer: Infliximab

      Explanation:

      Anti-TNF-? therapy is effective for patients with arthritis but it can oftentimes lead to the reactivation of latent TB. Hence it should be used with great caution in patients with a past history of TB or current infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      22.7
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - A 40-year-old female presented with palmar xanthomas and tuberoeruptive xanthomas on her elbows...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old female presented with palmar xanthomas and tuberoeruptive xanthomas on her elbows and knees. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Type V hyperlipoproteinaemia

      Correct Answer: Type III hyperlipoproteinaemia

      Explanation:

      Palmar xanthomas and tuberoeruptive xanthomas are found in type III hyperlipoproteinemia (dysbetalipoproteinemia,broad-beta disease, remnant removal disease)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      46
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - A 63-year-old man with known allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis presents to the A&E Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man with known allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis presents to the A&E Department with an exacerbation. Which therapy represents the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Oral itraconazole

      Correct Answer: Oral glucocorticoids

      Explanation:

      Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) is a form of lung disease that occurs in some people who are allergic to Aspergillus. With ABPA, this allergic reaction causes the immune system to overreact to Aspergillus leading to lung inflammation. ABPA causes bronchospasm (tightening of airway muscles) and mucus build-up resulting in coughing, breathing difficulty and airway obstruction.

      Treatment of ABPA aims to control inflammation and prevent further injury to your lungs. ABPA is a hypersensitivity reaction that requires treatment with oral corticosteroids. Inhaled steroids are not effective. ABPA is usually treated with a combination of oral corticosteroids and anti-fungal medications. The corticosteroid is used to treat inflammation and blocks the allergic reaction. Examples
      of corticosteroids include: prednisone, prednisolone or methylprednisolone. Inhaled corticosteroids alone – such as used for asthma treatment – are not effective in treating ABPA. Usually treatment with an oral corticosteroid is needed for months.

      The second type of therapy used is an anti-fungal medication, like itraconazole and voriconazole. These medicines help kill Aspergillus so that it no longer colonizes the airway. Usually one of these drugs is given for at least 3 to 6 months. However, even this treatment is not curative and can have side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      17.8
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - A lactating mother has developed a breast abscess. Which organism is the most...

    Incorrect

    • A lactating mother has developed a breast abscess. Which organism is the most common?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staph aureus

      Explanation:

      Staph aureus is the most common causative organism of skin and soft tissue infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Women's Health
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal System (1/2) 50%
Haematology & Oncology (0/3) 0%
Endocrine System & Metabolism (1/3) 33%
Cardiovascular System (0/2) 0%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal System (3/4) 75%
Respiratory System (1/2) 50%
Emergency & Critical Care (3/4) 75%
Nervous System (1/2) 50%
Geriatric Medicine (0/1) 0%
Immune System (2/2) 100%
The Skin (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Women's Health (1/1) 100%
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