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  • Question 1 - In the fetal circulation, the cerebral and coronary circulations are preferentially supplied by...

    Incorrect

    • In the fetal circulation, the cerebral and coronary circulations are preferentially supplied by oxygen-rich blood over other organs. This is possible because of which phenomenon?

      Your Answer: The pulmonary vascular resistance is very high and therefore a majority of blood passes from the right side of the heart through the ductus arteriosus

      Correct Answer: Well oxygenated blood from the inferior vena cava is preferentially streamed across the patent foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      During fetal development, blood oxygenated by the placenta flows to the foetus through the umbilical vein, bypasses the fetal liver through the ductus venosus, and returns to the fetal heart through the inferior vena cava.

      Blood returning from the inferior vena cava then enters the right atrium and is preferentially shunted to the left atrium through the patent foramen ovale. Blood in the left atrium is then pumped from the left ventricle to the aorta. The oxygenated blood ejected through the ascending aorta is preferentially directed to the fetal coronary and cerebral circulations.

      Deoxygenated blood returns from the superior vena cava to the right atrium and ventricle to be pumped into the pulmonary artery. Fetal pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR), however, is higher than fetal systemic vascular resistance (SVR); this forces deoxygenated blood to mostly bypass the fetal lungs. This poorly oxygenated blood enters the aorta through the patent ductus arteriosus and mixes with the well-oxygenated blood in the descending aorta. The mixed blood in the descending aorta then returns to the placenta for oxygenation through the two umbilical arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Regarding adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) one of these is true. ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) one of these is true.

      Your Answer: Production is governed by the pituitary

      Correct Answer: Is increased in the maternal plasma in pregnancy

      Explanation:

      ACTH production is stimulated through the secretion of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamic nuclei.

      ACTH secretion has a circadian rhythm. A high level of cortisol in the body stops its production. ACTH is secreted maximally in the morning and concentrations are lowest at midnight.

      ACTH can be expressed in the placenta, the pituitary and other tissues.

      Conditions where ACTH concentrations rise include: stress, disease and pregnancy.

      Glucocorticoids (not mineralocorticoids – aldosterone) switch off ACTH production through a negative feedback loop .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - International colour coding is used on medical gas cylinders. Other characteristics also play...

    Incorrect

    • International colour coding is used on medical gas cylinders. Other characteristics also play a role in determining the gas's identity within a cylinder.

      Which of the following options best describes a cylinder containing analgesics for obstetrics?

      Your Answer: Blue body, blue shoulder, full cylinder; 4400 KPa, single gas, requires a single stage pressure regulator

      Correct Answer: Blue body, blue/white shoulder, full cylinder; 13700 KPa, gas mixture, requires a dual stage pressure regulator

      Explanation:

      The body of the Entonox cylinder is usually blue (occasionally white), with blue and white shoulders. Entonox contains a 50:50 mixture of oxygen and nitrous oxide, with a full cylinder pressure of 13700 KPa (137 bar). The cylinder is equipped with a two-stage pressure regulator for safe operation.

      The cylinder body and shoulder of nitrous oxide are (French) blue.

      In today’s anaesthetic workstations, carbon dioxide cylinders are no longer used.

      The body of an oxygen cylinder is black, with a white shoulder.

      The white Heliox (21 percent oxygen and 79 percent helium) cylinder has a brown and white shoulder. The administration of this gas mixture, which is less dense than air, is used to reduce turbulence (stridor) of inspiratory flow in patients with upper airway obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An emergency appendicectomy is being performed on a 20 year old man. For...

    Correct

    • An emergency appendicectomy is being performed on a 20 year old man. For maintenance of anaesthesia, he is being ventilated using a circle system with a fresh gas flow (FGF) of 1 L/min (air/oxygen and sevoflurane). The trace on the capnograph shows a normal shape.

      The table below demonstrates the changes in the end-tidal and baseline carbon dioxide measurements of the capnograph at 10 and 20 minutes of anaesthesia maintenance.  
      End-tidal CO2: 4.9 kPa vs 8.4kPa (10 minutes vs 20 minutes)
      Baseline end-tidal CO2: 0.2 kPa vs 2.4kPa

      Pulse 100-107 beats per minute, systolic blood pressure 125-133 mmHg and oxygen saturation 98-99%. 

      Which of the following is the single most important immediate course of action?

      Your Answer: Increase the FGF

      Explanation:

      End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring has been an important factor in reducing anaesthesia-related mortality and morbidity. Hypercarbia, or hypercapnia, occurs when levels of CO2 in the blood become abnormally high (Paco2 >45 mm Hg). Hypercarbia is confirmed by arterial blood gas analysis. When using capnography to approximate Paco2, remember that the normal arterial–end-tidal carbon dioxide gradient is roughly 5 mm Hg. Hypercarbia, therefore, occurs when PETco2 is greater than 40 mm Hg.

      The most likely explanation for the changes in capnograph is either exhaustion of the soda lime and a progressive rise in circuit dead space.

      Inspect the soda lime canister for a change in colour of the granules. To overcome soda lime exhaustion, the first step is to increase the fresh gas flow (FGF) (Option A). Then, if need arises, replace the soda lime granules. Other strategies that can work are changing to another circuit or bypassing the soda lime canister, but remember that both these strategies are employed only after increasing FGF first. Exclude other causes of equipment deadspace too.

      There are also other causes for hypercarbia to develop intraoperatively:
      1. Hypoventilation is the most common cause of hypercapnia. A. Inadequate ventilation can occur with spontaneous breathing due to drugs like anaesthetic agents, opioids, residual NMDs, chronic respiratory or neuromuscular disease, cerebrovascular accident.
      B. In controlled ventilation, hypercapnia due to circuit leaks, disconnection or miscalculation of patient’s minute volume.
      2. Rebreathing – Soda lime exhaustion with circle, inadequate fresh gas flow into Mapleson circuits and increased breathing system deadspace.
      3. Endogenous source – Tourniquet release, hypermetabolic states (MH or thyroid storm) and release of vascular clamps.
      4. Exogenous source – Absorption of CO2 from pneumoperitoneum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      43.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is an alpha-blocker? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is an alpha-blocker?

      Your Answer: Clonidine

      Correct Answer: Doxazosin

      Explanation:

      Doxazosin is selective alpha 1 blocker (it causes less tachycardia than a non-selective alpha-blocker) and is the drug of choice for a patient with hypertension and benign hyperplasia of the prostate (BHP).

      The major adverse effect of an alpha-blocker is first-dose hypotension.

      Atenolol and Labetalol are beta blockers. It works by relaxing blood vessels and slowing heart rate to improve blood flow and decrease blood pressure.

      Clonidine is an α2A-adrenergic agonist used to treat high blood pressure, ADHD, drug withdrawal (alcohol, opioids, or nicotine), menopausal flushing, diarrhea, spasticity, and certain pain conditions.

      Methyldopa is a centrally-acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used to manage hypertension alone or in combination with hydrochlorothiazide, and to treat hypertensive crises.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 41-year-old man, with symptomatic tracheal compression is scheduled for a thyroidectomy. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old man, with symptomatic tracheal compression is scheduled for a thyroidectomy. He has previous personal history of hyperthyroidism, controlled by a carbimazole prescription.
      He has previously presented to the emergency department with dyspnoea and stridor, for which the surgery is indicated. Prior to his thyroidectomy, excessive bleeding is controlled for by ligation of the superior thyroid artery.
      The superior thyroid artery branches into the superior laryngeal artery which is closely related to a structure which upon injury will cause loss of sensation in the laryngeal mucosa.

      What is the name of this structure?

      Your Answer: Left recurrent laryngeal

      Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The internal laryngeal nerve provides sensory innervation to the laryngeal mucosa, and injury to it will cause loss of sensation.

      The internal laryngeal nerve lies inferior to the piriform recess mucous membrane, placing it at high risk of irritation or damage by objects which become lodged in the recess.

      The internal laryngeal artery branches off the superior laryngeal artery accompanied by the superior laryngeal nerve, inferior to the thyroid artery which branches off the superior thyroid artery close to its bifurcation from the external carotid artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      148.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 77-year-old man is admitted to hospital for colorectal surgery. He is scheduled...

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old man is admitted to hospital for colorectal surgery. He is scheduled to undergo a preoperative assessment, which includes cardiopulmonary exercise test (CPX).

      During the CPX, his maximum oxygen consumption (VO2 max) is determined to be 2,100 mL/minute. His weight is measured to be 100 kg.

      Calculate the metabolic equivalent (MET) that is the best estimate for his VO2 max.

      Your Answer: 10 METs

      Correct Answer: 6 METs

      Explanation:

      Metabolic equivalent (MET) measures the energy expenditure of an individual.

      It is calculated mathematically by:

      MET = (VO2 max/weight)/3.5 = 21/3.5 = 6 METs

      Where 1 MET = 3.5 mL O2/kg/minute is utilized by the body.

      Note:

      1 MET Eating
      Dressing
      Use toilet
      Walking slowly on level ground at 2-3 mph
      2 METs Playing a musical instrument
      Walking indoors around house
      Light housework
      4 METs Climbing a flight of stairs
      Walking up hill
      Running a short distance
      Heavy housework, scrubbing floors, moving heavy furniture
      Walking on level ground at 4 mph
      Recreational activity, e.g. golf, bowling, dancing, tennis
      6 METs Leisurely swimming
      Leisurely cycling along the flat (8-10 mph)
      8 METs Cycling along the flat (10-14 mph)
      Basketball game
      10 METs Moderate to hard swimming
      Competitive football
      Fast cycling (14-16 mph)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 40-year old gentleman has palpitations and has gone to the emergency department....

    Correct

    • A 40-year old gentleman has palpitations and has gone to the emergency department. He is found to have monomorphic ventricular tachycardia. The resting potential of ventricular monocytes is maintained by which electrolyte?

      Your Answer: Potassium

      Explanation:

      Potassium maintains the resting potential of cardiac myocytes, with depolarization triggered by a rapid influx of sodium ions, and repolarization due to efflux of potassium. A slow influx of calcium is responsible for the longer duration of a cardiac action potential compared with skeletal muscle.

      The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:

      Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
      These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms.

      Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.

      Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
      There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

      Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

      Different sites have different conduction velocities:
      1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

      2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

      3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A doctor has recorded the number of times the patient did not attend...

    Incorrect

    • A doctor has recorded the number of times the patient did not attend (DNA) the clinic for a study over a 10 month period.

      Number of DNAs in 10 Months Number of Patients
      1st Month 0
      2nd Month 3
      3rd Month 1
      4th Month 45
      5th Month 2
      6th Month 0
      7th Month 1
      8th Month 4
      9th Month 4
      10th Month 2

      Which among the following is the most apt way of summarizing mean value?

      Your Answer: Standard deviation

      Correct Answer: Median

      Explanation:

      Variance and standard deviation indicate the dispersion of the plot from mean value and thus are not really helpful in summarizing the mean.

      Range is the difference between maximum and minimum value that is 45 in this case.

      The mean in this case is 6.2 due to the presence of an outlier 45. In the presence of outlier mean can be misleading as it is quite sensitive to skewness in data.

      Mode is the most frequent value. In this case mode has 4 values: 0,1,2,4.

      In case of skewedness, median is the most apt representative of the mean as it is not affected by outliers. In this case since the data set has even values i.e. 10. Median is the average of the 5th & 6th entry after arranging the data in ascending order like that in case of the question (0,0,1,1,2,2,3,4,4,45). This turns out to be 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      43.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Regarding gas laws, which one best explains the ability of a Bourdon gauge...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding gas laws, which one best explains the ability of a Bourdon gauge to measure temperature?

      Your Answer: Boyle's law

      Correct Answer: Charles's law

      Explanation:

      Charles’ Law states that there is a direct correlation between temperature and volume, where pressure and amount gas are constant. As temperature increases, volume also increases.

      Boyle’s Law states that Pressure is inversely proportional to volume, assuming that temperature and amount of gas are constant. As volume increases, pressure decreases. In Dalton’s law of partial pressure, the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressure of the gases in mixture.

      According to Henry’s Law for concentration of dissolved gases, at a constant temperature, the amount of a given gas that dissolves in a given type and volume of liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas in equilibrium with that liquid. An equivalent way of stating the law is that the solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the liquid.

      Gay-Lussac’s Law states that the pressure of a given mass of gas varies directly with the absolute temperature of the gas, when the volume is kept constant. This law is very similar to Charles’ Law, with the only difference being the type of container. Whereas the container in a Charles’ Law experiment is flexible, it is rigid in a Gay-Lussac’s Law experiment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The thyroid gland: ...

    Incorrect

    • The thyroid gland:

      Your Answer: Normally weighs 100 grams

      Correct Answer: Internalises iodine through active transport

      Explanation:

      The thyroid gland is a gland shaped like a butterfly which lies at the base of the anterior neck. It controls metabolism using hormone secretion.

      Iodine is extremely important for the synthesis of hormones within the thyroid. It is internalised into the thyroid follicular cells via the sodium/iodide symporter (NIS).

      The parathyroid glands are found posterior to the thyroid gland, with the recurrent laryngeal nerves running posteromedially.

      The expected weight of a normal thyroid gland is about 30 grams.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following is a correct match for reflex and their root...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a correct match for reflex and their root value?

      Your Answer: Cremasteric reflex: T6/T7

      Correct Answer: Knee reflex: L3/L4

      Explanation:

      Reflexes are a routine part of clinical examination. Hyperreflexia (abnormally brisk reflexes) is the sign of upper motor neuron damage whereas diminished or absent jerks are most commonly due to lower motor neuron lesions. Reflexes may be Monosynaptic (deep tendon reflexes) or polysynaptic (superficial reflexes)

      Here are deep tendon reflexes with their nerve root
      Biceps = C5, C6
      Supinator (Brachioradialis) = C5, C6
      Triceps = C6, C7
      Knee reflex = L3,L4
      Ankle reflex = S1

      Polysynaptic superficial reflexes with their nerve root are listed below
      Planter response = S1-2
      Abdominal reflexes = T8-12
      Cremasteric reflex = L1-2

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following derived SI units is correctly expressed as their base...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following derived SI units is correctly expressed as their base units?

      Your Answer: Newton: m2.kg.s-2

      Correct Answer: Volt: m2.kg.s-3.A-1

      Explanation:

      The following units are derived SI units of measurement.

      Energy or work: kg.m2.s-2
      The Joule (J) is the energy transferred to an object when a force of one newton acts on that object in the direction of its motion through a distance of one meter or N.m.

      Power: kg.m2.s-3
      The Watt (W) = rate of transfer of energy or Joule per second J/s.

      Force: kg.m.s-2
      One Newton (N) which is the international unit of measure for force = 1 kilogram meter per second squared. 1 Newton of force is the force required to accelerate an object with a mass of 1 kilogram 1 meter per second per second.

      Volt: kg.m2.s-3.A-1
      The volt (V) is defined as the potential difference across a conductor when a current of one ampere dissipates one watt of power or W/A.

      Pressure: kg.m-1.s-2
      A pascal (Pa) is force per unit area or N/m2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A young male is undergoing inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the surgeons...

    Incorrect

    • A young male is undergoing inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the surgeons approach the inguinal canal and expose the superficial inguinal ring.

      Which structure forms the lateral edge of the superficial inguinal ring?

      Your Answer: Transversalis fascia

      Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle, just above and lateral to the pubic crest.

      The superficial ring resembles a triangle more than a ring with the base lying on the pubic crest and its apex pointing towards the anterior superior iliac spine. The sides of the triangle are crura of the opening in the external oblique aponeurosis. The lateral crura of the triangle is attached to the pubic tubercle. The medial crura of the triangle is attached to the pubic crest.

      The external oblique aponeurosis forms the anterior wall of the inguinal canal and also the lateral edge of the superficial inguinal ring. The rectus abdominis lies posteromedially, and the transversalis posterior to this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      98.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which medical gas cylinders have the correct colour codes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which medical gas cylinders have the correct colour codes?

      Your Answer: Air cylinders have a grey body with white shoulders

      Correct Answer: Oxygen cylinders have a black body with white shoulders

      Explanation:

      The following are the colour codes for medical gas cylinders:

      Oxygen cylinder has a dark body with white shoulders.

      Nitrous oxide is French blue. Air encompasses a grey body with dark and white quarters on the shoulders.

      Entonox contains a French blue body with white and blue quarters on the shoulders.

      Carbon dioxide barrels are grey in colour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A radical neck dissection is being performed. The ENT surgeon wishes to expose...

    Correct

    • A radical neck dissection is being performed. The ENT surgeon wishes to expose the external carotid artery fully. He inserts a self-retaining retractor close to the origin of the external carotid artery.

      What structure lies posterolaterally to the external carotid at this point?

      Your Answer: Internal carotid artery

      Explanation:

      External carotid artery originates at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage. It ascends and lies anterior to the internal carotid arteries and posterior to the posterior belly of the digastric muscle and stylohyoid muscle.

      The external carotid artery has eight important branches:
      Anterior surface:
      1. Superior thyroid artery (first branch)
      2. Lingual artery
      3. Facial artery
      Medial branch
      4. Ascending pharyngeal artery
      Posterior branches
      5. Occipital artery
      6. Posterior auricular artery
      Terminal branches
      7. Maxillary artery
      8. Superficial temporal artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 72-year old man has presented to the emergency room with sweating, nausea,...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year old man has presented to the emergency room with sweating, nausea, chest pain, and an ECG that shows ST elevation. The ST segment of the ECG corresponds to a period of slow calcium influx in the cardiac action potential.
      This equates to which phase in the cardiac action potential?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phase 2

      Explanation:

      Understanding of the cardiac action potential helps with the understanding of the ECG which measures the electrical activity of the heart. This is reflected in its waveform.
      The rapid depolarisation phase is reflected in the QRS complex. After this phase comes the plateau phase which is represented by the ST segment. Lastly, the T wave shows repolarisation, phase 3.

      The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
      Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
      These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms

      Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium. (ST segment)

      Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium. (T wave)

      Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
      There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

      Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

      Different sites have different conduction velocities:
      1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

      2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

      3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Regarding the use of soda lime as part of a modern circle system...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the use of soda lime as part of a modern circle system with a vaporiser outside the circuit (VOC), which of the following is its most deleterious consequence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbon monoxide formation

      Explanation:

      When using dry soda lime for VOCs, very high amounts of carbon monoxide may be produced, regardless of the inhalational anaesthetic agent used. The carbon monoxide produced is sufficient enough to cause cytotoxic and anaemic hypoxia. To prevent this, soda lime canisters are shaken well to even out the packing of granules. This can help to evenly distribute gas flow for proper CO2 absorption and ventilation.

      Compound A is formed when dry soda lime, or soda lime in high temperature, reacts with the inhalational anaesthetic Sevoflurane. Animal studies have shown renal toxicity in rats, but renal adverse effects in humans are yet to be observed.

      When monitors are not employed with VOCs, deleterious effects are not for certain. However, monitors not employed with vaporiser inside the circuit (VIC) can lead to significant adverse events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A current flows through a simple electric circuit.

    Which of the following electrical component...

    Incorrect

    • A current flows through a simple electric circuit.

      Which of the following electrical component configurations has the greatest potential difference?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Two 5 ohm resistors in series with a passing current of 10 ampere

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Obeying Boyle's law and Charles's law is a characteristic feature of an ideal...

    Incorrect

    • Obeying Boyle's law and Charles's law is a characteristic feature of an ideal gas.

      The gas which is most ideal out of the following options is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Helium

      Explanation:

      The ideal gas equation makes the following assumptions:

      The gas particles have a small volume in comparison to the volume occupied by the gas.
      Between the gas particles, there are no forces of interaction.
      Individual gas particle collisions, as well as gas particle collisions with container walls, are elastic, meaning momentum is conserved.
      PV = nRT
      Where:

      P = pressure
      V = volume
      n = moles of gas
      T = temperature
      R = universal gas constant

      Helium is a monoatomic gas with a small helium atom. The attractive forces between helium atoms are small because the helium atom is spherical and has no dipole moment. Because helium atoms are spherical, collisions between them approach the ideal state of elasticity.

      Most real gases behave qualitatively like ideal gases at standard temperatures and pressures. When intermolecular forces and molecular size become important, the ideal gas model tends to fail at lower temperatures or higher pressures. It also fails to work with the majority of heavy gases.

      Helium, argon, neon, and xenon are noble or inert gases that behave the most like an ideal gas. Xenon is a noble gas with a much larger atomic size than helium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 55-year-old male is diagnosed with superior vena cava obstruction. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male is diagnosed with superior vena cava obstruction. What is the number of collateral circulations that exist for alternate pathways for venous return?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Four

      Explanation:

      Superior vena cava is the main vein bringing blood back to the heart. It can get partially or completely blocked by various causes, the most common being due to malignant tumours of the mediastinum.

      There are collateral pathways that form in long-standing cases with 60% or more stenosis and continue venous drainage in cases of superior vena obstruction. The collaterals are classified into four as follows:

      1. The azygos-hemiazygos pathway
      Azygos, hemiazygos, intercostal, and lumbar veins.

      2. The internal and external mammary pathway
      internal mammary, superior epigastric, and inferior epigastric veins and superficial veins of the thorax.

      3. The lateral thoracic pathway
      Lateral thoracic, thoracoepigastric, superficial circumflex, long saphenous, and femoral veins to collateralize to the IVC.

      4. The vertebral pathway
      Innominate, vertebral, intercostal, lumbar, and sacral veins to collateralize to the azygos and internal mammary pathways.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which is the most appropriate statement describing the function of flowmeters? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most appropriate statement describing the function of flowmeters?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Constant pressure, variable orifice - Heidbrink flowmeters

      Explanation:

      There are different models of flowmeters determined by the applied pressure and its orifice. For instance, the watersight flowmeter functions through applying variable pressure, and it has a variable orifice. In contrast, the bubble flowmeter is operated using a constant pressure and orifice. Flowmeters such as rotameters, Heidbrink and Peak have a constant pressure but variable orifice. On the other hand, flowmeters including a simple pressure gauge, water depression, and pneumotachograph have a constant orifice but variable pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 74-year old male who has a history of heart failure has an...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year old male who has a history of heart failure has an exacerbation of his symptoms and goes to the ED. An ultrasound scan is done which shows that there is a decrease in his stroke volume. Which of these choices would one expect to increase his stroke volume0

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory inspiration

      Explanation:

      Respiratory inspiration causes a decreased pressure in the thoracic cavity, which in turn causes more blood to flow into the atrium.

      Sitting up decreases venous because of the action of gravity on blood in the venous system.
      Hypotension also decreases venous return.
      A less compliant aorta, like in aortic stenosis increases end systolic left ventricular volume which decreases stroke volume.

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output. Increased vascular resistance impedes the flow of blood back to the heart.

      Increased venous return increases end diastolic LV volume as there is more blood returning to the ventricles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which peripheral nerve of the foot is often utilized to evaluate for neuromuscular...

    Incorrect

    • Which peripheral nerve of the foot is often utilized to evaluate for neuromuscular blockade?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior tibial nerve

      Explanation:

      The posterior tibial nerve lies on the posterior surface of the tibialis posterior and, lower down the leg, on the posterior surface of the tibia. The nerve accompanies the posterior tibial artery and lies at first on its medial side, then crosses posterior to it, and finally lies on its lateral side. The nerve, with the artery, passes behind the medial malleolus, between the tendons of the flexor digitorum longus and the flexor hallucis longus.

      It gives off muscular branches to the soleus, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, and tibialis posterior. A medial calcaneal branches off to supply the skin over the medial surface of the heel, and an articular nerve to supply the ankle joint. Finally, it terminates to become the medial and lateral plantar nerves.

      The saphenous nerve is a branch of the femoral nerve that gives off branches that supply the skin on the posteromedial surface of the leg.

      The sural nerve is a branch of the tibial nerve that supplies the skin on the lower part of the posterolateral surface of the leg.

      The superficial peroneal nerve is one of the terminal branches of the common peroneal nerve. It arises in the substance of the peroneus longus muscle on the lateral side of the neck of the fibular. It ascends between the peroneus longus and brevis muscles, and in the lower part of the leg it becomes cutaneous. Muscular branches of the superficial peroneal nerve supply the peroneus longus and brevis muscles, while medial and lateral cutaneous branches are distributed to the skin on the lower part of the leg and dorsum of the foot. In addition, the cutaneous branches supply the dorsal surfaces of the skin of all the toes, except the adjacent sides of the first and second toes and the lateral side of the little toe.

      The superficial peroneal, sural and saphenous nerves cannot be used to assess neuromuscular blocks since they are sensory nerves.

      The deep peroneal nerve enters the dorsum of the foot by passing deep to the extensor retinacula on the lateral side of the dorsalis pedis artery. It divides into terminal, medial, and lateral branches. The medial branch supplies the skin of the adjacent sides of the big and second toes. The lateral branch supplies the extensor digitorum brevis muscle. Both terminal branches give articular branches to the joints of the foot. This nerve is too deep to use for neuromuscular blockade assessment

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 25 - Which of the following is true about the patellar reflex? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about the patellar reflex?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is abolished immediately after transection of the spinal cord at T6

      Explanation:

      The patellar (knee jerk) reflex is a monosynaptic stretch reflex arising from L2-L4 nerve roots. It occurs after a tap on the patellar tendon which causes the spindles of the quadriceps muscles to stretch.

      The afferent nerve pathway occurred through A gamma fibres.

      Wesphal’s sign refers to a reduction, or absence of the patellar reflex. It is often indicated of a neurological disease affecting the PNS.

      A transection of the spinal cord results in a degree of shock which causes all reflexes to be reduced or completely absent, and required a period of approximately 6 weeks to recover.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 26 - You've been summoned to the recovery room to examine a 28-year-old man who...

    Incorrect

    • You've been summoned to the recovery room to examine a 28-year-old man who has had an inguinal hernia repaired.

      His vital signs are normal, but you notice that he has developed abnormal upper-limb movements due to muscle contractions that cause repetitive twisting movements.

      What do you think is the most likely source for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prochlorperazine

      Explanation:

      Dystonia is characterised by repetitive twisting movements or abnormal postures. They are classified as either primary or secondary.

      Primary dystonia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.
      Secondary dystonia can be caused by focal brain lesions, Parkinson’s disease, or certain medications.

      The following drugs cause the most common drug-induced dystonic reactions:
      Antipsychotics, antiemetics (especially prochlorperazine and metoclopramide), and antidepressants.

      Following the administration of the neuroleptic prochlorperazine, 16 percent of patients experience restlessness (akathisia) and 4% experience dystonia.

      Several published reports have linked the anaesthetics thiopentone, fentanyl, and propofol to opisthotonos and other abnormal neurologic sequelae. Dystonias following a general anaesthetic are uncommon. Tramadol has been linked to serotonin syndrome, while remifentanil has been linked to muscle rigidity.

      The following are some of the risk factors:

      Positive family history
      Male
      Children
      An episode of acute dystonia occurred previously.
      Dopamine receptor (D2) antagonists at high doses and recent cocaine use

      Dystonia is treated in a variety of ways, including:

      Benztropine (as a first-line therapy):

      1-2 mg intravenous injection for adults
      Child: 0.02 mg/kg to 1 mg maximum

      Benzodiazepines are a type of benzodiazepine (second line treatment).

      Midazolam:

      1-2 mg intravenously, or 5-10 mg IV/PO diazepam

      Antihistamines with anticholinergic activity (H1receptor antagonists):

      Promethazine 25-50 mg IV/IM, or diphenhydramine 50 mg IV/IM (1 mg/kg in children) are used when benztropine is not available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 27 - Which of the following can be evaluated by the Delphi method? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can be evaluated by the Delphi method?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Expert consensus

      Explanation:

      The Delphi method relies on expert consensus. This method kicks off with an open ended questionnaire and uses its responses as a survey instrument for the next round in which each of the participants is asked to rate the items that the investigators have summarized on the basis of the data collected in the first round. Any disagreement is further discussed in phases to come on the basis of information obtained from previous phases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 28 - An 80-year-old man has a swelling in his left groin with moderate pain...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man has a swelling in his left groin with moderate pain and discomfort complaints. Diagnosed with an inguinal hernia, he is scheduled for elective surgery to repair the defect.

      Of the following, which nerve runs in the inguinal canal and is at risk of being damaged during surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal nerve

      Explanation:

      The inguinal canal is a passage in the lower anterior abdominal wall just above the inguinal ligament. It transmits the following structures:
      1. genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
      2. ilioinguinal nerve
      3. spermatic cord (males only)
      4. round ligament of the uterus (females only)

      The ilioinguinal is a direct branch of the first lumbar nerve. The ilioinguinal nerve enters the inguinal canal via the abdominal musculature (and not through the deep (internal) inguinal ring) and exits through the superficial (or external) inguinal ring.

      The openings for the other nerves in the answer options are:
      Sciatic nerve – exits the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen
      Obturator nerve – descends into pelvis via the obturator foramen
      Femoral nerve – descends from the abdomen through the pelvis behind the inguinal canal

      The Iliohypogastric nerve also arises from the first lumbar root with the ilioinguinal nerve but pierces the transversus abdominis muscle posteriorly, just above the iliac crest, and continues anteriorly between the transversus abdominis and the internal abdominal oblique muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 29 - With respect to the peripheral nerve stimulators, which one is used to perform...

    Incorrect

    • With respect to the peripheral nerve stimulators, which one is used to perform nerve blocking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The nerve stimulators deliver a stimulus lasting for 1-2 milliseconds (not second) to perform nerve blockage.

      There are just 2 leads (not 3); one for the skin and other for the needle.

      Prior to the administration of the local anaesthesia, a current of 0.25 – 0.5 mA (not 1-2mA) at the frequency of 1-2 Hz is preferred.

      If the needle tip is close to the nerve, muscular contraction could be possible at the lowest possible current.

      Insulated needles have improved the block success rate, as the current is only conducting through needle tip.

      Stimulus to the femoral nerve which is placed in the mid lingual line causes withdrawer of the quadriceps and knee extension, that’s the dancing patella ( not plantar flexion).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 30 - Among the following which one is not a criterion for the assessment of...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following which one is not a criterion for the assessment of causality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sensitivity

      Explanation:

      For establishing a cause effect relationship, following criteria must be met:

      1. Coherence & Consistency

      2. Temporal Precedence

      3. Specificity

      As can be seen, sensitivity (The probability of a positive test) is not among these deciding factors..

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Physiology (0/1) 0%
Pathophysiology (0/2) 0%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (0/4) 0%
Clinical Measurement (0/1) 0%
Physiology And Biochemistry (1/2) 50%
Statistical Methods (0/1) 0%
Basic Physics (0/2) 0%
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