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  • Question 1 - A 58-year-old female patient is being investigated for breathlessness, cough, and severe weight...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old female patient is being investigated for breathlessness, cough, and severe weight loss. On the medical ward round, her CXR is reviewed showing hilar lymphadenopathy and multiple peripheral lung metastases.

      Which of the following tumours is least likely to be the underlying cause of this lung appearance?

      Your Answer: Brain

      Explanation:

      All of the aforementioned listed tumours, except brain tumours, can metastasise to lungs and produce the typical CXR picture consisting of hilar lymphadenopathy with either diffuse multinodular shadows resembling miliary disease or multiple large well-defined masses (canon balls). Occasionally, cavitation or calcification may also be seen.

      Most brain tumours, however, do not metastasise. Some, derived form neural elements, do so but in these cases, intraparenchymal metastases generally precede distant haematogenous spread.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      48
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 86-year-old male patient has been diagnosed with monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance....

    Correct

    • An 86-year-old male patient has been diagnosed with monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance. He is eager to know its relation to his future health.

      Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: 10% of patients with MGUS go on to develop myeloma over 10 years

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is a good prognostic factor in chronic lymphocytic leukaemia?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a good prognostic factor in chronic lymphocytic leukaemia?

      Your Answer: Female sex

      Explanation:

      Good prognosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is associated with deletion of the long arm of chromosome 13 (del 13q). This is the most common abnormality, seen in around 50% of all CLL patients. Poor prognosis of the disease is related to deletion of part of the short arm of chromosome 17 (del 17p). This is seen in around 5-10% of the patients suffering from CLL.

      Poor prognostic factors of CLL include:
      1. Male sex
      2. Age >70 years
      3. Lymphocyte count >50
      4. Prolymphocytes comprising more than 10% of blood lymphocytes
      5. Lymphocyte doubling time <12 months
      6. Raised LDH
      7. CD38 expression positive

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 20-year-old girl is presented to the OPD with her mother. Her mother...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old girl is presented to the OPD with her mother. Her mother reports that she eats very large portions of food most of the time, but takes diet pills and remains depressed because she thinks she is overweight. However, on general physical examination, she appears to be very thin and her blood pressure is lower than normal. Investigations reveal that she has hypokalaemia. What is this girl most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Bulimia nervosa is a condition in which a person is involved in binge eating and then purging in an attempt to stay thin despite eating a lot of food. Frequent vomiting can cause electrolyte imbalance that manifests as hyperkalaemia and may lead to hypotension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old patient was admitted to the hospital for elective herniorrhaphy. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient was admitted to the hospital for elective herniorrhaphy. Which of the following options will lead to a postponement of his operation?

      Your Answer: Systolic BP less than 90mmHg

      Correct Answer: Myocardial infarction two months ago

      Explanation:

      Patients with a recent cerebrovascular incident (less than 60 days) are at very high risk of cardiac complications when under general anaesthesia. Complications like MI, heart failure and even death. Elective surgery should be postponed till stabilization of the cardiac condition is achieved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 70-year old man presents with difficulty speaking and has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year old man presents with difficulty speaking and has a history of weakness in his facial muscles, as well as in his right arm and leg. What is the most appropriate prophylactic regimen in this case?

      Your Answer: Clopidogrel 75mg

      Correct Answer: Aspirin 300mg for 2 weeks followed by aspirin 75mg and dipyridamole 200mg

      Explanation:

      Left-sided hemiparesis along with slurred speech are strong indications of stroke in the right cerebral hemisphere. This occurs due to poor blood flow to the brain from the heart. Aspirin 300mg has analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory properties that can address the acute symptoms of stroke like migraine and neuralgic pain. With a reduced dose of 75mg of Aspirin, its anti-platelet effect can inhibit further thrombus formation and prevent another stroke. Dipyridamole 200mg is an anti-coagulant preventing clot formation in the blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following conditions is not linked to hyperuricemia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is not linked to hyperuricemia?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Hyperuricemia is an elevated uric acid level in the blood. The normal upper limit is 6.8mg/dL, and anything over 7 mg/dL is considered saturated, and symptoms can occur. Causes of hyperuricemia can be classified into three functional types:
      1. Increased production of uric acid – Purine rich diet, Tumour lysis syndrome, HGPRT deficiency (Lesch-Nyhan and Kelley-Seegmiller syndromes), Increased PRPP synthetase activity and Polycythaemia
      2. Decreased excretion of uric acid – Renal impairment, Metabolic syndrome, Drugs (diuretics, low-dose aspirin, cyclosporin, tacrolimus, pyrazinamide, ethambutol, levodopa, nicotinic acid), Acidosis, Pre-eclampsia and eclampsia, Hypothyroidism and hyperparathyroidism, Sarcoidosis, Familial juvenile gouty nephropathy, Chronic lead intoxication, Trisomy 21
      3. Idiopathic and mixed type – Alcohol, Exercise, Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency, Aldolase B deficiency

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old female is diagnosed with SLE based on her complaints of polyarthralgia,...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female is diagnosed with SLE based on her complaints of polyarthralgia, mouth ulcers and ANA positivity. Labs reveal normal urinalysis, urea and electrolytes. ESR is 90mm in the first hour. How will you manage this patient?

      Your Answer: Hydroxychloroquine 200 mg/day

      Explanation:

      Hydroxychloroquine is used in the management of SLE as it prevents disease progression and has relatively mild side effects, for instance headache, nausea etc. Its use reduces the usage of corticosteroids. It is particularly effective when the disease is less severe and there is no organ involvement. Cyclophosphamide and prednisolone are indicated in cases of renal, neurological and lung involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is the most useful marker of prognosis in multiple...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most useful marker of prognosis in multiple myeloma?

      Your Answer: B2-microglobulin

      Explanation:

      B2-microglobulin is a useful marker of prognosis in multiple myeloma (MM). Raised levels imply a poorer prognosis. Low levels of albumin are also associated with a poor prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 22-year-old patient was diagnosed with glioblastoma multiforme, after he was investigated for...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old patient was diagnosed with glioblastoma multiforme, after he was investigated for seizures. The cell of origin of this tumour is?

      Your Answer: Astrocytes

      Explanation:

      Glioblastoma multiforme is the most common anaplastic malignant tumour of the glial cells. It is a mixture of poorly differentiated anaplastic astrocytes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      56.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - All of the following statements regarding glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) are true, except? ...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements regarding glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) are true, except?

      Your Answer: Increased levels are seen in type 2 diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) is a 30-amino acid peptide hormone produced in the intestinal epithelial endocrine L-cells by differential processing of proglucagon. GLP-1 is released in response to meal intake.
      The main actions of GLP-1 are to stimulate insulin secretion (i.e., to act as an incretin hormone) and to inhibit glucagon secretion, thereby contributing to limit postprandial glucose excursions. It also inhibits gastrointestinal motility and secretion and thus acts as an enterogastrone and part of the ileal brake mechanism. GLP-1 also appears to be a physiological regulator of appetite and food intake.
      Decreased secretion of GLP-1 may contribute to the development of obesity, and exaggerated secretion may be responsible for postprandial reactive hypoglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin, has the greatest effect...

    Correct

    • The mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin, has the greatest effect on which of the following components of the coagulation cascade?

      Your Answer: Factor Xa

      Explanation:

      Mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH):
      It inhibits coagulation by activating antithrombin III. Antithrombin III binds to and inhibits factor Xa. In doing so it prevents activation of the final common path; Xa inactivation means that prothrombin is not activated to thrombin, thereby not converting fibrinogen into fibrin for the formation of a clot.

      LMHW is a small fragment of a larger mucopolysaccharide, heparin. Heparin works similarly, by binding antithrombin III and activating it. Heparin also has a binding site for thrombin, so thrombin can interact with antithrombin III and heparin, thus inhibiting coagulation.
      Heparin has a faster onset of anticoagulant action as it will inhibit not only Xa but also thrombin, while LMWH acts only on Xa inhibition.

      Compared to heparin, LMWHs have a longer half-life, so dosing is more predictable and can be less frequent, most commonly once per day.

      Dosage and uses:
      LMWH is administered via subcutaneous injection. This has long-term implications on the choice of anticoagulant for prophylaxis, for example, in orthopaedic patients recovering from joint replacement surgery, or in the treatment of DVT/PE.

      Adverse effects:
      The main risk of LMWH will be bleeding. The specific antidote for heparin-induced bleeding is protamine sulphate.
      Less commonly it can cause:
      Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
      Osteoporosis and spontaneous fractures
      Hypoaldosteronism
      Hypersensitivity reactions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old male was admitted to ED with acute onset left side upper...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male was admitted to ED with acute onset left side upper and lower limb weakness and slurred speech. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer: CT scan of brain

      Explanation:

      The history is suggestive of cerebral stroke and the investigation of choice at most hospitals would be a CT brain. Non-contrast CT scanning is the most commonly used form of neuroimaging in the acute evaluation of patients with apparent acute stroke. MRI scan is more sensitive but availability and cost make this a less likely option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old factory worker presents with a history of episodic dyspnoea. The complaint...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old factory worker presents with a history of episodic dyspnoea. The complaint worsens when he is working. He starts to feel wheezy, with a tendency to cough. Which diagnostic investigation would be the most useful in this case?

      Your Answer: Patch testing

      Correct Answer: Serial peak flow measurements at work and at home

      Explanation:

      Serial Peak Expiratory Flow measurement at work and home is a feasible, sensitive, and specific test for the diagnosis of occupational asthma. For a diagnosis of occupational asthma, it is important to establish a relationship objectively between the workplace exposure and asthma symptoms and signs. Physiologically, this can be achieved by monitoring airflow limitation in relation to occupational exposure(s). If there is an effect of a specific workplace exposure, airflow limitation should be more prominent on work days compared with days away from work (or days away from the causative agent). Airflow limitation can be measured by spirometry, with peak expiratory flow (PEF) and/or forced expiratory volume in 1 s(FEV1) being the most useful for observing changes in airway calibre. Other tests mentioned are less reliable and would not help in establishing a satisfactory diagnosis of occupational asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      51.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 53-year-old diabetic man presents to the emergency with pain in left loin...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old diabetic man presents to the emergency with pain in left loin and haematuria that was sudden in onset. Investigations revealed an 8mm stone in the left lower ureter. Supportive therapy was initiated with nifedipine and steroids. The patients returned to the emergency with vomiting and worsening pain and passage of two stones. Renal function tests are significant for an impending ARF. Which of the following steps would be employed in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Start alpha blocker

      Correct Answer: Percutaneous nephrostomy

      Explanation:

      Nephrolithiasis encompasses the formation of all types of urinary calculi in the kidney, which may deposit along the entire urogenital tract from the renal pelvis to the urethra. Nephrolithiasis manifests as sudden onset colicky flank pain that may radiate to the groin, testes, or labia (renal/ureteric colic) and is usually associated with haematuria.
      Risk factors include low fluid intake, high-sodium, high-purine, and low-potassium diets, which can raise the calcium, uric acid, and oxalate levels in the urine and thereby promote stone formation.
      Diagnostics include noncontrast spiral CT of the abdomen and pelvis or ultrasound to detect the stone, as well as urinalysis to assess for concomitant urinary tract infection and serum BUN/creatinine to evaluate kidney function. Urinary stones are most commonly composed of calcium oxalate. Less common stones are made up of uric acid, struvite (due to infection with urease-producing bacteria), calcium phosphate, or cystine.
      Small uncomplicated stones without concurrent infection or severe dilation of the urinary tract may be managed conservatively with hydration and analgesics to promote spontaneous stone passage. When the spontaneous passage appears unlikely or fails due to the stone’s size or location, first-line urological interventions include shock wave lithotripsy, ureterorenoscopy, and, in case of large kidney stones, percutaneous nephrolithotomy. The most important preventive measure is adequate hydration.
      Collected stones should be sent for chemical analysis because in many cases specific lifestyle guidance, diet changes, and/or initiation of medical treatment (e.g., thiazide diuretics, urine alkalinisation) can prevent future stone formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 60-year-old female with a recent history of MI, complained of exertional dyspnoea....

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old female with a recent history of MI, complained of exertional dyspnoea. On examination there was a third heart sound. ECG showed ST elevations in leads V1 to V4. Which of the following is the most probable reason for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Left ventricular aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Electrocardiography is characterized by ST elevation that persists several weeks after an acute MI. The features of heart failure (exertional dyspnoea and third or fourth heart sound) favours the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old male presents to the emergency with acute onset breathlessness. He underwent...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male presents to the emergency with acute onset breathlessness. He underwent a total hip replacement 7 days back. On examination, the JVP is raised. Which other investigation would be most helpful in leading to an accurate diagnosis?

      Your Answer: CTPA

      Explanation:

      The most pertinent diagnosis suspected in this case would be a pulmonary embolism considering the recent surgical history and acute onset of breathlessness. A CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is a medical diagnostic test that employs computed tomography (CT) angiography to obtain an image of the pulmonary arteries. Its main use is to diagnose pulmonary embolism (PE).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An elderly man presents with complaints of a chronic cough with haemoptysis and...

    Correct

    • An elderly man presents with complaints of a chronic cough with haemoptysis and night sweats on a few nights per week for the past four months. He is known to smoke 12 cigarettes per day and he had previously undergone treatment for Tuberculosis seven years ago.

      His blood pressure was found to be 143/96 mmHg and he is mildly pyrexial 37.5°C. Evidence of consolidation affecting the right upper lobe was also found.

      Investigations;
       
      Hb 11.9 g/dl
      WCC 11.1 x109/l
      PLT 190 x109/l
      Na+ 138 mmol/l
      K+ 4.8 mmol/l
      Creatinine 105 μmol/l
      CXR Right upper lobe cavitating lesion
      Aspergillus precipitins positive

      Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aspergilloma

      Explanation:

      An aspergilloma is a fungus ball (mycetoma) that develops in a pre-existing cavity in the lung parenchyma. Underlying causes of the cavitary disease may include treated tuberculosis or other necrotizing infection, sarcoidosis, cystic fibrosis, and emphysematous bullae. The ball of fungus may move within the cavity but does not invade the cavity wall. Aspergilloma may manifest as an asymptomatic radiographic abnormality in a patient with pre-existing cavitary lung disease due to sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, or other necrotizing pulmonary processes. In patients with HIV disease, aspergilloma may occur in cystic areas resulting from prior Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. Of patients with aspergilloma, 40-60% experience haemoptysis, which may be massive and life threatening. Less commonly, aspergilloma may cause cough and fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      44
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which one of the following statements regarding interleukin 1 (IL-1) is true? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding interleukin 1 (IL-1) is true?

      Your Answer: It is released mainly by macrophages/monocytes

      Explanation:

      Interleukin 1 alpha and interleukin 1 beta (IL1 alpha and IL1 beta) are cytokines that participate in the regulation of immune responses, inflammatory reactions, and hematopoiesis. It is secreted mainly by macrophages and monocytes and acts as a costimulator of T cell and B cell proliferation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune System
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 42-year-old male arrives at the clinic due to cough and haemoptysis. Examination...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old male arrives at the clinic due to cough and haemoptysis. Examination shows nasal mucosal ulceration. The doctor suspects Wegener's granulomatosis. Which anatomical area would be most commonly involved in this condition?

      Your Answer: Lungs

      Explanation:

      Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA, previously known as Wegener’s granulomatosis) is a systemic vasculitis that affects both small and medium-sized vessels. Patients typically initially suffer from a limited form that may consist of constitutional symptoms and localized manifestations such as chronic sinusitis, rhinitis, otitis media, ocular conditions. In later stages, more serious manifestations may arise, including pulmonary complications and glomerulonephritis, although the skin, eyes, and heart may also be involved but these lesions are less common.
      Diagnosis is based on laboratory testing (positive for PR3-ANCA/c-ANCA), imaging, and biopsy of affected organs, which demonstrate necrotizing granulomatous inflammation. GPA is treated with immunosuppressive drugs, typically consisting of glucocorticoids combined with methotrexate, cyclophosphamide, or rituximab. Relapses are common and the following systems are affected: Lower respiratory tract (95% of cases), renal involvement (80% of cases), skin lesions (45% of cases), ocular involvement (45% of cases) and cardiac involvement (33% of cases).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Patients on digoxin therapy are required to receive an initially higher dose of...

    Incorrect

    • Patients on digoxin therapy are required to receive an initially higher dose of the drug, in order to amplify the effect of the treatment. Which of the following makes this requirement necessary?

      Your Answer: Volume of distribution

      Correct Answer: Half-life

      Explanation:

      A loading dose is required for drugs that are eliminated from the body in a slow, progressive manner. Half-life is the indicator showing if a drug has a fast, intermediate or slow elimination rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      47.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by a general surgeon....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by a general surgeon. She has undergone mastectomy for carcinoma of the right breast.

      Out of the following, which factor is associated with a poor prognosis in patients with breast cancer?

      Your Answer: Young age

      Explanation:

      Poor prognostic factors for breast cancer include:
      1. Young age (<40 years)
      2. Premenopausal at the time of diagnosis
      3. Increased tumour size
      4. High-grade tumour
      5. Oestrogen and progesterone receptor-negative tumour
      6. Positive lymph node status

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 15-year-old girl presents with vomiting and her investigations show:

    Sodium 115 mmol/L (137-144)
    Potassium...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with vomiting and her investigations show:

      Sodium 115 mmol/L (137-144)
      Potassium 3.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Urea 2.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Urine sodium 2 mmol/L
      Urine osmolality 750 mosmol/kg (350-1000)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Bulimia nervosa. A young girl with a low body mass contributes to the low urea. Hypokalaemia and hyponatraemia are due to vomiting. Her urine sodium is also low.
      – In Addison’s diseases, there are low levels of sodium and high levels of potassium in the blood. In acute adrenal crisis: The most consistent finding is elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine. Urinary and sweat sodium also may be elevated.
      – In Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH) there is hyponatremia with corresponding hypo-osmolality, continued renal excretion of sodium, urine less than maximally dilute and absence of clinical evidence of volume depletion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 45-year-old male complains of angina pain. Which of the following features on...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male complains of angina pain. Which of the following features on exercise testing would have the strongest predictive value for ischaemic heart disease?

      Your Answer: Down sloping ST depression of 1 mm in stage 3 of the Bruce protocol

      Correct Answer: Decline in systolic BP by 20 mmHg in stage 1 of the Bruce protocol

      Explanation:

      The classic criteria for visual interpretation of positive stress test findings include the following:J point (the junction of the point of onset of the ST-T wave; it is normally at or near the isoelectric baseline of the ECG), ST80 (the point that is 80 msec from the J point), depression of 0.1 mV (1 mm) or more and ST-segment slope within the range of ± 1 mV/sec in 3 consecutive beats

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 48-year-old chronic smoker who smokes 20 cigarettes per day, presented with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old chronic smoker who smokes 20 cigarettes per day, presented with a persistent cough, wheezing and difficulty in breathing. He was treated with oxygen but the symptoms did not improve. Which of the following is the next step?

      Your Answer: Salbutamol

      Correct Answer: Check ABG

      Explanation:

      The history is suggestive of a COPD exacerbation. As he is not responding to oxygen, an ABG should be performed to assess the level of hypoxaemia and then a decision about further management can be made. A CXR and salbutamol are also important in the acute management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - High titre of which of the following antibodies is not considered diagnostic for...

    Correct

    • High titre of which of the following antibodies is not considered diagnostic for the mentioned disease?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid factor in rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of RA is mainly based on clinical features (e.g., morning stiffness, symmetrical joint swelling) and laboratory tests (e.g., anti-CCP). Rheumatoid factor is not very specific for this disease and hence has low reliability. X-ray findings (e.g., soft tissue swelling or joint space narrowing) occur late in the disease and are therefore not typically used for diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the oncologist clinic for further investigations. She...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the oncologist clinic for further investigations. She has experienced fever, sometimes glandular and night sweats. Clinical examination reveals lymphadenopathy and a biopsy is performed. The biopsy reveals the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, confirming what was suspected to be a Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which cell surface marker is associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: CD15

      Explanation:

      The CD15 antigen, also known as Lewis (hapten)X, serves as an immuno-phenotypic marker for Reed-Sternberg cells and its expression has diagnostic, but also prognostic significance in Hodgkin Lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old male presents to the emergency after being involved in a horrific...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old male presents to the emergency after being involved in a horrific fire incident at home with 55% burns over is trunk, back and arms. He has an episode of 300ml of hematemesis which prompts endoscopy. Endoscopy reveals several ulcers in the stomach. How would you manage this patient?

      Your Answer: IV PPI

      Explanation:

      Curling’s ulcer is an acute gastric erosion resulting as a complication from severe burns when reduced plasma volume leads to ischemia and cell necrosis (sloughing) of the gastric mucosa. The medical management of patients with stress ulcers is more or less similar to the management of peptic ulcer disease in general. The medication targeting acid peptic disease includes proton pump inhibitors, antihistamines, and ulcer-healing drugs like sucralfate. Patients with overt GI bleeding from ulceration will require endoscopic evaluation and management of the stress ulcers. Endoscopic therapies may include epinephrine injection, electro-cauterization, or clipping of the bleeding vessels. Bleeding ulcers refractory to localized endoscopic treatment may need embolization of the culprit vessel or rarely surgical intervention as a last resort. Surgical interventions are commonly indicated for patients with refractory bleeding despite endoscopic or angiographic treatment or patients with unstable hemodynamics to undergo endoscopic or angiographic procedures. Surgeries are performed as an ultimate life-saving approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 3-year-old boy has been brought to the hospital by his mother with...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old boy has been brought to the hospital by his mother with pallor, lethargy and abdominal enlargement. His mother said she only noticed these symptoms two weeks ago but further questioning reveals that they have been progressively worsening over a longer period of time. The boy was born naturally following an uncomplicated pregnancy. Past and family histories are not significant and the family hasn't been on any vacations recently. However, the mother mentions a metabolic disorder present in the family history but couldn't remember the exact name. Clinical examination reveals generalised pallor, abdominal enlargement, massive splenomegaly and hepatomegaly. The spleen is firm but not tender and there is no icterus or lymphadenopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gaucher's disease

      Explanation:

      Gaucher’s disease is characterized by hepatosplenomegaly, cytopenia, sometimes severe bone involvement and, in certain forms, neurological impairment. The variability in the clinical presentations of GD may be explained by the continuum of phenotypes. However, three major phenotypic presentations can usually be distinguished. Type-1 GD is usually named non-neuronopathic GD; type-2 and type-3 are termed neuronopathic-GD. Gaucher disease (GD, ORPHA355) is a rare, autosomal recessive genetic disorder. It is caused by a deficiency of the lysosomal enzyme, glucocerebrosidase, which leads to an accumulation of its substrate, glucosylceramide, in macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 70-year-old male patient presented with chronic congestive heart failure. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male patient presented with chronic congestive heart failure. Which of the following is the most important factor to consider when prescribing drugs for this patient?

      Your Answer: Administration of spironolactone has no effect on the incidence of sudden cardiac death

      Correct Answer: Administration of a B-blocker reduces the time spent in hospital

      Explanation:

      It is proven that spironolactone has survival benefits and loop diuretics only give symptomatic relief. Beta blockers are however, known to improve exercise tolerance, left ventricular function and reduce symptoms. They also reduce the mortality associated with heart failure. So administration of beta blockers will reduce the time spent in hospital by improving symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      39.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology & Oncology (6/6) 100%
Gastrointestinal System (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular System (1/5) 20%
Emergency & Critical Care (2/3) 67%
Musculoskeletal System (4/4) 100%
Nervous System (1/1) 100%
Endocrine System & Metabolism (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory System (1/3) 33%
Renal System (0/1) 0%
Immune System (1/1) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Passmed