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  • Question 1 - This vertebrae can be easily differentiated from the rest because of its prominent...

    Correct

    • This vertebrae can be easily differentiated from the rest because of its prominent spinous process.

      Your Answer: C7

      Explanation:

      The spinous process is the part of a vertebrae that is directed posteriorly.

      Typical cervical vertebra have spinous processes that are small and bifid, except for C7, which has a long and prominent spinous process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - All of the following statements about dopamine are FALSE except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements about dopamine are FALSE except:

      Your Answer: Infusions may increase splanchnic blood flow.

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and ?1 (but not ?2 )agonist.

      The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cyclic adenosine monophosphate).

      Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct ?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

      Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

      At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier – no Central nervous system effects.

      Dopamine is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline

      Regarding dopamine part of the dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - In a normal healthy adult breathing 100 percent oxygen, which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • In a normal healthy adult breathing 100 percent oxygen, which of the following is the most likely cause of an alveolar-arterial (A-a) oxygen difference of 30 kPa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atelectasis

      Explanation:

      The ‘ideal’ alveolar PO2 minus arterial PO2 is the alveolar-arterial (A-a) oxygen difference.

      The ‘ideal’ alveolar PO2 is derived from the alveolar air equation and is the PO2 that the lung would have if there was no ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) inequality and it was exchanging gas at the same respiratory exchange ratio as real lung.

      The amount of oxygen in the blood is measured directly in the arteries.

      The A-a oxygen difference (or gradient) is a useful measure of shunt and V/Q mismatch, and it is less than 2 kPa in normal adults breathing air (15 mmHg). Because the shunt component is not corrected, the A-a difference increases when breathing 100 percent oxygen, and it can be up to 15 kPa (115 mmHg).

      An abnormally low or abnormally high V/Q ratio within the lung can cause an increased A-a difference, though the former is more common. Atelectasis, which results in a low V/Q ratio, is the most likely cause of an A-a difference in a healthy adult breathing 100 percent oxygen.

      Hypoventilation may cause an increase in alveolar (and thus arterial) CO2, lowering alveolar PO2 according to the alveolar air equation.

      The alveolar PO2 is also reduced at high altitude.

      Healthy people are unlikely to have a right-to-left shunt or an oxygen transport diffusion defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Of the stated laws, which is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Of the stated laws, which is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Boyle's law states that at constant temperature the volume of a given mass of gas varies inversely with absolute pressure.

      Explanation:

      Boyle’s law is correctly stated as it states that the volume of a gas of known mass is inversely proportional with absolute pressure, at a constant temperature.

      Beer’s law states that radiation absorption by a solution of known thickness and concentration is identical to that of a solution of double thickness and half concentration.

      Bougner’s (or Lambert’s) law states that every layer with the same thickness will absorb the same amount of radiation as it passes through.

      Graham’s law states that the diffusion rate of a gas is inversely related to the square root of its molecular weight.

      Raoult’s law states that the reduction of a solvent’s vapour pressure is directly proportional to the solute’s molar concentration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A peripheral nerve stimulator is used to stimulate the ulnar nerve at the...

    Incorrect

    • A peripheral nerve stimulator is used to stimulate the ulnar nerve at the wrist to indicate the degree of neuromuscular blockade.

      Which single muscle or group of muscles of the hand supplied by the ulnar nerve is best for monitoring the twitch function during neuromuscular blockade?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adductor pollicis

      Explanation:

      In anaesthesia, adductor pollicis neuromuscular monitoring with ulnar nerve stimulation is commonly used. It is the gold standard for measuring the degree of block and comparing neuromuscular blocking drugs and their effects on other muscles.

      Electrodes are usually placed over the ulnar nerve at the wrist to monitor the adductor pollicis.

      Neuromuscular blocking drugs have different sensitivity levels in different muscle groups.

      To achieve the same level of blockade, the diaphragm requires 1.4 to 2 times the amount of neuromuscular blocking agent as the adductor pollicis muscle. The small muscles of the larynx and the ocular muscles are two other respiratory muscles that are less resistant than the diaphragm (especially corrugator supercilii).

      The abdominal muscles, Orbicularis oculi, peripheral muscles of the limbs, Geniohyoid, Masseter, and Upper airway muscles are the most sensitive to neuromuscular blocking agents.

      The C8-T1 nerve roots, which are part of the medial cord of the brachial plexus, form the ulnar nerve. It enters the hand via the ulnar canal, superficial to the flexor retinaculum, after following the ulnar artery at the wrist.

      The nerve then splits into two branches: superficial and deep. The palmaris brevis is supplied by the superficial branch, which also provides palmar digital nerves to one and a half fingers. The dorsal surface of the medial/ulnar 1.5 fingers, as well as the corresponding skin over the hand, are also supplied by it (as well as the palmar surface).

      The ulnar nerve’s deep branch runs between the abductor and flexor digiti minimi, which it supplies. It also innervates the opponens, and with the deep palmar arch, it curves around the hook of the hamate and laterally across the palm. All of the interossei, the medial two lumbricals, the adductor pollicis, and, in most cases, the flexor pollicis brevis are supplied there.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 20-year-old woman, presented to her GP after swallowing a tiny, sharp bone...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman, presented to her GP after swallowing a tiny, sharp bone and is referred to an ENT. She explains that the bone feels stuck in her throat. A laryngoscopy is performed and it shows the bone is lodged in the piriform recess.

      Name the nerve at highest risk of damage by the bone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The internal laryngeal nerve lies inferior to the piriform recess mucous membrane, placing it at high risk of irritation or damage by sharp foreign objects which become lodged in the recess.

      Any attempt to retrieve lodged foreign objects must be done careful as there is also a high risk of damage during this process.

      The other mentioned nerves are not at risk of being affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - One litre of water at 0°C and a pressure of 1 bar is...

    Incorrect

    • One litre of water at 0°C and a pressure of 1 bar is in a water-bath. A 1 kW element is used in heating it.

      Given that the specific heat capacity of water is 4181 J/(kg°C) or J/(kg K), how long will it take to raise the temperature of the water by 10°C?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 42 seconds

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A doctor has recorded the number of times the patient did not attend...

    Incorrect

    • A doctor has recorded the number of times the patient did not attend (DNA) the clinic for a study over a 10 month period.

      Number of DNAs in 10 Months Number of Patients
      1st Month 0
      2nd Month 3
      3rd Month 1
      4th Month 45
      5th Month 2
      6th Month 0
      7th Month 1
      8th Month 4
      9th Month 4
      10th Month 2

      Which among the following is the most apt way of summarizing mean value?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Median

      Explanation:

      Variance and standard deviation indicate the dispersion of the plot from mean value and thus are not really helpful in summarizing the mean.

      Range is the difference between maximum and minimum value that is 45 in this case.

      The mean in this case is 6.2 due to the presence of an outlier 45. In the presence of outlier mean can be misleading as it is quite sensitive to skewness in data.

      Mode is the most frequent value. In this case mode has 4 values: 0,1,2,4.

      In case of skewedness, median is the most apt representative of the mean as it is not affected by outliers. In this case since the data set has even values i.e. 10. Median is the average of the 5th & 6th entry after arranging the data in ascending order like that in case of the question (0,0,1,1,2,2,3,4,4,45). This turns out to be 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Concerning the anterior pituitary gland, one of following is true. ...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning the anterior pituitary gland, one of following is true.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Produces glycoproteins

      Explanation:

      The posterior pituitary and the hypothalamus are connected by the pituitary stalk. It contains in the pituitary sella and has the optic chiasm and hypothalamus as superior relations.

      The anterior pituitary produces thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) . These hormones are Glycoproteins and share a common alpha subunit with unique beta subunits.

      The secretion of pituitary hormones are pulsatile. Examples are LH, adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and growth hormone (GH).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which type of epithelium lines the luminal surface of the oesophagus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of epithelium lines the luminal surface of the oesophagus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non keratinised stratified squamous epithelium

      Explanation:

      Normally, the oesophagus is lined by non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. This epithelium can undergo metaplasia and convert to the columnar epithelium (stomach’s lining) in long-standing GERD that leads to Barret’s oesophagus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old male presents to GP presenting an area of erythema which was...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male presents to GP presenting an area of erythema which was around a recent cut on his right forearm. He was prescribed a short course of antibiotics and after 5 days again presented with progressive fatigue, headaches, and fevers.
      On clinical examination:
      Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
      Respiratory rate: 22 per minute
      Heart rate: 100 beats per minute
      Blood pressure: 105/76 mmHg
      Temperature: 38.2 degree Celsius

      On physical examination, a dramatic increase in the area of erythema was noted.
      Blood culture was done in the patient and indicated the presence of bacterium containing beta-lactamase. Which of the following antibiotics was likely prescribed to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Ciprofloxacin belongs to the quinolone group of antibiotics, and doxycycline and minocycline are tetracyclines. So, they are not affected by beta-lactamase.
      However, amoxicillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic and beta-lactamase cleaves the beta-lactam ring present in amoxicillin. This results in the breakdown of the antibiotic and thus the area of erythema dramatically increased.
      Co-amoxiclav contains amoxicillin and clavulanic acid which protects amoxicillin from beta-lactamase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following statements is correct about a characteristic that is normally...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct about a characteristic that is normally distributed in a population?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There will be approximately equal numbers who have more or less of the characteristic than the mean

      Explanation:

      68% of the population will be found in one standard deviation (SD) above plus one SD below the mean. Two SDs above plus two SDs below the mean will include 95% of the population.

      The median can be greater or less than the mean as it is simply the mid point of the data after the data is arranged. Half the data are above and half below the median .

      The mode is a true score, unlike the mean or the median. It is the most common score or the score obtained from the largest number of subjects in any given data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following statement is true or false regarding to the respiratory...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true or false regarding to the respiratory tract?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The sympathetic innervation of the bronchi is derived from T2 - T4

      Explanation:

      The diaphragm has three opening through which different structures pass from the thoracic cavity to the abdominal cavity:

      Inferior vena cava passes at the level of T8.

      Oesophagus, oesophageal vessels and vagi at T10.

      Aorta, thoracic duct and azygous vein through T12.

      Sympathetic trunk and pulmonary branches of vagus nerve form a posterior pulmonary plexus at the root of the lung. Fibres continue posteriorly from superficial cardiac plexus to form Anterior pulmonary plexus. It contains vagi nerves and superficial cardiac plexus. These fibres then follow the blood vessel and bronchi into the lungs.

      The lower border of the pleura is at the level of:

      8th rib in the midclavicular line

      10th rib in the lower level of midaxillary line

      T12 at its termination.

      Both lungs have oblique fissure while right lung has transverse fissure too.

      The trachea expands from the lower edge of the cricoid cartilage (at the level of the 6th cervical vertebra) to the carina.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The tissue layer in a patient is infiltrated with local anaesthetic (marcaine 0.125%)...

    Incorrect

    • The tissue layer in a patient is infiltrated with local anaesthetic (marcaine 0.125%) with 1 in 120,000 adrenaline as part of an enhanced recovery programme for primary hip replacement surgery. The total volume of solution is 120mL.

      What is the appropriate combination of constituents in the final solution?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline

      Explanation:

      30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline is the correct answer.
      Initial concentration of bupivacaine is 0.5% with a volume of 30mL

      The volume is doubled (60mL) by the addition of 0.9% N. saline (30mls) and the concentration of bupivacaine is halved to (0.25%).

      If the volume is doubled again (120mL) by the addition of further 0.9% N. saline (59mls) the final concentration of bupivacaine is halved again to 0.125%. Total N. saline = 89mls

      The 1 mL of 1 in 1000 adrenaline has also been diluted into the final volume of 120 mL making it a 1 in 120000 concentration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - One of the commonest risks associated with a retrobulbar block for ophthalmic surgery...

    Incorrect

    • One of the commonest risks associated with a retrobulbar block for ophthalmic surgery is the injury to orbital structures within the tendinous ring.

      The structure which passes through the superior orbital fissure and tendinous ring to enter the orbit is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior division of oculomotor nerve

      Explanation:

      From superior to inferior, the following structures enter the orbit through the superior orbital fissure:
      1. Lacrimal nerve
      2. Frontal nerve
      3. Superior ophthalmic vein
      4. Trochlear nerve
      5. Superior division of the oculomotor nerve*
      6. Nasociliary nerve*
      7. Inferior division of the oculomotor nerve*
      8. Abducent nerve*
      9. Inferior ophthalmic vein.

      The superior and inferior division of the oculomotor nerve, nasociliary nerve, and abducent nerve are within the tendinous ring.

      The common origin of the four rectus muscles is the tendinous ring (also known as the annulus of Zinn). The tendinous ring’s lateral portion straddles the superior orbital fissure, while the medial portion encloses the optic foramen, through which the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery pass.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following statements is true regarding oxytocin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding oxytocin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduces the threshold for depolarisation of the uterine smooth muscle

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH). It increases the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus.

      Oxytocin acts through G protein-coupled receptor and phosphoinositide-calcium second messenger system to contract uterine smooth muscle.

      It has 0.5 to 1 % ADH activity introducing possibilities of water intoxication when used in high doses.

      The sensitivity of the uterus to oxytocin increases as the pregnancy progresses.

      It is used for induction of labour in post maturity and uterine inertia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which one of the following causes vasoconstriction? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following causes vasoconstriction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Prostacyclin is a strong vasodilator. It is administered as an intravenous infusion for critical ischemia. Commercially, it is available as sodium epoprodtenol.

      Atrial Natriuretic peptide (ANP) hormone secreted from the atria, kidney, and neural tissues. It primarily acts on renal vessel to maintain normal blood pressure and reduce plasma volume by: increasing the renal excretion of salt and water, glomerular filtration rate, vasodilation, and by increasing the vascular permeability. It also inhibits the release of renin and aldosterone.

      Indoramin is an alpha-adrenoceptor blocking agent. which act selectively on post-synaptic-alpha adrenoreceptor, leading to decease in peripheral resistance.

      Angiotensin II is a vasoconstrictor, causing high sodium retention. It also increases the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and aldosterone level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 18 - A 61-year-old woman with myasthenia gravis is admitted to the ER with type...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman with myasthenia gravis is admitted to the ER with type II respiratory failure. There is a suspicion of myasthenic crisis.

      She is in a semiconscious state. Her blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg, pulse is 110 beats per minute, temperature is 37°C, and oxygen saturation is 84 percent.

      With a PaCO2 of 75 mmHg (10 kPa) breathing air, blood gas analysis confirms she is hypoventilating.

      Which of the following values is the most accurate representation of her alveolar oxygen tension (PAO2)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7.3

      Explanation:

      The following is the alveolar gas equation:

      PAO2 = PiO2 − PaCO2/R

      Where:

      PAO2 is the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli.
      PiO2 is the partial pressure of oxygen inhaled.
      PaCO2 stands for partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the arteries.
      The amount of carbon dioxide produced (200 mL/minute) divided by the amount of oxygen consumed (250 mL/minute) equals R = respiratory quotient. With a normal diet, the value is 0.8.

      By subtracting the partial pressure exerted by water vapour at body temperature, the PiO2 can be calculated:

      PiO2 = 0.21 × (100 kPa − 6.3 kPa)
      PiO2 = 19.8

      Substituting:
      PAO2 = 19.8 − 10/0.8
      PAO2 = 19.8 − 12.5
      PAO2 = 7.3k Pa

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 19 - The right coronary artery supplies blood to all the following, except which? ...

    Incorrect

    • The right coronary artery supplies blood to all the following, except which?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The circumflex artery

      Explanation:

      The right coronary artery supplies the right ventricle, the right atrium, the sinoatrial (SA) node and the atrioventricular (AV) node.

      The circumflex artery originates from the left coronary artery and is supplied by it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
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  • Question 20 - The renal glomerulus is able to filter 180 litres of blood per day,...

    Incorrect

    • The renal glomerulus is able to filter 180 litres of blood per day, as determined by the starling forces present in the glomerulus. Ninety-nine percent of which is reabsorbed thereafter.

      Water is reabsorbed in the highest proportion in which segment of the nephron?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Sixty-seven percent of filtered water is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. The driving force for water reabsorption is a transtubular osmotic gradient established by reabsorption of solutes (e.g., NaCl, Na+-glucose).

      Henle’s loop reabsorbs approximately 25% of filtered NaCl and 15% of filtered water. The thin ascending limb reabsorbs NaCl by a passive mechanism, and is impermeable to water. Reabsorption of water, but not NaCl, in the descending thin limb increases the concentration of NaCl in the tubule fluid entering the ascending thin limb. As the NaCl-rich fluid moves toward the cortex, NaCl diffuses out of the tubule lumen across the ascending thin limb and into the medullary interstitial fluid, down a concentration gradient as directed from the tubule fluid to the interstitium. This mechanism is known as the counter current multiplier.

      The distal tubule and collecting duct reabsorb approximately 8% of filtered NaCl, secrete variable amounts of K+ and H+, and reabsorb a variable amount of water (approximately 8%-17%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 21 - A 21-year-old woman presents to ER following the deliberate ingestion of 2 g...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman presents to ER following the deliberate ingestion of 2 g of amitriptyline. On clinical examination:
      Glasgow coma score: 10
      Pulse rate: 140 beats per minute
      Blood pressure: 80/50 mmHg.
      ECG showed a QRS duration of 233 Ms.

      Which of the following statement describes the most important initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give fluid boluses

      Explanation:

      The first line of treatment in case of hypotension is fluid resuscitation.

      Activated charcoal can be used within one hour of tricyclic antidepressant ingestion but an intact and secure airway must be checked before intervention. The risk of aspiration should be assessed.

      Vasopressors are indicated for the treatment of hypotension following (Tricyclic Antidepressant) TCA overdose when patients fail to respond to fluids and bicarbonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 22 - The following statements are about changes that occur at birth. Which is accurate?...

    Incorrect

    • The following statements are about changes that occur at birth. Which is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The systemic vascular resistance rises

      Explanation:

      The umbilical vein closes once the umbilical cord is clamped following birth. This causes a rise in systemic vascular resistance, closing the ductus venosus.

      Upon birth, the pulmonary vascular resistance is decreased as the lungs are aerated.

      At birth, there is a rise in oxygen tension which causes the corresponding constriction of the ductus arteriosus. This prevents a left to right shunt as it stops aortic blood and blood from the pulmonary artery from mixing. The ventricles do no have an opening connecting them.

      The foramen ovale closes soon after birth. It is the septum opening between the left and right atrium.

      An adult’s cardiac output is expected to be 5 L/min

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 23 - Regarding amide local anaesthetics, which one factor has the most significant effect on...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding amide local anaesthetics, which one factor has the most significant effect on its duration of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Protein binding

      Explanation:

      When drugs are bound to proteins, drugs cannot cross membranes and exert their effect. Only the free (unbound) drug can be absorbed, distributed, metabolized, excreted and exert pharmacologic effect. Thus, when amide local anaesthetics are bound to ?1-glycoproteins, their duration of action are reduced.

      The potency of local anaesthetics are affected by lipid solubility. Solubility influences the concentration of the drug in the extracellular fluid surrounding blood vessels. The brain, which is high in lipid content, will dissolve high concentration of lipid soluble drugs. When drugs are non-ionized and non-polarized, they are more lipid-soluble and undergo more extensive distribution. Hence allowing these drugs to penetrate the membrane of the target cells and exert their effect.

      Tissue pKa and pH will determine the degree of ionization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 24 - Arterial pressure waveforms give an indication of the operation of the heart and...

    Incorrect

    • Arterial pressure waveforms give an indication of the operation of the heart and the patient's clinical state.

      Which of the following listed characteristics of arterial waveforms is most indicative of myocardial contractility?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Slope of the upstroke of the curve.

      Explanation:

      Arterial pressure waveforms is an invasive form of monitoring cardiac parameters. It provides a lot of information on the performance of the heart from different sections, including:

      Cardiac measurements:

      Heart rate
      Systolic pressure
      Diastolic pressure
      Mean arterial pressure
      Pulse pressure
      Change in pulse amplitude corresponding to respiratory changes
      Slope of anacrotic limb associated with aortic stenosis

      From the shape of the arterial waveform displayed:

      Slope of anacrotic limb represents aortic valve and LVOT flow
      Indications of aortic stenosis (AS): Slurred wave, collapsing wave
      Rapid systolic decline in LVOTO
      Bisferiens wave in HOCM
      Low dicrotic notch in states with poor peripheral resistance
      Position and quality of dicrotic notch as a reflection of the damping coefficient

      For this question, the upstroke slope of the pressure wave is indicative of myocardial contractility and is mathematically represented as:

      dP/dt, which represents a change of pressure with regards to time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 25 - A 49-year-old female has presented to her physician with complaints of a lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old female has presented to her physician with complaints of a lump in her groin area. The lump is painless and is more prominent in coughing.
      On examination, the lump's location is inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle. This points towards the diagnosis of femoral hernia, where part of her intestines has entered the femoral canal, causing a bulge in the femoral triangle. The femoral triangle is an anatomical region in the upper thigh.

      Name the structures found in the femoral triangle, laterally to medially.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein, empty space, lymphatics

      Explanation:

      The femoral triangle is a wedge-shaped area found within the superomedial aspect of the anterior thigh. It is a passageway for structures to leave and enter the anterior thigh.

      Superior: Inguinal ligament
      Medial: Adductor longus
      Lateral: Sartorius
      Floor: Iliopsoas, adductor longus and pectineus

      The contents include: (medial to lateral)
      Femoral vein
      Femoral artery-pulse palpated at the mid inguinal point
      Femoral nerve
      Deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes
      Lateral cutaneous nerve
      Great saphenous vein
      Femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 26 - A single intravenous dose of 100 mg phenytoin was administered to a 70...

    Incorrect

    • A single intravenous dose of 100 mg phenytoin was administered to a 70 kg patient and plasma concentration monitored.

      The concentration in plasma over time is recorded as follows:

      Time (hours) 1 2 3 4 5
      Concentration (mcg/mL) 100 71 50 35.5 25

      From the data available, the drug is likely eliminated by?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: First-order kinetics with a half-life of 2 hours

      Explanation:

      Elimination of phenytoin from the body follows first-order kinetics. This means that the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.

      The rate of elimination can be described by the equation:

      C = C0·e-kt

      Where:

      C = drug concentration
      C0 = drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated)
      k = Rate constant
      t = Time

      Enzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations exceed the normal range and elimination of the drug becomes zero-order. At this point, the drug is metabolised at a fixed rate and metabolism is independent of plasma concentration.

      Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are other drugs that behave this way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 27 - A 70-year-old female is on bisoprolol, amitriptyline, and gabapentin medication and required hemiarthroplasty...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female is on bisoprolol, amitriptyline, and gabapentin medication and required hemiarthroplasty for a fractured neck of the femur. Spinal anaesthesia using 10 mg of IV ketamine to aid positioning was decided to be used. This resulting block extended to T8 and she required boluses of metaraminol for hypotension.

      She became profoundly hypertensive and had multiple ventricular ectopic beats on ECG following positioning in theatre.

      Which of the following is the cause for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ketamine

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is primarily used for the induction and maintenance of anaesthesia. It induces dissociative anaesthesia. But it is contraindicated in cardiovascular diseases such as unstable angina or poorly controlled hypertension.

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCA) are primarily used as antidepressants which is important for the management of depression. These are second-line drugs next to SSRI. They work by competitively preventing re-uptake of amines (noradrenaline and serotonin) from the synaptic cleft so increasing their concentration. But TCA overdoses are toxic and have cardiovascular effects, central effects, and anticholinergics effects. Cardiovascular effects like prolonged QT and widened QRS at lower doses progressing to ventricular arrhythmias and refractory hypotension at higher doses can be life-threatening. When used in the perioperative period, it can lead to increased sensitivity to circulating catecholamines therefore care is needed perioperatively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 28 - Clearance techniques are used to assess renal glomerular function.

    Which of the following is...

    Incorrect

    • Clearance techniques are used to assess renal glomerular function.

      Which of the following is the most accurate marker for glomerular filtration rate measurement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inulin

      Explanation:

      The perfect glomerular filtration marker is:

      The human body is not harmed by it.
      Chemical or physical methods are used to accurately measure
      Extracellular fluid (ECF) compartment is freely and evenly diffusible.
      Inability to access the intracellular fluid (ICF) compartment
      Filtration in the kidney is the only way to remove it from the blood.

      The ideal marker should not be reabsorbed into the bloodstream by the renal tubules or other urinary system components.

      Creatinine is an endogenous substance that is filtered freely by the glomerulus and secreted by the proximal tubule. As a result, creatinine clearance consistently underestimates GFR. In healthy people, this overestimation ranges from 10% to 40%, but it is higher and more unpredictable in patients with chronic kidney disease.

      The gold standard method of inulin clearance necessitates an intravenous infusion and several hours of timed urine collection, making it costly and time-consuming. Inulin is hard to come by and is difficult to mix and keep as a solution.

      Exogenous filtration markers include the following:

      Although plasma clearance of 51chromium EDTA is a widely used method in Europe, tubular reabsorption can occur.
      Because 125I-iothalamate can be excreted by renal tubules in the urine, it cannot be used in patients who have an iodine assay.

      Radioactive substances must be stored, administered, and disposed of according to these methods.

      The glomerulus filters para-aminohippuric acid (PAH) freely, and any that remains in the peritubular capillaries is secreted into the proximal convoluted tubules. This marker is used to determine the amount of blood flowing through the kidneys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 29 - You are given an intravenous induction agent. The following are its characteristics:

    A racemic mixture...

    Incorrect

    • You are given an intravenous induction agent. The following are its characteristics:

      A racemic mixture of cyclohexanone rings with one chiral centre
      Local anaesthetic properties.

      Which of the following statements about its primary mechanism of action is most accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non-competitive antagonist affecting Ca2+ channels

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is the substance in question. Its structure and pharmacodynamic effects make it a one-of-a-kind intravenous induction agent. The molecule is made up of two cyclohexanone rings (2-(O-chlorophenyl)-2-methylamino cyclohexanone and 2-(O-chlorophenyl)-2-methylamino cyclohexanone). Ketamine has local anaesthetic properties and acts primarily on the brain and spinal cord.

      It affects Ca2+ channels as a non-competitive antagonist for the N-D-methyl-aspartate (NMDA) receptor. It also acts as a local anaesthetic by interfering with neuronal Na+ channels.

      Ketamine causes profound dissociative anaesthesia (profound amnesia and analgesia) as well as sedation.

      Phenoxybenzamine, an alpha-1 adrenoreceptor antagonist, is an example of an irreversible competitive antagonist. It forms a covalent bond with the calcium influx receptor.

      Benzodiazepines are GABAA receptor agonists that affect chloride influx.

      Flumazenil is an inverse agonist that affects GABAA receptor chloride influx.

      Ketamine is a cyclohexanone derivative that acts as a non-competitive Ca2+ channel antagonist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 30 - An aged patient that has been suffering from diabetes criticised the health minister...

    Incorrect

    • An aged patient that has been suffering from diabetes criticised the health minister for his comments on incidence and prevalence. The minister had said that they both are two separate entities. It can be therefore inferred that the patient thinks that prevalence and incidence are the same thing.

      Is he right?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No. In chronic disease prevalence is greater than incidence.

      Explanation:

      Only on rare occasions has it been found that the prevalence and incidence were same. Incidence can be greater than prevalence in acute cases only. In case of chronic diseases prevalence is far greater than incidence. One needs to have a deeper understanding of both the concepts to understand the health literature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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