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  • Question 1 - Which of the following statements is true regarding enantiomers? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding enantiomers?

      Your Answer: Desflurane is a chiral compound

      Explanation:

      A compound that contains an asymmetric centre (chiral atom or chiral centre) and thus can occur in two non-superimposable mirror-image forms (enantiomers) are called chiral compounds.

      Desflurane, Halothane, and isoflurane are chiral compounds but Sevoflurane is not a chiral compound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding an epidural set? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding an epidural set?

      Your Answer: An 18G Tuohy needle is 8 cm in length

      Correct Answer: 19G Tuohy needles have 0.5 cm markings

      Explanation:

      A paediatric 19G Tuohy catheter is available that is 5cm in length and has 0.5cm markings

      18G Tuohy catheters are generally 9 to 10cm to hub

      Distal end of catheter is angled (15 to 30 degrees) and closed to avoid puncturing the dura

      Epidural mesh are usually 0.2 microns and are used to filter bacteria and viruses to ensure sterility of procedure

      Transparent catheters are 90cm long with diameters depending on gauge size. It has 1cm graduations from 5 to 20cm to ensure they have been inserted amply and removed completely. Distal end is smooth which can be open or closed (with lateral openings)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A cannula is inserted into the cephalic vein of a 30-year-old man. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A cannula is inserted into the cephalic vein of a 30-year-old man. Which of the following structures does the cephalic vein pass through?

      Your Answer: Tendon of biceps

      Correct Answer: Clavipectoral fascia

      Explanation:

      The cephalic vein is one of the primary superficial veins of the upper limb. The superficial group of upper limb veins begin as an irregular dorsal arch on the back of the hand.

      The cephalic vein originates in the anatomical snuffbox from the radial side of the arch and travels laterally up, within the superficial fascia to join the basilic vein via the median cubital vein at the elbow.

      Near the shoulder, it passes between the deltoid and pectoralis major muscles. It pierces the coracoid membrane (continuation of the clavipectoral fascia) to terminate in the axillary vein’s first part.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which statement is true about the autonomic nervous system? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is true about the autonomic nervous system?

      Your Answer: Post ganglionic synapses use Acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter with nicotinic receptors in the parasympathetic system

      Correct Answer: Preganglionic synapse utilise Acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter in both parasympathetic and sympathetic systems

      Explanation:

      With regards to the autonomic nervous system (ANS)

      1. It is not under voluntary control
      2. It uses reflex pathways and different to the somatic nervous system.
      3. The hypothalamus is the central point of integration of the ANS. However, the gut can coordinate some secretions and information from the baroreceptors which are processed in the medulla.

      With regards to the central nervous system (CNS)
      1. There are myelinated preganglionic fibres which lead to the
      ganglion where the nerve cell bodies of the non-myelinated post ganglionic nerves are organised.
      2. From the ganglion, the post ganglionic nerves then lead on to the innervated organ.

      Most organs are under control of both systems although one system normally predominates.

      The nerves of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) originate from the lateral horns of the spinal cord, pass into the anterior primary rami and then pass via the white rami communicates into the ganglia from T1-L2.

      There are short pre-ganglionic and long post ganglionic fibres.
      Pre-ganglionic synapses use acetylcholine (ACh) as a neurotransmitter on nicotinic receptors.
      Post ganglionic synapses uses adrenoceptors with norepinephrine / epinephrine as the neurotransmitter.
      However, in sweat glands, piloerector muscles and few blood vessels, ACh is still used as a neurotransmitter with nicotinic receptors.

      The ganglia form the sympathetic trunk – this is a collection of nerves that begin at the base of the skull and travel 2-3 cm lateral to the vertebrae, extending to the coccyx.

      There are cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral ganglia and visceral sympathetic innervation is by cardiac, coeliac and hypogastric plexi.

      Juxta glomerular apparatus, piloerector muscles and adipose tissue are all organs under sole sympathetic control.

      The PNS has a craniosacral outflow. It causes reduced arousal and cardiovascular stimulation and increases visceral activity.

      The cranial outflow consists of
      1. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) to the eye via the ciliary ganglion,
      2. Facial nerve (CN VII) to the submandibular, sublingual and lacrimal glands via the pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglions
      3. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) to lungs, larynx and tracheobronchial tree via otic ganglion
      4. The vagus nerve (CN X), the largest contributor and carries ¾ of fibres covering innervation of the heart, lungs, larynx, tracheobronchial tree parotid gland and proximal gut to the splenic flexure, liver and pancreas

      The sacral outflow (S2 to S4) innervates the bladder, distal gut and genitalia.

      The PNS has long preganglionic and short post ganglionic fibres.
      Preganglionic synapses, like in the SNS, use ACh as the neuro transmitter with nicotinic receptors.
      Post ganglionic synapses also use ACh as the neurotransmitter but have muscarinic receptors.

      Different types of these muscarinic receptors are present in different organs:
      There are:
      M1 = pupillary constriction, gastric acid secretion stimulation
      M2 = inhibition of cardiac stimulation
      M3 = visceral vasodilation, coronary artery constriction, increased secretions in salivary, lacrimal glands and pancreas
      M4 = brain and adrenal medulla
      M5 = brain

      The lacrimal glands are solely under parasympathetic control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Regarding aldosterone, one of the following is true. ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding aldosterone, one of the following is true.

      Your Answer: Is produced in the zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex

      Correct Answer: Secretion is increased following haematemesis

      Explanation:

      Aldosterone is produced in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex and acts to increase sodium reabsorption via intracellular mineralocorticoid receptors in the distal tubules and collecting ducts of the nephron.

      Its release is stimulated by hypovolaemia, blood loss ,and low plasma sodium and is inhibited by hypertension and increased sodium. It is regulated by the renin-angiotensin system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - During exercise, muscle blood flow can increase by 20 to 50 times.

    Which mechanism...

    Correct

    • During exercise, muscle blood flow can increase by 20 to 50 times.

      Which mechanism is the most important for increased blood flow?

      Your Answer: Local autoregulation

      Explanation:

      Skeletal muscle blood flow is in the range of 1-4 ml/min per 100 g when at rest. Blood flow can reach 50-100 ml/min per 100 g during exercise. With maximal vasodilation, blood flow can increase 20 to 50 times.

      The adrenal medulla releases catecholamines and increases neural sympathetic activity during exercise. Normally, alpha-1 and alpha-2 would cause vasoconstriction in the muscle groups being used, but vasodilatory metabolites override these effects, resulting in a so-called functional sympathectomy. Local hypoxia and hypercarbia, nitric oxide, K+ ions, adenosine, and lactate are some of the stimuli that cause vasodilation.

      However, the splanchnic and cutaneous circulations, which supply inactive muscles, vasoconstrict.

      Sympathetic cholinergic innervation of skeletal muscle arteries is found in some species (such as cats and dogs, but not humans). Vasodilation is induced by stimulating smooth muscle beta-2 adrenoreceptors, but at rest, the alpha-adrenoreceptor effects of adrenaline and noradrenaline predominate. During exercise, the skeletal muscle pump promotes venous emptying, but it does not necessarily increase blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Activation of which of the following GABA A receptor subunit leads to anxiolytic...

    Incorrect

    • Activation of which of the following GABA A receptor subunit leads to anxiolytic effects of Benzodiazepines?

      Your Answer: Gamma

      Correct Answer: Alpha

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is the smallest value of pressure? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the smallest value of pressure?

      Your Answer: 2,066.46 cmH2O

      Correct Answer: 14.69 psi

      Explanation:

      The SI unit of pressure is the pascal (Pa) and it is equal to one newton (N) per square meter (m2) or N/m2.

      1 atmosphere (atm) is the equivalent of:

      101325 Pa760 mmHg
      1.01325 bar
      1033.23 cmH2O.
      14.69 pounds per square inch (psi)
      1013.25 millibar (mbar) or hectopascals (hPa), and

      14.69 psi is equal to one atmosphere. The other values are equal to two atmospheres of pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - International colour coding is used on medical gas cylinders. Other characteristics also play...

    Incorrect

    • International colour coding is used on medical gas cylinders. Other characteristics also play a role in determining the gas's identity within a cylinder.

      Which of the following options best describes a cylinder containing analgesics for obstetrics?

      Your Answer: Black body, white shoulder, full cylinder pressure; 13700 KPa, single gas, requires a single stage pressure regulator

      Correct Answer: Blue body, blue/white shoulder, full cylinder; 13700 KPa, gas mixture, requires a dual stage pressure regulator

      Explanation:

      The body of the Entonox cylinder is usually blue (occasionally white), with blue and white shoulders. Entonox contains a 50:50 mixture of oxygen and nitrous oxide, with a full cylinder pressure of 13700 KPa (137 bar). The cylinder is equipped with a two-stage pressure regulator for safe operation.

      The cylinder body and shoulder of nitrous oxide are (French) blue.

      In today’s anaesthetic workstations, carbon dioxide cylinders are no longer used.

      The body of an oxygen cylinder is black, with a white shoulder.

      The white Heliox (21 percent oxygen and 79 percent helium) cylinder has a brown and white shoulder. The administration of this gas mixture, which is less dense than air, is used to reduce turbulence (stridor) of inspiratory flow in patients with upper airway obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following statements is true regarding Entonox? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding Entonox?

      Your Answer: Consists of a 50:50 mixture by weight of oxygen and nitrous oxide

      Correct Answer: Exists only in gaseous form in a cylinder (under normal working conditions)

      Explanation:

      Entonox is a gas that consists of 50% oxygen and 50% Nitrous oxide. Nitrous oxide is sometimes used for anaesthetics but in this combination, it works as a short-acting painkiller.

      Under normal working conditions, it exists only in gaseous form in a cylinder. The gauge pressure of a full Entonox cylinder is 137 bar.

      Entonox cylinders should be stored horizontally at a temperature above 0 C. At temperatures below this the nitrous oxide component may separate.

      Pseudocritical temperature and pseudocritical pressure can be defined as the molal average critical temperature and pressure of mixture components. In other words, the pseudo-critical temperature is the temperature at which the two gases separate. The pseudo-critical temperature of Entonox is approximately -5.50 C

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An 80-year-old presents to the emergency department with symptoms raising suspicion of mesenteric...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old presents to the emergency department with symptoms raising suspicion of mesenteric ischemia. To diagnose the condition, an angiogram is performed. The radiologist needs to cannulate the coeliac axis from the aorta for the angiogram.

      What vertebral level does the coeliac axis originate from the aorta?



      Your Answer: T8

      Correct Answer: T12

      Explanation:

      Mesenteric ischemia is ischemia of the blood vessels of the intestines. It can be life-threatening especially if the small intestine is involved.

      A critical factor for survival of acute mesenteric ischemia is early diagnosis and intervention. Angiography uses X-ray and contrast dye to image arteries and identify the severity of ischemia or obstruction.

      The celiac axis is the first branch of the abdominal aorta and supplies the entire foregut (mouth to the major duodenal papilla). It arises at the level of vertebra T12. It has three major branches:
      1. Left gastric
      2. Common hepatic
      3. Splenic arteries

      There are some important landmarks of vessels at different levels of vertebrae that need to be memorized.

      T12 – Coeliac trunk

      L1 – Left renal artery

      L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries

      L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery

      L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The action potential in a muscle fibre is initiated by which of these...

    Correct

    • The action potential in a muscle fibre is initiated by which of these ions?

      Your Answer: Sodium ions

      Explanation:

      The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
      Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
      These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms

      Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.

      Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
      There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

      Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

      Different sites have different conduction velocities:
      1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

      2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

      3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - In order to determine if there is any correlation among systolic blood pressure...

    Incorrect

    • In order to determine if there is any correlation among systolic blood pressure and the age of a person.

      Which among the provided options is false regarding the calculation of correlation coefficient, r ?

      Your Answer: A value of r greater than 0 implies a positive correlation between age and systolic blood pressure

      Correct Answer: May be used to predict systolic blood pressure for a given age

      Explanation:

      Correlation doesn’t justify causality. Correlation coefficient gives us an idea whether or not the two parameters provide have any relation of some sort or not i.e. does change in one prompt any change in other? It has nothing to do with predictions. For that purpose linear regression is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      95.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - With regards to the repolarisation phase of the myocardial action potential, which of...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to the repolarisation phase of the myocardial action potential, which of the following is responsible?

      Your Answer: Rapid sodium influx

      Correct Answer: Efflux of potassium

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which statement is correct about the Mapleson anaesthetic breathing circuits? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is correct about the Mapleson anaesthetic breathing circuits?

      Your Answer: Mapleson E is efficient at gas flow equivalent to the patient's minute ventilation

      Correct Answer: Mapleson A is most efficient for spontaneous ventilation

      Explanation:

      Mapleson breathing system (or circuit) analysed five different arrangements of components of the breathing system:
      Mapleson A – It is the most efficient for spontaneous respiration. The flow of fresh gas required is 70-85 ml/kg/min, i.e., approximately 5-6 lit./min fresh gas flow for an average adult.
      Mapleson B and C – inefficient for both SV and PPV; requires gas flow of two to three times minute volume (100 ml/kg/min). Not commonly used but category C may be used for emergency resuscitation.
      Mapleson D – efficient for PPV at gas flow equivalent to patient’s minute volume; the Bain’s circuit is a coaxial version of the Mapleson D
      Mapleson E and F – for paediatric use; requires gas flow at two to three times the patient’s minute volume. The Mapleson F consists of an open-ended reservoir bag (Jackson-Rees modification).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following statements is true regarding the relation to the liver?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding the relation to the liver?

      Your Answer: The caudate lobe is superior to the porta hepatis

      Explanation:

      Ligamentum venosum is an anterior relation of the liver: The ligamentum venosum, the fibrous remnant of the ductus venosus of the fetal circulation, lies posterior to the liver. It lies in the fossa for ductus venosus that separates the caudate lobe and the left lobe of the liver.

      The portal triad contains three important tubes: 1. Proper hepatic artery 2. Hepatic portal vein 3. Bile ductules It also contains lymphatic vessels and a branch of the vagus nerve.

      The bare area of the liver is a large triangular area that is devoid of any peritoneal covering. The bare area is attached directly to the diaphragm by loose connective tissue. This nonperitoneal area is created by a wide separation between the coronary ligaments.

      The porta hepatis is a fissure in the inferior surface of the liver. All the neurovascular structures (except the hepatic veins) and hepatic ducts enter or leave the liver via the porta hepatis. It contains the sympathetic branch to the liver and gallbladder and the parasympathetic, hepatic branch of the vagus nerve. The caudate lobe (segment I) lies in the lesser sac on the inferior surface of the liver between the IVC on the right, the ligamentum venosum on the left, and the porta hepatis in front

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      48.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Intracellular effectors are activated by receptors on the cell surface. These receptors receive...

    Correct

    • Intracellular effectors are activated by receptors on the cell surface. These receptors receive signals that are relayed by second messenger systems.

      In the human body, which second messenger is most abundant?

      Your Answer: Calcium ions

      Explanation:

      Second messengers relay signals to target molecules in the cytoplasm or nucleus when an agonist interacts with a receptor on the cell surface. They also amplify the strength of the signal. The most ubiquitous and abundant second messenger is calcium and it regulates multiple cellular functions in the body.

      These include:
      Muscle contraction (skeletal, smooth and cardiac)
      Exocytosis (neurotransmitter release at synapses and insulin secretion)
      Apoptosis
      Cell adhesion to the extracellular matrix
      Lymphocyte activation
      Biochemical changes mediated by protein kinase C.

      cAMP is either inhibited or stimulated by G proteins.

      The receptors in the body that stimulate G proteins and increase cAMP include:

      Beta (?1, ?2, and ?3)
      Dopamine (D1 and D5)
      Histamine (H2)
      Glucagon
      Vasopressin (V2).

      The second messenger for the action of nitric oxide (NO) and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is cGMP.

      The second messengers for angiotensin and thyroid stimulating hormone are inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - After establishing a cardiopulmonary bypass, the right atrium is opened to repair the...

    Correct

    • After establishing a cardiopulmonary bypass, the right atrium is opened to repair the tricuspid valve.

      Out of the following, which is NOT a part of the right atrium?

      Your Answer: Trabeculae carnae

      Explanation:

      The right atrium receives blood supply from the SVC, IVC, and coronary sinus. It forms the right border of the heart.

      The interior of the right atrium has 5 distinct features:
      1. Sinus venarum – smooth, thin-walled posterior part of the right atrium where the SVC, IVC, and coronary sinus open
      2. Musculi pectinati – an anterior rough, wall of pectinate muscles
      3. Tricuspid valve orifice – the opening through which the right atrium empties blood into the right ventricle
      4. Crista terminalis – separates the rough (musculi pectinati) from the smooth (sinus venarum) internally
      5. Fossa ovalis – a thumbprint size depression in the interatrial septum which is a remnant of the oval foramen and its valve in the foetus

      The trabeculae carneae are irregular muscular elevations that form the interior of the right ventricle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The production of carbon dioxide and water occurs during cellular respiration, which involves...

    Incorrect

    • The production of carbon dioxide and water occurs during cellular respiration, which involves an energy substrate and oxygen. For a patient, the respiratory quotient is calculated as 0.7.

      Which of the following energy substrate combinations is the most likely in this patient's diet?

      Your Answer: High carbohydrate, high fat and low protein

      Correct Answer: Low carbohydrate, high fat and low protein

      Explanation:

      The respiratory quotient (RQ) is the proportion of CO2 produced by the body to O2 consumed per unit of time.

      CO2 produced / O2 consumed = RQ

      CO2 is produced at a rate of 200 mL per minute, while O2 is consumed at a rate of 250 mL per minute. An RQ of around 0.8 is typical for a mixed diet.

      The RQ will change depending on the energy substrates consumed in the diet.

      Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate that contains 99.999 percent carbohydrate and no lipids, proteins, minerals, or vitamins.

      Glucose and other hexose sugars – RQ = 1
      Fats – RQ = 0.7
      Proteins – RQ is 0.9
      Ethyl alcohol – RQ = 0.67

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      36.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which is correct about normal distribution? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is correct about normal distribution?

      Your Answer: 99.7% of values lie within 2 standard deviations of the mean

      Correct Answer: Mean = mode = median

      Explanation:

      The normal distribution is a symmetrical, bell-shaped distribution in which the mean, median and mode are all equal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 39-year old man came to the Out-Patient department for symptoms of gastroesophageal...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year old man came to the Out-Patient department for symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Medical history revealed he is on anti-epileptic medication Phenytoin. His plasma phenytoin levels are maintained between 10-12 mcg/mL (Therapeutic range: 10-20 mcg/mL). He is given a H2 antagonist receptor agent (Cimetidine) for his GERD symptoms.

      Upon follow-up, his plasma phenytoin levels increased to 38 mcg/mL.

      Regarding metabolism and elimination, which of the following best explains the pharmacokinetics of phenytoin at higher plasma levels?

      Your Answer: Log of plasma concentration plotted against time is linear

      Correct Answer: Plasma concentration plotted against time is linear

      Explanation:

      Drug elimination is the termination of drug action, and may involve metabolism into inactive state and excretion out of the body. Duration of drug action is determined by the dose administered and the rate of elimination following the last dose.

      There are two types of elimination: first-order and zero-order elimination.

      In first-order elimination, the rate of elimination is proportionate to the concentration; the concentration decreases exponentially over time. It observes the characteristic half-life elimination, where the concentration decreases by 50% for every half-life.

      In zero-order elimination, the rate of elimination is constant regardless of concentration; the concentration decreases linearly over time. A constant amount of the drug being excreted over time, and it occurs when drugs have saturated their elimination mechanisms.

      Since phenytoin is observed in elevated levels, the elimination mechanisms for it has been saturated and, thus, will have to undergo zero-order elimination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      140.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What structure is most posterior at the porta hepatis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What structure is most posterior at the porta hepatis?

      Your Answer: Cystic artery

      Correct Answer: Portal vein

      Explanation:

      The structures in the porta hepatis from anterior to posterior are:

      The ducts: Most anterior are the left and right hepatic ducts.

      The arteries: Next are the left and right hepatic arteries

      The veins: Next is the portal vein

      The epiploic foramen of Winslow lies most posterior at the porta hepatis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The following statements are about chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which is true?...

    Incorrect

    • The following statements are about chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which is true?

      Your Answer: In advanced cases the pulmonary vascular resistance is reduced

      Correct Answer: Inhaled corticosteroid usage slows the decline in health status

      Explanation:

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is an obstructive, inflammatory lung condition. It encompasses symptoms of emphysema, chronic bronchitis and asthma.

      Inhaling high dose steroids are prescribed to treat COPD. They are effective at reducing symptoms and improving lung function. They also work to reduce the number of hospitalisations by decreasing the number of acute exacerbation events. Despite providing effective symptom relief, it cannot slow down the decline of FEV1 as COPD is an irreversible condition.

      COPD reduces the FEV1 measurements, as well as the FEV1/FVC ratio.

      Breathlessness is a major COPD symptom and can occur at any point in the disease progression, including at an FEV1 >50%.

      FEV1 is used in COPD staging, and it is classed as follows:
      >80%: Mild or stage I
      50 – 79%: Moderate or stage II
      30 – 49%: Severe or stage III
      <30%: Very severe or stage IV
      Patients with mild COPD are usually able to manage their condition on their own, however once the disease progresses to moderate, more GP visits are required, with those in the severe category requiring frequent hospitalisation.

      Asthma is correlated to an increase in transfer factor. COPD (emphysema) is correlated to a decreased transfer factor.

      COPD predisposes to eventual pulmonary hypertension as a result of an increase in pulmonary vascular resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - All of the following statements are true regarding calcium except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are true regarding calcium except:

      Your Answer: Bronchospasm may be a sign of severe hypocalcaemia

      Correct Answer: Serum calcium accounts for 10% of total body calcium stores

      Explanation:

      Calcium is a very important ion and is involved in:
      -cell homeostasis
      -coagulation
      -muscle contraction
      -neuronal impulse transmission/membrane stabilization
      -bone formation and skeletal strength
      -secretion processes

      99% is found in bone and 1% in the plasma. Of the 1% that is in the plasma
      -45% is free ionized calcium
      -45% is bound to proteins, mainly Albumin
      -10% is present as an anion complex

      Reduced levels of IONIZED calcium give rise to features of hypocalcaemia , resulting in increased excitability of membranes. This results when the total calcium concentration goes below 2 mmol/L.

      Features of mild to moderate hypocalcaemia are:
      -paraesthesia (peri-oral, fingers)
      -tetany
      -spasm
      -muscle cramps
      -ECG changes (prolonged QT)
      -Trousseau’s sign (inflation of tourniquet induces carpopedal spasm)
      -Chvostek’s sign (tapping the facial nerve – cranial nerve VII – causes facial muscle twitch/spasm)

      Features of severe hypocalcaemia are:
      -cardiogenic shock and congestive cardiac failure due to reduced myocardial contractility
      respiratory distress due to bronchospasm, agitation, confusion, seizures

      Features of hypercalcaemia (remember ‘bones, stones, groans and psychic moans’):
      -Abdominal pain
      -Vomiting
      -Constipation
      -Polyuria
      -Polydipsia
      -Depression
      -Lethargy
      -Anorexia
      -Weight loss
      -Hypertension
      -Confusion
      -Pyrexia
      -Calcification in the cornea
      -Renal stones
      -Renal failure
      -Decreased Q-T interval
      -Cardiac shock/collapse

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old man, has been scheduled for a splenectomy. For this procedure, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man, has been scheduled for a splenectomy. For this procedure, he requires a urethral catheter.

      Where does resistance first occur during the insertion of a catheter?

      Your Answer: Prostatic urethra

      Correct Answer: Membranous urethra

      Explanation:

      The membranous urethra is the shortest part of the urethra and the least dilatable part of it.

      This is as a result of it being surrounded by the external urethral sphincter which is made up of striated muscle and controls voluntary urine flow from the bladder to the urethra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The main site of storage of thyroid hormones in the thyroid gland is?...

    Correct

    • The main site of storage of thyroid hormones in the thyroid gland is?

      Your Answer: Thyroglobulin

      Explanation:

      The follicle is the functional unit of the thyroid gland. The follicular cells surround the follicle which is filled with colloid. Suspended within the colloid is the is a pro-hormone complex thyroglobulin.

      The synthesis and storage of thyroid hormones is done by follicular cells and the thyroglobulin within the colloid.

      Iodide ions (I−) are actively transported against a concentration gradient into the follicular cell under the influence of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). It then undergoes oxidation to active iodine catalysed by thyroid peroxidase (TPO). The synthesis of thyroglobulin is in the follicular cells and it contains up to 140 tyrosine residues. The tyrosine residues of thyroglobulin and active iodine are merged to form mono- and di-iodotyrosines (MIT and DIT). The iodinated thyroglobulin is then taken up into the colloid where it is stored and dimerised. Two DIT molecules are joined to produce thyroxine (T4) while one MIT and one DIT molecule are joined to produce tri-iodotyrosine (T3) by a process catalysed by TPO.

      Thyroglobulin droplets are taken up as vesicles into follicular cells by pinocytosis. This process is stimulated by TSH. When these vesicles fuse with lysosomes, hydrolysis of the thyroglobulin molecules and subsequent release of T4 and T3 into the circulation occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 30-year-old woman admitted following a tonsillectomy has developed stridor with a respiratory...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman admitted following a tonsillectomy has developed stridor with a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and obstructive movements of the chest and abdomen that is in a see-saw pattern .

      Her SpO2 is 92% on 60% oxygen with pulse rate 120 beats per minute while her blood pressure is 180/90mmHg. She is repeatedly trying to remove the oxygen mask and appears anxious.

      Her pharynx is suctioned and CPAP applied with 100% oxygen via a Mapleson C circuit.

      Which of these is the most appropriate next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Administer intravenous propofol 0.5 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      Continuous closure of the vocal cords resulting in partial or complete airway obstruction is called Laryngospasm. It is a reflex that helps protect against pulmonary aspiration.

      Predisposing factors include: Hyperactive airway disease, Insufficient depth of anaesthesia, Inexperience of the anaesthetist, Airway irritation, Smoking, Shared airway surgery and Paediatric patients

      Its primary treatment includes checking for blood or stomach aspirate in the pharynx, removing any triggering stimulation, relieving any possible supra-glottic component to airway obstruction and application of CPAP with 100% oxygen.

      In this patient, all the above has been done and the next treatment of choice is the administration of a rapidly acting intravenous anaesthetic agent such as propofol (0.5 mg/kg) in increments as it has been reported to relieve laryngospasm in approximately 75% of cases. Administering suxamethonium to an awake patient would be inappropriate at this stage.

      Magnesium and lidocaine are used for prevention rather than acute treatment of laryngospasm. Superior laryngeal nerve blocks have been reported to successfully treat recurrent laryngospasm but it is not the next logical step in index patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 40-year old gentleman has palpitations and has gone to the emergency department....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old gentleman has palpitations and has gone to the emergency department. He is found to have monomorphic ventricular tachycardia. The resting potential of ventricular monocytes is maintained by which electrolyte?

      Your Answer: Sodium

      Correct Answer: Potassium

      Explanation:

      Potassium maintains the resting potential of cardiac myocytes, with depolarization triggered by a rapid influx of sodium ions, and repolarization due to efflux of potassium. A slow influx of calcium is responsible for the longer duration of a cardiac action potential compared with skeletal muscle.

      The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:

      Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
      These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms.

      Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.

      Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
      There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

      Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

      Different sites have different conduction velocities:
      1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

      2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

      3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The following statement is true with regards to the Nernst equation: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following statement is true with regards to the Nernst equation:

      Your Answer: The normal resting membrane potential is + 70 millivolts

      Correct Answer: It is used to calculate the potential difference across a membrane when the individual ions are in equilibrium

      Explanation:

      The Nernst equation is used to calculate the membrane potential at which the ions are in equilibrium across the cell membrane.

      The normal resting membrane potential is -70 mV (not + 70 mV).

      The equation is:
      E = RT/FZ ln {[X]o
      /[X]i}

      Where:
      E is the equilibrium potential
      R is the universal gas constant
      T is the absolute temperature
      F is the Faraday constant
      Z is the valency of the ion
      [X]o is the extracellular concentration of ion X
      [X]i is the intracellular concentration of ion X.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following statements about a cervical rib is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about a cervical rib is correct?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Correct Answer: It originates from the 7th cervical vertebra

      Explanation:

      The costal elements of the seventh cervical vertebrae form projections known as cervical ribs, which are present in approximately 0.5% – 1 % individuals.

      A cervical rib commonly comprises of a head, neck and tubercle. The body of the rib varies from person to person. It extends into the posterior triangle of the neck, where it is either free anteriorly, or attached to the first rib / sternum.

      Patients with a cervical rib mostly are asymptomatic and it is usually diagnosed as an incidental finding on chest x-ray. However, in some cases, the subclavian artery and the lower trunk of the brachial plexus are compressed where they pass over the cervical rib. This leads to a condition known as ”neurovascular compression syndrome,” in which these neurovascular structures are compressed between the cervical rib and scalenus anterior.

      The most common cause of neurogenic symptoms in approximately 80% of the patients with cervical rib is neck trauma.

      In most cases, the tingling, numbness and impaired circulation to the upper limb appears only after puberty. This is because the neck elongates, and the shoulders droop slightly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (1/4) 25%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (0/3) 0%
Anatomy (2/7) 29%
Physiology And Biochemistry (0/4) 0%
Pathophysiology (2/5) 40%
Physiology (3/4) 75%
Basic Physics (0/1) 0%
Statistical Methods (0/2) 0%
Passmed