-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 60-year-old man is experiencing severe psychomotor retardation despite being treated with antidepressant medication for his major depressive disorder. What is the correct statement regarding his condition?
Your Answer: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is likely to improve her mood
Explanation:Patients who do not experience any improvement from antidepressant medication may be recommended to undergo ECT. This is particularly relevant for elderly individuals who commonly experience relapse of depressive symptoms and may also have underlying medical conditions such as Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, suicide risk in the elderly should be taken seriously and depression should be properly diagnosed and treated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- History And Mental State
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
Which of the following is not useful in distinguishing between delirium and dementia?
Your Answer: Cognitive impairment
Explanation:Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
What is an example of a drug that acts as an antagonist for NMDA receptors?
Your Answer: Memantine
Explanation:Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.
Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.
Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
What drug is considered to have a lower risk of abuse because it is a prodrug that needs to be activated after being absorbed into the bloodstream?
Your Answer: Lisdexamfetamine
Explanation:ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
What is the term used to describe the rate at which new cases of a disease are appearing, calculated by dividing the number of new cases by the total time that disease-free individuals are observed during a study period?
Your Answer: Incidence rate
Explanation:Measures of Disease Frequency: Incidence and Prevalence
Incidence and prevalence are two important measures of disease frequency. Incidence measures the speed at which new cases of a disease are emerging, while prevalence measures the burden of disease within a population. Cumulative incidence and incidence rate are two types of incidence measures, while point prevalence and period prevalence are two types of prevalence measures.
Cumulative incidence is the average risk of getting a disease over a certain period of time, while incidence rate is a measure of the speed at which new cases are emerging. Prevalence is a proportion and is a measure of the burden of disease within a population. Point prevalence measures the number of cases in a defined population at a specific point in time, while period prevalence measures the number of identified cases during a specified period of time.
It is important to note that prevalence is equal to incidence multiplied by the duration of the condition. In chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence. The incidence rate is stated in units of person-time, while cumulative incidence is always a proportion. When describing cumulative incidence, it is necessary to give the follow-up period over which the risk is estimated. In acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence may be similar, while for conditions such as the common cold, the incidence may be greater than the prevalence.
Incidence is a useful measure to study disease etiology and risk factors, while prevalence is useful for health resource planning. Understanding these measures of disease frequency is important for public health professionals and researchers in order to effectively monitor and address the burden of disease within populations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
What is the frequency of the A allele in a population of 100 diploid individuals, where 30 individuals are heterozygous for allele A and 5 individuals are homozygous for allele A?
Your Answer: 0.2
Explanation:Hardy-Weinberg Principle and Allele Frequency
Allele frequency refers to the proportion of a population that carries a specific variant at a particular gene locus. It can be calculated by dividing the number of individual alleles of a certain type by the total number of alleles in a population. The Hardy-Weinberg Principle states that both allele and genotype frequencies in a population remain constant from generation to generation unless specific disturbing influences are introduced. To remain in equilibrium, five conditions must be met, including no mutations, no gene flow, random mating, a sufficiently large population, and no natural selection. The Hardy-Weinberg Equation is used to predict the frequency of alleles in a population, and it can be used to estimate the carrier frequency of genetic diseases. For example, if the incidence of PKU is one in 10,000 babies, then the carrier frequency in the general population is 1/50. Couples with a previous child with PKU have a 25% chance of having another affected child.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
What is the definition of verbigeration?
Your Answer: Talking past the point
Correct Answer: Meaningless, repetition of words of phrases
Explanation:It is important to differentiate between verbigeration and vorbeirden. Verbigeration involves the senseless repetition of words of phrases, while vorbeirden occurs when a patient comprehends a question but provides an obviously incorrect answer. This phenomenon is commonly observed in Ganser’s syndrome, a type of dissociative psychosis that often affects incarcerated individuals awaiting trial.
– Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
– Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
– These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
– Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A woman undergoes intelligence testing to determine if a learning disability is present. She obtains a Full Scale IQ of 73. Her psychiatrist questions the reliability of the result as they note that the test was normed several decades ago and so the result may overestimate the women's actual ability.
Which phenomenon underpins the psychiatrist's argument?Your Answer: Flynn effect
Explanation:The Dunning-Kruger effect refers to a phenomenon where individuals with limited skills of knowledge tend to overestimate their abilities, leading them to believe they are more competent than they actually are.
The Flynn Effect is the term used to describe the increase in standardised intelligence test scores over time. Research conducted by Flynn showed that IQ scores increased by 13.8 points between 1932 and 1978, which equates to a 0.3-point increase per year of approximately 3 points per decade. More recent studies have also supported the Flynn effect, with IQ score gains observed between 1972 and 2006. This means that an individual is likely to achieve a higher IQ score on an earlier version of a test than on the current version. In fact, the test will overestimate an individual’s IQ score by an average of 0.3 points per year between the year in which the test was normed and the year in which the test was administered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
What is a true statement about the genetics of Huntington's disease?
Your Answer: It is caused by an abnormal number of CAG repeats
Explanation:Huntington’s Disease: Genetics and Pathology
Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. It is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which is located on chromosome 4. The mutation involves an abnormal expansion of a trinucleotide repeat sequence (CAG), which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells.
The severity of the disease and the age of onset are related to the number of CAG repeats. Normally, the CAG sequence is repeated less than 27 times, but in Huntington’s disease, it is repeated many more times. The disease shows anticipation, meaning that it tends to worsen with each successive generation.
The symptoms of Huntington’s disease typically begin in the third of fourth decade of life, but in rare cases, they can appear in childhood of adolescence. The most common symptoms include involuntary movements (chorea), cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances.
The pathological hallmark of Huntington’s disease is the gross bilateral atrophy of the head of the caudate and putamen, which are regions of the brain involved in movement control. The EEG of patients with Huntington’s disease shows a flattened trace, indicating a loss of brain activity.
Macroscopic pathological findings include frontal atrophy, marked atrophy of the caudate and putamen, and enlarged ventricles. Microscopic findings include neuronal loss and gliosis in the cortex, neuronal loss in the striatum, and the presence of inclusion bodies in the neurons of the cortex and striatum.
In conclusion, Huntington’s disease is a devastating genetic disorder that affects the brain and causes a range of motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. The disease is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells. The pathological changes in the brain include atrophy of the caudate and putamen, neuronal loss, and the presence of inclusion bodies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
What stage of sleep do most adults spend the majority of their time in during the night?
Your Answer: Stage 2
Explanation:– Dement and Kleitman (1957) classified sleep into five stages.
– Normal adults spend the majority of their sleep in Stage 2 (55%).
– Non-REM sleep is divided into four stages: Stage 1 (5%), Stage 2 (55%), Stage 3 (5%), and Stage 4 (10%).
– REM sleep is Stage 5 and normal adults spend 25% of their sleep in this stage. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
Which receptor is most likely to cause a feeling of nausea when stimulated?
Your Answer: 5HT-3
Explanation:Serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine, 5-HT) receptors are primarily G protein receptors, except for 5-HT3, which is a ligand-gated receptor. It is important to remember that 5-HT3 is most commonly associated with nausea. Additionally, 5-HT7 is linked to circadian rhythms. The stimulation of 5-HT2 receptors is believed to be responsible for the side effects of insomnia, agitation, and sexual dysfunction that are associated with the use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old male patient is admitted to your inpatient ward after intentionally overdosing on his newly prescribed interferon medication for a neurological condition. During your physical assessment, you shine a penlight into his right eye and observe both pupils constricting. However, shining the light into his left eye does not elicit a response.
Which cranial nerve may be affected by this observation?Your Answer: III
Correct Answer: II
Explanation:The pupils are innervated by both sides of the midbrain and respond to ambient light levels. If there is an optic nerve lesion, the non-damaged nerve becomes dominant and both pupils respond to ambient light from that nerve. A helpful mnemonic for remembering the cranial nerves and their functions is OOOTTAFVGVAH for the nerves and SSMMBMBSBBMM for their functions. To recall the innervation of the extraocular muscles, one can use SO4 LR6. The optic nerve is II, oculomotor is III and supplies all extraocular muscles except for the superior oblique and lateral rectus, trochlear is IV and innervates the superior oblique muscle for depression and intorsion, trigeminal is V and supplies sensory information and muscles of mastication, and abducens is VI and controls the lateral rectus muscle of the eye.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological Examination
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
Which was the initial classification system to incorporate distinct groupings for psychological conditions?
Your Answer: ICD-6
Explanation:The initial release of DSM was in 1952, while ICD-6 was the first edition of ICD or DSM to incorporate classifications for mental illness, which was published in 1948. DSM-5 was the most recent version published in 2013, and ICD-11 is anticipated to be released in 2015.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
A woman is arrested by the police for strangling her husband. She believes he has been replaced by an impostor. Select the appropriate delusional syndrome:
Your Answer: Capgras
Explanation:Types of Delusions
Delusions come in many different forms. It is important to familiarize oneself with these types as they may be tested in an exam. Some of the most common types of delusions include:
– Folie a deux: a shared delusion between two or more people
– Grandiose: belief that one has special powers, beliefs, of purpose
– Hypochondriacal: belief that something is physically wrong with the patient
– Ekbom’s syndrome: belief that one has been infested with insects
– Othello syndrome: belief that a sexual partner is cheating on them
– Capgras delusion: belief that a person close to them has been replaced by a double
– Fregoli delusion: patient identifies a familiar person (usually suspected to be a persecutor) in other people they meet
– Syndrome of subjective doubles: belief that doubles of him/her exist
– Lycanthropy: belief that one has been transformed into an animal
– De Clérambault’s syndrome: false belief that a person is in love with them
– Cotard’s syndrome/nihilistic delusions: belief that they are dead of do not exist
– Referential: belief that others/TV/radio are speaking directly to of about the patient
– Delusional perception: belief that a normal percept (product of perception) has a special meaning
– Pseudocyesis: a condition whereby a woman believes herself to be pregnant when she is not. Objective signs accompany the belief such as abdominal enlargement, menstrual disturbance, apparent foetal movements, nausea, breast changes, and labour pains.Remembering these types of delusions can be helpful in understanding and diagnosing patients with delusional disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman has a history of drug addiction, but has been in recovery for the past year. She is now interested in becoming a bus driver and is undergoing training. What is the most probable outcome when she applies for a Group 2 (lorry/bus) licence through the DVLA?
Your Answer: He will be asked to get another medical report
Correct Answer: He will be refused a vocational licence to drive a lorry/bus
Explanation:The DVLA has guidelines for obtaining a vocational licence for Group 2 entitlement (LGV/PCV), which state that a licence will not be granted if there has been a history of alcohol dependence within the past three years. Alcohol dependence is a condition that develops after repeated alcohol use and includes a strong desire to consume alcohol, difficulty controlling its use, continued use despite harmful consequences, increased tolerance, and sometimes physical withdrawal symptoms. Indicators of alcohol dependence may include a history of withdrawal symptoms, tolerance, detoxification, and/of alcohol-related seizures. For Group 1 entitlement (car, motorcycle), confirmed alcohol dependence requires licence revocation of refusal until a one-year period free from alcohol problems has been achieved. Abstinence and normalization of blood parameters, if relevant, will typically be required.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
Regarding taste threshold and intensity discrimination:
Your Answer: 50% change in concentration of substance tasted is necessary before an intensity difference can be detected
Correct Answer: 30% change in concentration of substance tasted is necessary before an intensity difference can be detected
Explanation:The ability of humans to differentiate differences in intensity of taste is poor. A 30% change in the concentration of the substance being tasted is required before an intensity difference is perceived.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
The patient's use of words is unclear and may indicate disorganized thinking of difficulty expressing themselves. Which of the following best describes this?
Your Answer: Neologism
Explanation:Neologism pertains to the creation of novel terms, while paraphasia involves the replacement of one word with another, such as saying orange instead of banana. Asyndesis, on the other hand, refers to a breakdown in the distinction between different concepts.
Formal Thought Disorders
In formal thought disorders, changes in the speed, coherence, and cogency of thought can be observed from a patient’s speech. These disorders can also be self-reported and may be accompanied by enhanced use of nonverbal language. One possible indication is a lack of an adequate connection between two consecutive thoughts, which is called ‘asyndesis’.
There are several types of formal thought disorders, including inhibited thinking, retarded thinking, circumstantial thinking, restricted thinking, perseverative thinking, rumination, pressured thinking, flight of ideas, tangential thinking, thought blocking, disruption of thought, incoherence/derailment, and neologisms.
Inhibited thinking is about the subjective experience of the patient, who may feel that their thinking process is slowed down of blocked by an inner wall of resistance. Retarded thinking, on the other hand, is about the observed quality of thought as inferred through speech, where the flow of thought processes is slowed down and sluggish.
Circumstantial thinking refers to an inability to separate the essential from the unessential during a conversation without rendering the conversation incoherent. Restricted thinking involves a limited range of thought content, fixation on one particular topic of a small number of topics only, and a stereotyped pattern of thinking.
Perseverative thinking is characterized by the persistent repetition of previously used words, phrases, of details to the point where they become meaningless in the context of the current stage of the interview. Rumination is the endless mental preoccupation with, of excessive concern over, mostly unpleasant thoughts.
Pressured thinking, also known as crowding of thought, is when the patient feels helplessly exposed to the pressures of floods of different ideas of thoughts. Flight of ideas involves an increasing multitude of thoughts and ideas which are no longer firmly guided by clear goal-directed thinking.
Tangential thinking occurs when the patient appears to understand the contents of the questions addressed to them but provides answers which are completely out of context. Thought blocking of disruption of thought refers to sudden disruption of an otherwise normal flow of thought of speech for no obvious reason.
Incoherence of derailment is when the interviewer is unable to establish sensible connections between the patient’s thinking and verbal output, which is sometimes also called derailment. Neologisms involve the formation of new words of usage of words which disregard normal conventions and are generally not easily understandable.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
A 35-year-old male reported experiencing the scent of lavender when he listens to music. What is the most probable explanation for this phenomenon?
Your Answer: Synaesthesia
Explanation:Hallucinations and Illusions
Hallucinations can take on different forms, including reflex hallucinations, auditory hallucinations, and functional hallucinations. Reflex hallucinations occur when a stimulus in one sensory modality produces a hallucination in another. For example, someone may smell oranges when they hear music. Auditory hallucinations, on the other hand, are the presence of auditory experiences in the absence of a true stimulus. Functional hallucinations occur when an external stimulus provokes a hallucination, and the normal perception of the external stimulus and the hallucinatory experience are in the same modality.
In addition to hallucinations, there are also illusions, which involve false perceptions with sensory distortions. Kinaesthetic hallucinations are a type of hallucination that involve bodily movements. Understanding the different types of hallucinations and illusions can help individuals better recognize and manage these experiences.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about microglia?
Your Answer: It constitutes 70% of glial population in brain
Correct Answer: It is mesodermal in origin
Explanation:Glial Cells: The Support System of the Central Nervous System
The central nervous system is composed of two basic cell types: neurons and glial cells. Glial cells, also known as support cells, play a crucial role in maintaining the health and function of neurons. There are several types of glial cells, including macroglia (astrocytes and oligodendrocytes), ependymal cells, and microglia.
Astrocytes are the most abundant type of glial cell and have numerous functions, such as providing structural support, repairing nervous tissue, nourishing neurons, contributing to the blood-brain barrier, and regulating neurotransmission and blood flow. There are two main types of astrocytes: protoplasmic and fibrous.
Oligodendrocytes are responsible for the formation of myelin sheaths, which insulate and protect axons, allowing for faster and more efficient transmission of nerve impulses.
Ependymal cells line the ventricular system and are involved in the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and fluid homeostasis in the brain. Specialized ependymal cells called choroid plexus cells produce CSF.
Microglia are the immune cells of the CNS and play a crucial role in protecting the brain from infection and injury. They also contribute to the maintenance of neuronal health and function.
In summary, glial cells are essential for the proper functioning of the central nervous system. They provide structural support, nourishment, insulation, and immune defense to neurons, ensuring the health and well-being of the brain and spinal cord.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
What is a characteristic of drugs that are eliminated through zero order kinetics?
Your Answer: Zero order reactions follow non-linear pharmacokinetics
Explanation:As the concentration decreases, the half-life of a zero order reaction becomes shorter. This is because zero order kinetics involve constant elimination, meaning that the rate of elimination does not change with increasing concentration. Therefore, as the concentration decreases, there is less drug available to be eliminated at a constant rate, resulting in a shorter half-life.
The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)