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Question 1
Correct
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A 20 year lady is brought to the A&E following a road accident. She is hypotensive and a CT scan of the abdomen reveals a shattered spleen. An emergency splenectomy is performed where the splenic artery is ligated right at its origin. Which of the following arteries will have a diminished blood flow owing to ligation of the splenic artery at its origin?
Your Answer: Left gastroepiploic
Explanation:Ligation of the splenic artery right at its point of origin should cut off blood flow in its branches. The following are the branches of the splenic artery: pancreatic branches, short gastric branches and left gastroepiploic arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 2
Incorrect
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During laparoscopic surgery to repair a direct inguinal hernia in a 68-year old man, the surgeon asked the registrar to look at the medial inguinal fossa to identify the direct inguinal hernia. To do so, she would have to look at the area that is between the:
Your Answer: Inferior epigastric artery and urachus
Correct Answer: Medial umbilical ligament and inferior epigastric artery
Explanation:The medial umbilical fold is made by the medial umbilical ligament-which is the obliterated portion of the umbilical artery, while the lateral umbilical fold is a fold of peritoneum over the inferior epigastric vessels. The median umbilical fold is a midline structure made by the median umbilical ligament i.e. the obliterated urachus. The medial inguinal fossa is the space on the inner abdominal wall between the medial umbilical fold and the lateral umbilical fold. It is place in the abdominal wall where there is an area of weak fascia i.e. the inguinal triangle through which direct inguinal hernias break through. The lateral inguinal fossa on the other hand is a space lateral to the lateral umbilical fold. Indirect inguinal hernias push through this space.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 3
Correct
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A 30 year old gym coach presented to the surgical out patient clinic with a lump in the inguinal region. He was booked for surgery, during which, the surgeon opened the inguinal region and found a hernial sac with a small segment of intestine projecting through the abdominal wall. It was located just above the inguinal ligament and lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. What type of hernia was this?
Your Answer: An indirect inguinal hernia
Explanation:An indirect inguinal hernia exits the abdominal cavity lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels and enters the inguinal canal through the deep inguinal ring. These are the most common types of hernias often caused by heavy weigh lifting. Direct inguinal hernias exit the abdominal cavity medial to the inferior epigastric vessels through weak fascia.
Congenital inguinal hernias are indirect hernias that occur due to persistence of the processus vaginalis.
Femoral hernias occur when abdominal viscera push through the femoral ring in the femoral canal.
Incisional hernia occurs after surgery when the omentum or organ protrudes through a previous site of incision.
Obturator hernia are a very rare type of hernia where the pelvic or abdominal contents protrude through the obturator foramen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Correct
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Which muscle extends to form the cremasteric muscle?
Your Answer: Internal abdominal oblique muscle
Explanation:The cremasteric muscle is a thin layer of muscle composed of several fasciculi that originate from the middle of the inguinal ligament. At its point of origin the fibres are continuous with the fibres of internal oblique and sometimes with the transversus abdominis. It then passes along the lateral side of the spermatic cord and descends with it through the superficial inguinal ring on the front and sides of the cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 5
Correct
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During a laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair, the surgeon finds an artery in the extraperitoneal connective tissue (preperitoneal fat) that courses vertically and just medial to the bowel as the bowel passes through the abdominal wall. Which artery is this?
Your Answer: Inferior epigastric
Explanation:The inferior epigastric artery comes from the external iliac artery just above the inguinal ligament to curve forward in the subperitoneal tissue and then ascend obliquely along the medial margin of the deep inguinal ring. It continues to ascend between the rectus abdominis and the posterior lamella of its sheath after piercing the fascia transversalis and passing anterior to the linea semicircularis. Finally it gives off numerous branches that anastomose above the umbilicus with the superior epigastric branch of the internal mammary artery and with the lower intercostal arteries. As this artery ascends obliquely upwards from its origin it lies along the lower medial margins of the deep inguinal ring and posterior to the start of the spermatic cord. It is found in the preperitoneal fat of the abdomen lying just superficial to the peritoneum and forms the lateral umbilical fold. Hernias that pass lateral to this are indirect and medial to this, direct hernias.
The deep circumflex artery travels along the iliac crest on the inner surface of the abdominal wall. It is very lateral to the abdominal wall and hernias would pass medial to it.
The superficial circumflex iliac, superficial epigastric, superficial external pudendal arteries are all superficial arteries found in the superficial fascia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A correct statement about the RECTUM:
Your Answer: Its smooth muscle is innervated by somatic nerves
Correct Answer: It is an important anastomotic site for the portal and caval (systemic) venous systems
Explanation:The rectum is part of the gastrointestinal tract that is continuous above with the sigmoid colon and below with the anal canal. It contains both longitudinal and circular smooth muscles. These are supplied by the enteric nervous system. It is about 12 cm long. It has no sacculations comparable with those of the colon. It has three permanent transverse folds called the valves of Houston. The peritoneum is related to the upper two thirds of the rectum only whereas the lower part is not covered by peritoneum. It is supplied by the superior rectal (hemorrhoidal) branch of the inferior mesenteric artery and the median sacral artery that is a direct branch from the abdominal aorta. It is drained by veins that begin as a plexus that surround the anus. These veins form anastomoses with the portal system (portocaval anastomoses).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Correct
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In the human body, veins often run a course parallel to the artery that has the same name. Which of the following listed veins doesn't run parallel to the artery of the same name?
Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric
Explanation:The inferior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric vein don’t run in tandem because the vein is part of the portal venous system-draining into the splenic vein which drains into the hepatic portal vein. The inferior mesenteric artery is a branch of the descending aorta at the level of L3. The inferior mesenteric vein and artery, however, drain the same region i.e. the descending and sigmoid colon and rectum.
Superior epigastric vessels course together and are the continuation of the internal thoracic artery and vein.
Superficial circumflex iliac vessels course together in the superficial fat of the abdominal wall.
Superior rectal vessels are the terminal ends of the inferior mesenteric vessels, located on the posterior surface of the rectum.
The ileocolic artery and vein are branches off the superior mesenteric vessels. Both course in the mesentery, supplying/draining the caecum, appendix, terminal portion of the ileum. The inferior epigastric vessels run together.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Correct
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The oesophagus is an important part of the alimentary canal. It receives blood from various arteries in the body. Which one of the following is an artery that will lead to some level of ischaemia to the oesophagus when ligated?
Your Answer: Left inferior phrenic
Explanation:The oesophagus receives its blood supply from the following arteries: the inferior thyroid branch of the thyrocervical trunk, the descending thoracic aorta, the left gastric branch of the coeliac artery and the from the left inferior phrenic artery of the abdominal aorta. Hence ligation of the left inferior phrenic will lead to ischemia to some portions of the oesophagus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 9
Correct
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Which of the following is a large artery that runs immediately posterior to the stomach?
Your Answer: Splenic
Explanation:The splenic artery is the large artery that would be found running off the posterior wall of the stomach. It is a branch of the coeliac trunk and sends off branches to the pancreas before reaching the spleen. The gastroduodenal artery on the other hand is found inferior to the stomach, posterior to the first portion of the duodenum. The left gastroepiploic artery runs from the left to the right of the greater curvature of the stomach. The common hepatic artery runs on the superior aspect of the lesser curvature of the stomach, and is a branch of the coeliac trunk. The superior mesenteric artery arises from the abdominal aorta just below the junction of the coeliac trunk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 10
Correct
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The surgical registrar is doing an exploratory laparotomy on a 35 year old lady of African descent with tuberculous of the abdomen and suspected perforation. The small bowel is matted due to adhesions and it is difficult to differentiate the ileum from the jejunum. Which of the following features is typical of the jejunum?
Your Answer: It has sparse aggregated lymph nodules
Explanation:The jejunum has a wider diameter, is thicker and more vascularized, hence of a deeper colour compared to the ileum. The valvulae conniventes (circular folds) of its mucous membranes are large and thick and its villi are larger than those in the ileum. The jejunum also has sparse aggregates of lymph nodules and most of its part occupies the umbilical and left iliac regions whilst the ileum is mostly in the umbilical, hypogastric, right iliac and pelvic regions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 11
Correct
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A medical officer was shown an X ray with barium contrast and was asked to distinguish the small from the large bowel. Which of the following features listed is CORRECT?
Your Answer: Circular folds of the mucosa
Explanation:Distinguishing features include:
1. Three strips of longitudinal muscle-taenia coli- on the wall instead of a continuous surrounding longitudinal muscle that is seen in the small intestine
2. The colon has bulges called haustra that are not on the small bowel.
3. The surface of the colon is covered with fatty omental appendages. Both the colon and the small intestine have similar circular smooth muscle layer, serosa. Peyer’s patches are lymphoid tissues that are not visible on X ray with barium contrast.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 12
Correct
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A 70-year old man presents to the surgical out patient clinic with a direct inguinal hernia on the right side. He had undergone and appendicectomy 6 months prior. The examining doctor correlated the development of the hernia to iatrogenic nerve injury that happened during the operation. Which nerve had been injured?
Your Answer: Ilioinguinal
Explanation:Direct inguinal hernias occur because of weakness in the abdominal muscles. The ilioinguinal nerve is important for innervating the muscles of the lower abdominal wall and damage during appendicectomy therefore prevents the man from being able to contract abdominal muscles to pull the falx inguinalis over the weak fascia.
The genitofemoral nerve innervates the cremaster muscle and injury to it would cause inability to elevate the testes.
The subcostal nerve and the ventral primary ramus of T10 innervate the muscles, skin and fascia of the upper abdominal wall.
The iliohypogastric nerve supplies the skin over the upper part of the buttock behind the area supplied by the subcostal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 13
Correct
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Which of the deep fasciae located in the anterolateral abdominal wall form the inguinal ligament?
Your Answer: External abdominal oblique aponeurosis
Explanation:The inguinal ligament is the inferior border of the aponeurosis of the external oblique abdominis and extends from the anterior superior iliac spine to the pubic tubercle from whence it is reflected backward and laterally to attach to the pectineal line and form the lacunar ligament.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Correct
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A construction worker is brought to the A&E after a fall on site. The patient is conscious but complains of inability to feel his legs. A neurological examination reveals that he has no cutaneous sensation from his umbilicus to his toes. What is the likely level of the spinal cord that is injured?
Your Answer: T10
Explanation:The umbilicus has a relatively consistent position in humans and thus serves as an important land mark. The skin around the waist at the level of the umbilicus is supplied by the tenth thoracic spinal nerve (T10 dermatome).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Correct
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An ultrasound report of a 35-year old female patient revealed that she had cancer of the pancreas and presented with subsequent severe obstructive jaundice. In which part of this was woman's pancreas was the tumour most likely located?
Your Answer: Head
Explanation:The pancreas is divided into five parts; the head, body, neck, tail, and the uncinate process. Of the five parts, tumours located at the head of the pancreas in most instances cause obstruction of the common bile duct more often than tumours in the other parts of the pancreas. This is because the common bile duct passes through the head of the pancreas from the gallbladder and the liver (it is formed where the cystic and the hepatic bile duct join) to empty bile into the duodenum. This biliary obstruction leads to accumulation of bile in the liver and a consequent bilirubinaemia (raised levels of blood bilirubin). This results in jaundice. The pancreas is not divided into lobes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 16
Correct
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A 70-year old man had had a large indirect inguinal hernia for 3 years. He presents at the out patient clinic complaining of pain in the scrotum. There is, however, no evidence of obstruction or inflammation. You conclude that the hernial sac is most probably compressing the:
Your Answer: Ilioinguinal nerve
Explanation:The ilioinguinal nerve arises together with the iliohypogastric nerve from the first lumbar nerve to emerge from the lateral border of the psoas major muscle just below the iliohypogastric and passing obliquely across the quadratus lumborum and iliacus muscles. It perforates the transversus abdominis, near the anterior part of the iliac crest and communicates with the iliohypogastric nerve between the internal oblique and the transversus. It then pierces the internal oblique to distribute filaments to it and accompanying the spermatic cord through the subcutaneous inguinal ring, is distributed to the skin of the upper and medial parts of the thigh, the skin over the root of the penis and the upper part of the scrotum in man and to the skin covering the mons pubis and labium majus in the woman. As the ilioinguinal nerve runs through the inguinal canal, it could easily be compressed by a hernial sac.
The femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve provides sensory innervation of the upper medial thigh.
The femoral nerve innervates the compartment of the thigh and also has some cutaneous sensory branches to the thigh.
The iliohypogastric nerve innervates the skin of the lower abdominal wall, upper hip and upper thigh. The subcostal nerve innervates the skin of the anterolateral abdominal wall and the anterior scrotal nerve is a terminal branch of the ilioinguinal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 17
Correct
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Which of the following is a fact worth noting about the development of the spleen?
Your Answer: It develops in the dorsal mesogastrium
Explanation:The spleen in the human embryo arises in week 5 of intrauterine life. It appears as a proliferating mesenchyme above the pancreas. The spleen is one the organs that develops in the dorsal mesogastrium. When the stomach changes its position during development, the spleen is made to move behind the stomach and stays in contact with the left kidney. The spleen is found within the peritoneum of the abdominal cavity thus it is an intraperitoneal organ.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 18
Correct
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A surgeon performing a Whipple's procedure, that involves mobilizing the head of the pancreases, accidentally injured a structure immediately posterior to the neck of the pancrease which bled out. Which structure is most likely to have been injured?
Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The structure immediately posterior to the neck of the pancreas is the superior mesenteric vein. The neck of the pancreas lies anterior to the superior mesenteric vein, which joins with the splenic vein to form the portal vein.
The superior mesenteric artery (SMA) is also located in proximity to the neck of the pancreas. Specifically, the SMA emerges from the abdominal aorta just below the level of the pancreas and passes posterior to the neck of the pancreas before it descends into the mesentery to supply the intestines. Thus, both the superior mesenteric vein and the superior mesenteric artery are key vascular structures related to the posterior aspect of the neck of the pancreas.
Bleeding out would suggest an arterial injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 19
Correct
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A patient gives a history of dull discomfort in her abdomen associated with pain that she points to be on her right shoulder and right scapula. The following organs are most likely to be source of her pain:
Your Answer: Liver, duodenum and gallbladder
Explanation:Referred pain is felt at a point away from the source of the pain or the unpleasant sensation. It arises when a nerve is damaged or compressed at a point but the pain is felt at another site that is the territory of that nerve. Common abdominal causes of referred pain to the shoulder and the shoulder blade are the liver, duodenum and gall bladder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Correct
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Which of the following arteries, if ligated, will most likely affect blood supply to the pancreas?
Your Answer: Superior mesenteric
Explanation:The pancreas is a glandular organ in the body that produces important hormones such as insulin and glucagon. Its blood supply is from branches of the coeliac artery, superior mesenteric artery and the splenic artery. These are the arteries that if ligated, would affect blood supply to the pancreas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 21
Correct
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A 39-year old female patient was diagnosed with a tumour of the left adrenal gland. The tumour, which is metastasizing to the adjacent tissues, has already extended to the left suprarenal vein. If the tumour is still spreading, which of the following veins will most likely be affected after the involvement of the left suprarenal vein?
Your Answer: Left renal vein
Explanation:The suprarenal veins or also known as the veins of Warshaw, are the veins that receive blood from the suprarenal glands. These veins receive blood from the medullary venous plexus and the cortex of the adrenal glands (suprarenal glands). They are two in number – the left and the right suprarenal veins. The right suprarenal vein drains into the inferior vena cava while the left suprarenal vein drains into the left renal vein. This therefore means that in the case of a metastasizing tumour involving the left suprarenal vein, the tumour will most likely extend from the left suprarenal vein to the left renal vein into which it drains.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 22
Correct
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A CT-scan report of a patient with gastric carcinoma shows that the lymph nodes around the coeliac trunk are enlarged. The coeliac trunk:
Your Answer: Gives rise to the splenic, left gastric and common hepatic arteries
Explanation:The coeliac trunk is a branch of the aorta arising just below the aortic hiatus of the diaphragm to pass nearly horizontally forward to divide into 3 large branches i.e. the left gastric, the hepatic and the splenic arteries. Occasionally it may give off one of the inferior phrenic arteries. It is covered by the lesser omentum and on the right side bordered by the right coeliac ganglion and the cardiac end of the stomach. Inferiorly it is bordered by the upper border of the pancreas and splenic vein. The embryonic midgut is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Correct
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Which nerve lies immediately medial to the psoas major muscle?
Your Answer: Obturator
Explanation:The obturator nerve is formed from the ventral divisions of the 2nd, 3rd and 4th lumbar nerves. It courses through the fibres of the psoas major and emerges from the medial border near the pelvic brim.
The iliohypogastric nerve comes from the first lumbar nerve and emerges from the upper part of the lateral border of psoas major.
The ilioinguinal nerve arises with the iliohypogastric nerve from the first lumbar nerve and also emerges from the lateral border of the psoas major muscle.
The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve comes from the posterior division of the 2nd and 3rd lumbar nerves to emerge from the lateral border of the psoas major muscle near its middle.
The femoral nerve also arises from the dorsal divisions, but of the 2nd, 3rd and 4th lumbar nerves and courses through the muscle fibres to emerge at the lower part of the lateral border.
The coccygeal nerve doesn’t arise from the lumbar plexus but from the sacral plexus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 24
Correct
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Which structure holds the duodenojejunal flexure in place?
Your Answer: Suspensory ligament (of Treitz)
Explanation:The duodenum is connected to the diaphragm by the suspensory ligament called the ligament of Treitz. It is a slip of skeletal muscle from the right crus of the diaphragm and a fibromuscular band of smooth muscle from the 3rd and 4th parts of the duodenum. It is an important landmark, used to divide the gastrointestinal tract into the upper and lower parts. Contraction of this ‘ligament’ leads to opening of the duodenojejunal flexure allowing the flow of chyme.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 25
Correct
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The Brunner glands secrete an alkaline product that helps maintain an optimal pH for pancreatic enzyme activity. Where are these glands located?
Your Answer: Submucosa of the duodeneum
Explanation:The Brunner glands are located in the submucosa of the duodenum. These glands are connected to the interstitial lumen by ducts that open into certain crypts. They secrete an alkaline product that protects the duodenal mucosa from the acidic chyme and helps achieve an optimal pH for the enzymes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 26
Correct
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Which is the CORRECT statement regarding the small intestine:
Your Answer: The superior mesenteric artery courses between the body and uncinate process of the pancreas before the artery supplies the jejunum and ileum
Explanation:The small intestine extends from the pylorus to the ileocecal valve where It ends in the large intestine. It is surrounded on the sides and above by the large intestine. It is related anteriorly with the greater omentum and abdominal wall. Is connected to the vertebral column by a fold of peritoneum or otherwise known as the mesentery. Is divided into three portions: the duodenum, jejunum and ileum. The jejunum and ileum are supplied by the superior mesenteric artery that courses between the body and uncinate process of the pancreas before it gives off intestinal branches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 27
Correct
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The vascular structure found on the right side of the fifth lumbar vertebra is?
Your Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:The most likely vascular structure is the inferior vena cava. The inferior vena cava is formed by the joining of the two common iliac arteries, the right and the left iliac artery, at the level of the fifth lumbar vertebra( L5). The inferior vena cava passes along the right side of the vertebral column. It enters the thoracic cavity into the underside of the heart through the caval opening of the diaphragm at the level of the eight thoracic vertebra (T8).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 28
Correct
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A 60-year old patient having a history of cholelithiasis that led to recurrent pain, bloating, nausea and vomiting, was scheduled for surgery to have the gallbladder removed. During the cholecystectomy, the registrar conducting the procedure accidentally punctured a blood vessel that lies immediately posterior to the omental foramen and blood filled the operating field. Which of the following blood vessels was likely punctured?
Your Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:The omental foramen is the pathway that connects the greater peritoneal sac and the lesser peritoneal sac. The omental foramen is bordered posteriorly by the inferior vena cava. This is the blood vessel that would most likely be punctured.
The aorta and its branch, the renal artery, lie postero-lateral to the omental foramen and are deeper than the inferior vena cava hence making them less likely to be injured.
The hepatic portal vein, the hepatic artery and the superior mesenteric vein borders the omental foramen anteriorly and would not be injured by a jab on the posterior border of the omental foramen.
Finally, the splenic artery is found in the splenorenal ligament that borders the omental foramen laterally to the left.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following arteries, that runs on the superior aspect of the first part of the duodenum, forms the lower boundary of the epiploic foramen (also known as the foramen of Winslow)?
Your Answer: Superior pancreaticoduodenal
Correct Answer: Hepatic
Explanation:The epiploic foramen is an important anatomical opening that allows for the communication between the greater peritoneal sac and the lesser peritoneal sac. Its boundaries are formed; superiorly by the caudate lobe of the liver, anteriorly by the hepatoduodenal ligament (containing the components of the portal triad), inferiorly by the first part of the duodenum and posteriorly by the peritoneum covering the inferior vena cava. The superior aspect of the first part of the duodenum, which forms the inferior boundary of the foramen of Winslow, forms the course of the hepatic artery before it ascends to the porta hepatis where it divides into its right and left branches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 30
Correct
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A urologist makes a transverse suprapubic incision to retrieve a stone from the urinary bladder. Which of the following abdominal wall layers will the surgeon NOT traverse?
Your Answer: Posterior rectus sheath
Explanation:Pfannenstiel incision (a transverse suprapubic incision) is made below the arcuate line. Thus, there is no posterior layer of the rectus sheath here, only the transversalis fascia lines the inner layer of the rectus abdominis. The layers traversed include: skin, superficial fascia (fatty and membranous), deep fascia, anterior rectus sheath, rectus abdominis muscle, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal connective tissue and peritoneum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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