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  • Question 1 - A 40 year old man suffered severe trauma following a MVA. His BP...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old man suffered severe trauma following a MVA. His BP is 72/30 mmhg, heart rate of 142 beats/mins and very feeble pulse. He was transfused 3 units of blood and his BP returned to 100/70 and his heart rate slowed to 90 beats/min. What decreased after transfusion?

      Your Answer: Total peripheral resistance

      Explanation:

      The patient is in hypovolemic shock, he is transfused with blood, this fluid resuscitation will result in a decreased sympathetic discharge and adequate ventricular filling which will result in the decreases TPR with an increased CO and cardiac filling pressures

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following will show decreased hearing when tested by air conduction...

    Correct

    • Which of the following will show decreased hearing when tested by air conduction but normal hearing when tested by bone conduction?

      Your Answer: Fibrosis causing fixation of the ossicles

      Explanation:

      As the cochlea is embedded into bone, the vibrations from the bone are transmitted directly to the fluid in the cochlea. Hence, any damage to the ossicles or tympanic membrane will not show an abnormal result on bone conduction test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      81.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Action potentials are used extensively by the nervous system to communicate between neurones...

    Correct

    • Action potentials are used extensively by the nervous system to communicate between neurones and muscles or glands. What happens during the activation of a nerve cell membrane?

      Your Answer: Sodium ions flow inward

      Explanation:

      During the generation of an action potential, the membrane gets depolarized which cause the voltage gated sodium channels to open and sodium diffuses inside the neuron, resulting in the membrane potential moving towards a positive value. This positive potential will then open the voltage gated potassium channels and cause more K+ to move out decreasing the membrane potential and restoring the membrane potential to its resting value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      46.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 45 year old women has a 4 cm non tender mass in...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old women has a 4 cm non tender mass in her right breast which is fixed to the chest wall. Another 2cm non-tender mass is palpable in the left axilla. Chest x ray reveals multiple nodules ranging from 0.5 - 0.2 cm in both the lungs. What is the stage of her disease?

      Your Answer: T4 N1 M1

      Explanation:

      This woman has an invasive primary tumour mass with axillary node and lung metastases, making this stage T4 N1 M1. Looking at the other stems, T1 N1 M0 signifies a small primary cancer with nodal metastases but no distant metastases; T1 N0 M1 signifies a small primary cancer with no lymph node metastases but with distant metastases; T2 N1 M0 signifies a larger primary cancer with nodal metastases but no distant metastases; and T3 N0 M0 indicates a larger primary cancer with no metastases to either lymph nodes or to distant sites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia; Female Health
      • Pathology
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which muscle is most likely to be affected following an injury to the...

    Correct

    • Which muscle is most likely to be affected following an injury to the thoracodorsal nerve (C6-C8)?

      Your Answer: Latissimus dorsi

      Explanation:

      Latissimus dorsi is a triangular, flat muscle that covers the lumbar region and the lower half of the thoracic region. It is supplied by the sixth, seventh and eighth cervical nerves through the thoracodorsal (long subscapular) nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is a landmark to identify the site of the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a landmark to identify the site of the 2nd costal cartilage?

      Your Answer: Sternal angle

      Explanation:

      The sternal angle is an important part where the second costal cartilage attaches to the sternum. Finding the sternal angle will help in finding the second costal cartilage and intercostal space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What are some of the derivatives of the second pharyngeal arch? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are some of the derivatives of the second pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer: Stylopharyngeus muscle

      Correct Answer: Stylohyoid muscle

      Explanation:

      Also known as the hyoid arch, it forms the side and front of the neck. From its cartilage develops the styloid process, stylohyoid ligament and lesser cornu of the hyoid bone. The muscular derivatives include the muscles of facial expression, stapedius, stylohyoid and the posterior belly of the digastric. All these are innervated by cranial nerve VII but migrate into the area of the mandibular arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which ectopic tissue is usually contained in the Meckel's diverticulum? ...

    Correct

    • Which ectopic tissue is usually contained in the Meckel's diverticulum?

      Your Answer: Gastric

      Explanation:

      The Meckel’s diverticulum is a vestigial remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct. This structure is also referred to as the vitelline and contains two types of ectopic tissue, namely; gastric and pancreatic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which is the correct order of tendons passing from medial to lateral-posterior to...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the correct order of tendons passing from medial to lateral-posterior to the medial malleolus?

      Your Answer: Flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus, posterior tibial

      Correct Answer: Posterior tibial, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus

      Explanation:

      The correct order of structures is the tendon of tibialis posterior, tendon of flexor digitorum longus, posterior tibial artery (and vein), tibial nerve and tendon of flexor hallucis longus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      71.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 27-year old lady presented with dull, abdominal pain and some pain in...

    Correct

    • A 27-year old lady presented with dull, abdominal pain and some pain in her lower limbs. On enquiry, it was revealed that she has been suffering from depression for a few months. Physical examination and chest X-ray were normal. Further investigations revealed serum calcium 3.5 mmol/l, albumin 3.8 g/dl and phosphate 0.65 mmol/l. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid adenoma

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia with hypophosphatemia indicates parathyroid disorder and adenomas are more common than hyperplasia. In this young age group, metastatic disease is unlikely. Solitary adenomas are responsible for 80-85% cases of primary hyperparathyroidism. 10-15% cases are due to parathyroid hyperplasia and carcinomas account for 2-3% cases. Symptoms include bone pain (bones), nephrolithiasis (stones), muscular aches, peptic ulcer disease, pancreatitis (groans), depression (moans), anxiety and other mental disturbances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 50-year old gentleman who was admitted for elective surgery was found to...

    Correct

    • A 50-year old gentleman who was admitted for elective surgery was found to have haemoglobin 9.5 g/dl, white blood cell count of 1.4 × 109/l and a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 134 fl. Which of the following is the likely finding on his peripheral blood smear?

      Your Answer: Hypersegmented neutrophils

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis is megaloblastic anaemia, which also shows the presence of hypersegmented neutrophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 76-year-old woman is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus after a urine test revealed...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old woman is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus after a urine test revealed she has glucosuria. Glucosuria may occur due to inadequate glucose reabsorption at:

      Your Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Glucose is reabsorbed almost 100% via sodium–glucose transport proteins (apical) and GLUT (basolateral) in the proximal convoluted tubule. Glycosuria or glucosuria is a condition of osmotic diuresis typical in those suffering from diabetes mellitus. Due to a lack of insulin, plasma glucose levels are above normal. This leads to saturation of receptors in the kidneys and glycosuria usually at plasma glucose levels above 11 mmol/l. Rarely, glycosuria is due to an intrinsic problem with glucose reabsorption within the kidneys (such as Fanconi syndrome), producing a condition termed renal glycosuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - In which situation is a stretch reflex such as knee jerk likely to...

    Correct

    • In which situation is a stretch reflex such as knee jerk likely to be exaggerated?

      Your Answer: In upper motor neuron lesion

      Explanation:

      A stretch reflex is a monosynaptic reflex that causes muscle contraction in response to stretching within that muscle. The sensory apparatus in a muscle that are sensitive to stretch are the muscle spindles. The patellar (knee jerk) reflex is an example. In upper motor neuron lesions, the stretch reflexes tend to be brisk due to loss of inhibitory signals on gamma neurons through the lateral reticulospinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      69.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which is the site of action of the drug omeprazole? ...

    Correct

    • Which is the site of action of the drug omeprazole?

      Your Answer: H+/K+ ATPase

      Explanation:

      H+/K+-ATPase or ‘proton pump’ located in the canalicular membrane plays a major role in acid secretion. The ATPase here is magnesium-dependent. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor and blocks H+/K+- ATPase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The midgut loop, also called the primary intestinal loop in a developing embryo,...

    Correct

    • The midgut loop, also called the primary intestinal loop in a developing embryo, is formed when the midgut bends around which of the following arteries?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric

      Explanation:

      In a developing foetus, the midgut develops to form most of the intestines. During this development process, the midgut usually bends around the superior mesenteric artery and forms what is referred to as the midgut loop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      59.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The pterion is clinically significant as it marks an area of weakness on...

    Correct

    • The pterion is clinically significant as it marks an area of weakness on the skull. What structure lies beneath it?

      Your Answer: Anterior branches of the middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      The pterion is the area where four bones, the parietal, frontal, greater wing of sphenoid and the squamous part of the temporal bone meet. It overlies the anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery on the internal aspect of the skull. The pterion is the weakest part of the skull. Slight trauma to this region can cause extradural hematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A biopsy is performed on a 67-year-old-man with testicular seminoma; it reveals that...

    Incorrect

    • A biopsy is performed on a 67-year-old-man with testicular seminoma; it reveals that the tumour affects the tunica vaginalis. The tumour stage in this case is:

      Your Answer: T3

      Correct Answer: T2

      Explanation:

      The primary tumour staging for testicular seminoma is as follows, according to AJCC guidelines:

      Tis: intratubular germ cell neoplasia (carcinoma in situ)

      T1: tumour limited to testis/epididymis without vascular or lymphatic invasion; the tumour can invade into the tunica albuginea but not the tunica vaginalis

      T2: tumour limited to testis/epididymis with vascular or lymphatic invasion or tumour extending through the tunica albuginea with involvement of the tunica vaginalis

      T3: tumour invading the spermatic cord, with or without vascular/lymphatic invasion

      T4: tumour invading the scrotum, with or without vascular/lymphatic invasion.

      According to these guidelines, the tumour in this case has a T2 stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A surgeon performing a laparoscopic repair of an inguinal hernia visualizes a loop...

    Correct

    • A surgeon performing a laparoscopic repair of an inguinal hernia visualizes a loop of bowel protruding through the abdominal wall to form a direct inguinal hernia. When this is viewed from the side of the abdomen with a laparoscope, in which region would the hernial sac be?

      Your Answer: Medial inguinal fossa

      Explanation:

      In a direct inguinal hernia, visceral contents exit the abdomen through a weak point in the fascia in the medial inguinal fossa i.e. the area between the medial and lateral umbilical folds. Such a hernia doesn’t pass through the deep inguinal ring or the lateral inguinal fossa. Note that direct hernias can go through the superficial inguinal ring, although rarely. The supravesical fossa, between the median and medial umbilical folds, is formed by a peritoneal reflection from the anterior abdominal wall onto the bladder and the retrovesical fossa is the region behind the urinary bladder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - After a severe asthma attack, a 26-year-old woman is left in a markedly...

    Incorrect

    • After a severe asthma attack, a 26-year-old woman is left in a markedly hypoxic state. In which of the following organs are the arterial beds most likely to be vasoconstricted due to the hypoxia?

      Your Answer: Skeletal muscle

      Correct Answer: Lungs

      Explanation:

      Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction is a local response to hypoxia resulting primarily from constriction of small muscular pulmonary arteries in response to reduced alveolar oxygen tension. This unique response of pulmonary arterioles results in a local adjustment of perfusion to ventilation. This means that if a bronchiole is obstructed, the lack of oxygen causes contraction of the pulmonary vascular smooth muscle in the corresponding area, shunting blood away from the hypoxic region to better-ventilated regions. The purpose of hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction is to distribute blood flow regionally to increase the overall efficiency of gas exchange between air and blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - During cardiac catheterisation, if the blood sample from the catheter shows an oxygen...

    Incorrect

    • During cardiac catheterisation, if the blood sample from the catheter shows an oxygen saturation of 70%, and the pressure ranging from 12 to 24 mm Hg, it implies that the catheter tip is located in the:

      Your Answer: Right atrium

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary artery

      Explanation:

      Normal values for various parameters are as follows:

      Systolic arterial blood pressure (SBP): 90–140 mmHg.

      Diastolic arterial blood pressure: 60–90 mmHg.

      Mean arterial blood pressure (MAP): SBP + (2 × DBP)/3 (normal range: 70-105 mmHg).

      Right atrial pressure (RAP): 2–6 mmHg.

      Systolic right ventricular pressure (RVSP): 15–25 mmHg.

      Diastolic right ventricular pressure (RVDP): 0–8 mmHg.

      Pulmonary artery pressure (PAP): Systolic (PASP) is 15-25 mmHg and Diastolic (PADP) is 8–15 mmHg.

      Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP): 6–12 mmHg.

      Left atrial pressure (LAP): 6–12 mmHg.

      Thus, the given value indicates that the position of catheter tip is likely to be in the pulmonary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      81.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (1/2) 50%
Physiology (6/8) 75%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
General (1/1) 100%
Neoplasia; Female Health (1/1) 100%
Pathology (3/4) 75%
Anatomy (6/8) 75%
Thorax (2/2) 100%
Embryology (1/2) 50%
Lower Limb (0/1) 0%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Abdomen (2/2) 100%
Head & Neck (1/1) 100%
Urology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Passmed