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  • Question 1 - A study aimed at assessing a novel proton pump inhibitor (PPI) in aged...

    Incorrect

    • A study aimed at assessing a novel proton pump inhibitor (PPI) in aged patients taking aspirin. The new PPI is prescribed to 120 patients and the already prevalent PPI is given to the 240 members of the control group. In the next 5 years, the instances of upper GI bleed reported in the experimental and control group were 24 and 60 respectively.

      What is the value of absolute risk reduction?

      Your Answer: 10%

      Correct Answer: 5%

      Explanation:

      ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)

      So,

      ARR= (24/120)-(60/240)

      ARR= 0.2-0.25

      ARR= 0.05 (Numerical Value)

      ARR= 5%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following statements is false when considering the electrical safety of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is false when considering the electrical safety of equipment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The low leakage currents limit is 0.01mA for Class I CF

      Explanation:

      There are different classes of electrical equipment that can be classified in the table below:

      Class 1 – provides basic protection only. It must be connected to earth and insulated from the mains supply

      Class II – provides double insulation for all equipment. It does not require an earth.

      Class III – uses safety extra low voltage (SELV) which does not exceed 24 V AC. There is no risk of gross electrocution but risk of microshock exists.

      Type B – All of above with low leakage currents (0.5mA for Class IB, 0.1 mA for Class IIB)

      Type BF – Same as with other equipment but has ‘floating circuit’ which means that the equipment applied to patient is isolated from all its other parts.

      Type CF – Class I or II equipment with ‘floating circuits’ that is considered to be safe for direct connection with the heart. There are extremely low leakage currents (0.05mA for Class I CF and 0.01mA for Class II CF)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 3 - The spinal cord in a neonate terminates at the lower border of: ...

    Incorrect

    • The spinal cord in a neonate terminates at the lower border of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L3

      Explanation:

      The spinal cord and the vertebral canal are as long as each other in early fetal life. The length of the cord increases faster than the growth of the vertebrae during development. By the time of birth, the spinal cord is at the level of the lower border of the 3rd lumbar vertebra, compared to its original position at the level of the 2nd coccygeal vertebra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 4 - Which of the following anaesthetic agent is most potent with the lowest Minimal...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following anaesthetic agent is most potent with the lowest Minimal Alveolar Concentration (MAC)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoflurane

      Explanation:

      The clinical potency of the anaesthetic agent is measured using minimal alveolar concentration(MAC).

      MAC and oil: gas partition coefficient is inversely related. Anaesthetic agent Oil/gas partition coefficient and Minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) is given respectively as

      Desflurane 18 6
      Isoflurane 90 1.2
      Nitrous oxide 1.4 104
      Sevoflurane 53.4 2
      Xenon 1.9 71

      With these data, we can conclude Isoflurane is the most potent with the highest oil/gas partition coefficient of 90 and the lowest MAC of 1.2

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 5 - A 41-year-old man, with symptomatic tracheal compression is scheduled for a thyroidectomy. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old man, with symptomatic tracheal compression is scheduled for a thyroidectomy. He has previous personal history of hyperthyroidism, controlled by a carbimazole prescription.
      He has previously presented to the emergency department with dyspnoea and stridor, for which the surgery is indicated. Prior to his thyroidectomy, excessive bleeding is controlled for by ligation of the superior thyroid artery.
      The superior thyroid artery branches into the superior laryngeal artery which is closely related to a structure which upon injury will cause loss of sensation in the laryngeal mucosa.

      What is the name of this structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The internal laryngeal nerve provides sensory innervation to the laryngeal mucosa, and injury to it will cause loss of sensation.

      The internal laryngeal nerve lies inferior to the piriform recess mucous membrane, placing it at high risk of irritation or damage by objects which become lodged in the recess.

      The internal laryngeal artery branches off the superior laryngeal artery accompanied by the superior laryngeal nerve, inferior to the thyroid artery which branches off the superior thyroid artery close to its bifurcation from the external carotid artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 6 - Calculation of the left ventricular ejection fraction is determined by which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Calculation of the left ventricular ejection fraction is determined by which of the following equations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

      Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

      Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

      Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
      Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
      -a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
      -increased stroke volume

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 7 - With a 10-day history of severe vomiting, a 71-year-old man with a gastric...

    Incorrect

    • With a 10-day history of severe vomiting, a 71-year-old man with a gastric outlet obstruction is admitted to the surgical ward.

      The serum biochemical results listed below are available:

      Sodium 128 mmol/L (137-144)
      Potassium 2.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Chloride 50 mmol/L (95-107)
      Urea 12 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Creatinine 180 µmol/L (60-110)

      Which of the following do you think you are most likely to encounter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The standard base excess will be higher than actual base excess

      Explanation:

      Hydrochloric acid is lost when you vomit for a long time (HCl). As a result, the following can be expected, in varying degrees of severity:

      Hypokalaemia
      Hypochloraemia
      Increased bicarbonate to compensate for chloride loss and metabolic alkalosis

      The alkalosis causes potassium to move from the intracellular to the extracellular compartment at first. Long-term vomiting and dehydration cause potassium to be excreted by the kidneys in order to conserve sodium. Dehydration can cause urea and creatinine levels to rise.

      The actual base excess is always greater than the standard base excess.

      The actual base excess (BE) is a measurement of a base’s contribution to a blood gas picture’s metabolic component. It’s the amount of base that needs to be added to a blood sample to bring the pH back to 7.4 after the respiratory component of a blood gas picture has been corrected (PaCO2 of 40 mmHg or 5.3 kPa). The BE has a normal range of +2 to 2. A large positive BE indicates a severe metabolic alkalosis, while a large negative BE indicates a severe metabolic acidosis. As a result, the actual BE in vitro is unaffected by CO2.

      In vivo, however, standard BE is not independent of pCO2 because blood with haemoglobin acts as a better buffer than total ECF.

      As a result, it is impossible to tell the difference between compensating for a respiratory disorder and compensating for the presence of a primary metabolic disorder.

      The differences between in vitro and in vivo behaviour can be mostly eliminated if the BE is calculated for a haemoglobin concentration of 50 g/L (the ‘effective’ or virtual value of Hb if it was distributed throughout the extracellular space) rather than the actual haemoglobin. Because haemoglobin has a lower buffering capacity, the standard BE is higher than the actual BE. It reflects the BE better in the extracellular space rather than just the intravascular compartment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 8 - Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding an epidural set? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding an epidural set?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 19G Tuohy needles have 0.5 cm markings

      Explanation:

      A paediatric 19G Tuohy catheter is available that is 5cm in length and has 0.5cm markings

      18G Tuohy catheters are generally 9 to 10cm to hub

      Distal end of catheter is angled (15 to 30 degrees) and closed to avoid puncturing the dura

      Epidural mesh are usually 0.2 microns and are used to filter bacteria and viruses to ensure sterility of procedure

      Transparent catheters are 90cm long with diameters depending on gauge size. It has 1cm graduations from 5 to 20cm to ensure they have been inserted amply and removed completely. Distal end is smooth which can be open or closed (with lateral openings)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 9 - A 70-year-old man presents with central crushing chest pain that radiates to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with central crushing chest pain that radiates to the jaw in the emergency department. He has associated symptoms of nausea and diaphoresis.

      A 12 lead ECG is performed. ST-elevation is observed in leads V2-V4. The diagnosis of anteroseptal ST-elevation myocardial infarction is made.

      Which coronary vessel is responsible for this condition and runs in the interventricular septum on the anterior surface of the heart to reach the apex?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left anterior descending artery

      Explanation:

      The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.

      The left main coronary artery branches into:
      1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
      2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septum

      The left anterior descending coronary artery is the largest coronary artery. It courses anterior to the interventricular septum in the anterior interventricular groove, extending from the base of the heart to its apex. Around the apex, the LAD anastomosis with the terminal branches of the posterior descending artery (branch of the right coronary artery).
      Atherosclerosis or thrombotic occlusion of LAD causes myocardial infarction in large areas of the anterior, septal, and apical portions of the heart muscle. It can lead to a serious deterioration in heart performance.

      Occlusion of the LAD causes anteroseptal myocardial infarction, which is evident on the ECG with changes in leads V1-V4. Occlusion of the left circumflex artery causes lateral, posterior, or anterolateral MI. However, as it does not run towards the apex in the interventricular septum of the heart, it is not the correct answer for this question.

      The right coronary artery branches into:
      1. Right marginal artery
      2. Posterior descending artery

      The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. Occlusion of the right coronary artery causes inferior MI, which is indicated on ECG with changes in leads II, III, and aVF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 10 - Which of the following anaesthetic agents is most suitable for inhalational induction in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following anaesthetic agents is most suitable for inhalational induction in an 8-year-old child for inhalational induction of anaesthesia before routine surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sevoflurane at 4%

      Explanation:

      The ideal agent for this case should have low blood: gas coefficient, pleasant smell, and high oil: gas coefficient (potent with a low Minimum alveolar coefficient (MAC)). Among the given options, Sevoflurane is perfect with 0.692 blood: gas partition coefficient and is low pungency, and is sweet.

      Other drugs with their blood: gas partition coefficient and their smell are given as:
      Blood/gas partition coefficient MAC Smell
      Enflurane 1.8 1.68 Pungent, ethereal
      Desflurane 0.42 7 Pungent, ethereal
      Halothane 2.54 0.71 Sweet
      Isoflurane 1.4 1.15 Pungent, ethereal

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 11 - Which structure passes through the foramen magnum? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure passes through the foramen magnum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spinal roots of the accessory nerve

      Explanation:

      The structures that pass through the foramen magnum are:

      Meningeal lymphatics
      Spinal cord
      Spinal meninges
      Sympathetic plexus of vertebral arteries
      Vertebral arteries
      Vertebral artery spinal branches
      The spinal roots of the accessory nerve.

      The jugular foramen contains the vagus nerve, the accessory nerve and glossopharyngeal nerve.

      The vertebral veins does not pass into the skull.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 12 - Which of the following options will likely play a major role in falling...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following options will likely play a major role in falling coronary blood flow?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intracoronary artery infusion of endothelin-1

      Explanation:

      Endothelin-1 is considered as a powerful coronary vasoconstrictor, produced by the endothelium. It acts to counter the effects of Nitric oxide (NO).
      Neuropeptide-Y, angiotensin1, cocaine, vasopressin, and nicotine are some other coronary vasoconstrictors.

      Chronotrophy and inotrophy occur after the activation of sympathetic nerve fibres, which in turn results in increasing the myocardial oxygen consumption, leading to increased coronary blood flow via local metabolic processes.

      An alpha-receptor mediated coronary vasoconstrictor effect is also initiated that usually competes with vasodilation, resulting in decreased coronary vascular resistance. Some of the other dilators include hydrogen ions, CO2, potassium, and lactic acid. The action of endothelial NO synthase (eNOS) on L-arginine results in the formation of NO. This messenger also plays a vital role in the regulation of coronary blood flow via vasodilation, inhibition of platelet aggression, and decreasing vascular resistance.
      Adenosine is considered as purine nucleoside that forms after the breakdown of adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Adenosine binds to adenosine type 2A (A2A) receptors in coronary vascular smooth muscles. These are coupled to the Gs protein. This mechanism leads to hyperpolarisation of muscle cells, resulting in relaxation and increased coronary blood flow.

      GTN is an veno and arteriolar dilator, which behaves as pro-drug with NO.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 13 - A 63-year old man has palpitations and goes to the emergency room. An...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year old man has palpitations and goes to the emergency room. An ECG shows tall tented T waves, which corresponds to phase 3 of the cardiac action potential.
      The shape of the T wave is as a result of which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repolarisation due to efflux of potassium

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 14 - A 64-year old male has shortness of breath on exertion and presented to...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year old male has shortness of breath on exertion and presented to the cardiology clinic. He has a transthoracic echo performed to help in assessing the function of his heart.
      How can this echo aid in calculating cardiac output?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: (end diastolic LV volume - end systolic LV volume) x heart rate

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

      Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

      Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

      Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
      Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
      -a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
      -increased stroke volume

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Health workers are at increased risks of anaesthetic exposure. Therefore, The Control of...

    Incorrect

    • Health workers are at increased risks of anaesthetic exposure. Therefore, The Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) regulations require measures implemented to assess and control the risks related to this exposure.

      Among the following control measures, which one is most likely to limit potentially harmful exposure to anaesthetic agents within an operating theatre?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Total intravenous anaesthesia (TIVA)

      Explanation:

      Exposure to anaesthetic hazards is one among the occupational exposures in manipulating toxic agents or inhaling toxic gases during anaesthetic practices.

      Toxic gases mainly nitrous oxide, is one of the most gaseous anaesthetic agents that constitutes an important source of pollution. One of the safe and effective technics used in anaesthesia and reducing the amount of pollution is the Total Intravenous Anaesthesia (TIVA) which consists of using opioids in analgesia and propofol for the induction and the maintenance of anaesthesia. It refers to the administration intravenously of an anaesthetic, sedative, and/or tranquilizer. A less polluting but not the best way to get rid of the toxic aesthetic agents is the scavenger system that collects and expels the gas outside the medical environment. Yet, this technique still represents a hazard for the environment and still increase the risk of exposure for the health workers and clinical staff.

      Fume cupboards are also not recommended to use because of their high pollution potency, mainly of the air resulting in a great harm for medical workers.

      Supraglottic airways as well as the Air Changes per Hour technics could be harmful for both patients and health workers, increasing the risks of transmitted diseases, namely nosocomial infections.

      Therefore, the Total Intravenous Anaesthesia technique (TIVA) is most likely to be safe and recommended to use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 16 - Which type of muscle contains the highest amount of mitochondria? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of muscle contains the highest amount of mitochondria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiac muscle

      Explanation:

      Among the types of muscles, cardiac muscles have the greatest number if mitochondria due to the heart energy requirements.

      Approximately 35% of the cardiac muscle volume is due to the mitochondria. While in skeletal and smooth muscles, it comprises 3-8% of the muscle volume.

      Type I muscle fibre has a slow contraction velocity, with a red fibre colour, and predominantly uses oxidative phosphorylation to produce a sustained contraction. It contains more mitochondria and myoglobin than type II, and is often used for endurance training.

      Type II muscle fibre has a fast contraction velocity, a white fibre colour, and predominantly uses anaerobic glycolysis. It has fewer mitochondria and myoglobin, and is often used for weight or resistance training and sprinting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 17 - A 26-year old man is admitted to the high dependency unit following an...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year old man is admitted to the high dependency unit following an external fixation of a pelvic fracture sustained in a road traffic accident earlier in the day. Additionally, he has stable L2/L4 vertebral fractures but no other injuries.

      He is a known intravenous drug abuser currently on 200 mg heroin per day. He has been admitted for observations postop and pain control. He has regular paracetamol and NSAIDs prescribed.

      Which is the most appropriate postoperative pain regimen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PCA morphine alone with background infusion

      Explanation:

      With a history of drug abuse, the patient is likely dependent on and tolerant to opioids. He is also likely to experience significant pain from his injuries. Providing adequate pain relief with regular paracetamol and NSAIDs in combination with a pure opioid agonist while at the same time avoiding occurrence of acute withdrawal syndrome is the goal.

      Administering a baseline dose of opioid corresponding to the patient’s usual opioid use plus an opioid dose required to address the level of pain the patient experience can help prevent opioid withdrawal. The best approach is by empowering the patient to use patient controlled analgesia (PCA). The infusion rate, bolus dose and lock-out time are adjusted accordingly. Using PCA helps in avoiding staff/patient confrontations about dose and dosing interval.

      2.5 mg heroin is equivalent to 3.3 mg morphine. This patient is usually on 200 mg of heroin per 24 hours. The equivalent dose of morphine is 80 × 3.3 =254 mg per 24 hours (11 mg/hour).

      Epidural or spinal opioids might be the best choice for providing a systemic dose of opioids when patients are in remission to avoid withdrawal. Lumbar vertebral fractures is a contraindication to this route of analgesia.

      The long half life of Oral methadone make titration to response difficult. Also, absorption of methadone by the gastrointestinal tract is variable. It is therefore NOT the best choice for acute pain management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 18 - With regards to arterial oxygen content, which of the following contributes most from...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to arterial oxygen content, which of the following contributes most from a quantitative perspective?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobin concentration

      Explanation:

      The amount of oxygen carried by 100 ml of blood is called the arterial oxygen content (CaO2)and is normally 17-24 ml/dL and can be determined by this equation:

      CaO2 = oxygen bound to haemoglobin + oxygen dissolved in plasma

      CaO2 = (1.34 × Hgb × SaO2 × 0.01) + (0.003 × PaO2)

      where:

      1.34 = Huffner’s constant (D) – Huffner’s constant does not change and its magnitude relatively small.
      Hgb is the haemoglobin level in g/dL and SaO2 is the percent oxyhaemoglobin saturation of arterial blood
      PaO2 is (0.0225 = ml of O2 dissolved per 100 ml plasma per kPa, or 0.003 ml per mmHg).

      Quantitatively, the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma is 0.3 mL/dL.

      Henry’s law states that at constant temperature, the amount of gas dissolved at equilibrium in a given quantity of a liquid is proportional to the pressure of the gas in contact with the liquid.

      Given a haemoglobin concentration of 15 g/dL and a SaO2 of 100% and a PaO2 of 13.3 kPa, the amount of oxygen bound to haemoglobin is 20.4 mL/100mL.

      Cardiac output is an important determinant of oxygen delivery but does not influence the oxygen content of blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
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  • Question 19 - A 5-year old male has ingested a peanut and has developed urticaria, vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year old male has ingested a peanut and has developed urticaria, vomiting and hypotension. The pathogenesis of this condition is derived from predominant cells of which cell line?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common myeloid progenitor

      Explanation:

      A is correct. Common myeloid progenitor cells are involved in the anaphylaxis reaction.
      B is incorrect. The common lymphoid lineage gives rise to T-cells, B-cell and NK cells.
      C is incorrect as megakaryocytes give rise to platelets.
      D is incorrect – Neural crest cells give rise to various cells throughout the body, including melanocytes, enterochromaffin cells and Schwann cells. However, they do not give rise to mast cells.
      E is incorrect. Reticulocytes give rise to erythrocytes.

      This is a classic case of anaphylaxis. In this situation, IgE previously raised against antigens (in this case peanut antigen) bind to mast cells, and this causes them to degranulate.
      There is release of vasoactive substances like histamine into the blood, and this is responsible for the symptoms seen. Therefore, the main type of cells involved in the pathogenesis of the disease is mast cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 20 - The fluids with the highest osmolarity is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The fluids with the highest osmolarity is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.45% N. Saline with 5% glucose

      Explanation:

      The concentration of solute particles per litre (mosm/L) = the osmolarity of a solution. Changes in water content, ambient temperature, and pressure affects osmolarity. The osmolarity of any solution can be calculated by adding the concentration of key solutes in it.

      Individual manufacturers of crystalloids and colloids may have different absolute values but they are similar to these.

      0.45% N. Saline with 5% glucose:
      Tonicity – hypertonic
      Osmolarity – 405 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 107

      0.9% N. Saline:
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 308 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 0

      5% Dextrose:
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 253 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 170

      Gelofusine (154 mmol/L Na, 120 mmol/L Cl):
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 274 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 0

      Hartmann’s solution:
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 273 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 9

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 21 - The cardiac tissue type that that has the highest conduction velocity is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The cardiac tissue type that that has the highest conduction velocity is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Purkinje fibres

      Explanation:

      Potassium maintains the resting potential of cardiac myocytes, with depolarization triggered by a rapid influx of sodium ions, and repolarization due to efflux of potassium. A slow influx of calcium is responsible for the longer duration of a cardiac action potential compared with skeletal muscle.

      The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:

      Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
      These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms.

      Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.

      Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
      There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

      Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

      Different sites have different conduction velocities:
      1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

      2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

      3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 22 - A 53-year-old-male is being operated on for a right hemicolectomy. In the procedure,...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old-male is being operated on for a right hemicolectomy. In the procedure, the ileocolic artery is ligated. Which vessel does this artery originate from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The ileocolic artery is the terminal branch of the superior mesenteric artery. It supplies:
      1. terminal ileum
      2. proximal right colon
      3. cecum
      4. appendix (via its branch of the appendicular artery)

      As veins accompany arteries in the mesentery and are lined by lymphatics, high ligation is the norm in cancer resections—the ileocolic artery branches off the SMA near the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 23 - What is the primary purpose of funnel plots? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary purpose of funnel plots?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Demonstrate the existence of publication bias in meta-analyses

      Explanation:

      Funnel plot is essentially a scatterplot of the effect of treatment against a particular measure of study precision. Its primal purpose is to serve as a visual aid and help in detection of bias or systematic heterogenity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 24 - Which statement is false in regards to the Circle of Willis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is false in regards to the Circle of Willis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Majority of blood passing through the vessels mix together

      Explanation:

      There is minimum mixing of blood passing through the vessels.

      The cerebral hemispheres are supplied by arteries that make up the Circle of Willis. The Circle of Willis is formed by the anastomosis of the two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries. It lies in the subarachnoid space within the basal cisterns that surround the optic chiasma and infundibulum.

      Each half of the circle is formed by:
      1. Anterior communicating artery
      2. Anterior cerebral artery
      3. Internal carotid artery
      4. Posterior communicating artery
      5. Posterior cerebral arteries and the termination of the basilar artery

      The circle and its branches supply; the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 25 - Which of the following statement is correct regarding the difference between dabigatran and...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is correct regarding the difference between dabigatran and other anticoagulants?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Competitive thrombin inhibitor blocking both free and bound thrombin

      Explanation:

      Dabigatran template is a prodrug and its active metabolite is a direct thrombin inhibitor. It is a synthetic, reversible, non-peptide thrombin inhibitor. This inhibition of thrombin results in a decrease of fibrin and reduces platelet aggregation.

      Drugs like warfarin act by inhibiting the activation of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. These factors are synthesized by the liver and activated by gamma-carboxylation of glutamate residues with the help of vitamin K. Hydroquinone form of vitamin K is converted to epoxide form in this reaction and regeneration of hydroquinone form by enzyme vitamin K epoxide reductase (VKOR) is required for this activity. Oral anticoagulants prevent this regeneration by inhibiting VKOR, thus vitamin K-dependent factors are not activated. These factors include clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X as well as anti-clotting proteins, protein C and protein S.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 26 - A controlled retrospective study's level of evidence is? ...

    Incorrect

    • A controlled retrospective study's level of evidence is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Level 3

      Explanation:

      Level 1 – High-quality randomised controlled trial with statistically significant difference or no statistically significant difference but narrow confidence intervals (prospective controlled)

      Level 2 – Prospective comparative study (prospective uncontrolled)

      Level 3 – Case-control study, retrospective comparative study (retrospective controlled)

      Level 4 – Case series (retrospective uncontrolled)

      Level 5 – Expert opinion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 27 - The tissue layer in a patient is infiltrated with local anaesthetic (marcaine 0.125%)...

    Incorrect

    • The tissue layer in a patient is infiltrated with local anaesthetic (marcaine 0.125%) with 1 in 120,000 adrenaline as part of an enhanced recovery programme for primary hip replacement surgery. The total volume of solution is 120mL.

      What is the appropriate combination of constituents in the final solution?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline

      Explanation:

      30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline is the correct answer.
      Initial concentration of bupivacaine is 0.5% with a volume of 30mL

      The volume is doubled (60mL) by the addition of 0.9% N. saline (30mls) and the concentration of bupivacaine is halved to (0.25%).

      If the volume is doubled again (120mL) by the addition of further 0.9% N. saline (59mls) the final concentration of bupivacaine is halved again to 0.125%. Total N. saline = 89mls

      The 1 mL of 1 in 1000 adrenaline has also been diluted into the final volume of 120 mL making it a 1 in 120000 concentration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 28 - Which of the following is true regarding correlation coefficient? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding correlation coefficient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It can assume any value between -1 and 1

      Explanation:

      The degree of correlation is summarised by the correlation coefficient (r). This indicates how closely the points lie to a line drawn through the plotted data. In parametric data this is called Pearson’s correlation coefficient and can take any value between -1 to +1. A correlation of -1.0 indicates a perfect negative correlation, and a correlation of 1.0 indicates a perfect positive correlation.

      For example

      r = 1 – strong positive correlation (e.g. systolic blood pressure always increases with age)

      r = 0 – no correlation (e.g. there is no correlation between systolic blood pressure and age)

      r = – 1 – strong negative correlation (e.g. systolic blood pressure always decreases with age)

      Whilst correlation coefficients give information about how one variable may increase or decrease as another variable increases they do not give information about how much the variable will change. They also do not provide information on cause and effect.

      In contrast to the correlation coefficient, linear regression may be used to predict how much one variable changes when a second variable is changed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 29 - Which nerve does NOT pass through the posterior triangle of the neck? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve does NOT pass through the posterior triangle of the neck?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ansa cervicalis

      Explanation:

      The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles on both sides of the neck.

      The posterior triangle has the following boundaries:
      anteriorly – sternocleidomastoid muscle
      posteriorly – trapezius
      roof – investing layer of deep cervical fascia
      floor – prevertebral fascia overlying splenius capitis, levator scapulae, and the scalene muscles

      The contents of the posterior triangle are:
      1. fat
      2. lymph nodes (level V)
      3. accessory nerve
      4. cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus – greater auricular nerve, transverse cervical nerve, lesser occipital nerve, supraclavicular nerve (A major branch of this plexus is the phrenic nerve, which arises from the anterior divisions of spinal nerves C3-C5)
      5. inferior belly of omohyoid
      6. branches of the thyrocervical trunk (transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries)
      7. third part of the subclavian artery
      8. external jugular vein

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 30 - Regarding the Manley MP3 ventilator, which statement is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the Manley MP3 ventilator, which statement is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is a minute volume divider

      Explanation:

      It’s a minute volume divider – True
      The Manley MP3 ventilator is classed as a minute volume divider. The entire fresh gas flow or minute volume is delivered to the patient, having been divided into readily set tidal volumes.

      Can efficiently ventilate patients with poor pulmonary compliance – False
      Ventilating patients with poor pulmonary compliance is not easily achieved, which makes it an unsuitable ventilator for a modern ICU.

      Can generate tidal volume up to 1500ml – False
      It can generate tidal volumes up to 1000 ml (not 1500 ml), and the inflation pressure can be adjusted by sliding a weight along a rail.

      Functions like a Mapleson A system during spontaneous ventilation – False
      The ventilator functions like a Mapleson D breathing system (not Mapleson A) during spontaneous ventilation.

      Has three sets of bellows – False
      The fresh gas flow drives the ventilator which allows rapid detection of gas supply failure. It has two sets of bellows (not three) and three unidirectional valves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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