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Question 1
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A single intravenous dose of 100 mg phenytoin was administered to a 70 kg patient and plasma concentration monitored.
The concentration in plasma over time is recorded as follows:
Time (hours) 1 2 3 4 5
Concentration (mcg/mL) 100 71 50 35.5 25
From the data available, the drug is likely eliminated by?Your Answer: First-order kinetics with a half-life of 2 hours
Explanation:Elimination of phenytoin from the body follows first-order kinetics. This means that the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.
The rate of elimination can be described by the equation:
C = C0·e-kt
Where:
C = drug concentration
C0 = drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated)
k = Rate constant
t = TimeEnzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations exceed the normal range and elimination of the drug becomes zero-order. At this point, the drug is metabolised at a fixed rate and metabolism is independent of plasma concentration.
Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are other drugs that behave this way.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
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A 57-year old woman, presents to her general practitioner. She has a 2 week history of a vaginal hysterectomy for which she was placed under general anaesthesia.
On examination, she has notable weakness of dorsiflexion of her left foot and a high stepping gait.
Which nerve was most likely injured during her surgery?Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:The common peroneal (fibular) nerve is a peripheral nerve in the lower limb. It arises of the L4-S2 nerve roots and has sensory and motor innervations:
Sensory: Provides innervation of the lateral leg and foot dorsum.
Motor: Provides innervation of the short head of the biceps femoris, as well as muscles of the anterior and lateral leg compartments.
It is the most commonly damaged nerve in the lower extremity, as it is easily compressed by a plaster cast or injured when the fibula is fractured.
Damage to the common peroneal nerve will result in loss of dorsiflexion at ankle (footdrop, as feet are permanently plantarflexed), with the accompanying high stepping gait.
The saphenous and sural nerve only provide sensory innervation.
The tibial nerve arises from the sciatic nerve (like the common peroneal), but it provides motor innervation to the posterior leg compartments and intrinsic foot muscles. Injury to the tibial nerve will cause loss of plantar flexion, toe flexion and weakened foot inversion.
Extreme hip flexion into the lithotomy or Lloyd-Davies position can result in stretch damage to the neurones (sciatic and obturator nerves) or by applying direct pressure (femoral nerve compression).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 3
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Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia entail a relationship between two or more variables.
Which of the following relationships is a linear relationship?Your Answer: The relationship between the junction potential and temperature in a thermocouple
Explanation:Two bonded wires of dissimilar metals, iron/constantan or copper/constantan, make up a thermocouple (constantan is an alloy of copper and nickel). At the tip, a thermojunction voltage is generated that is proportional to temperature (Seebeck effect).
All of the other connections are non-linear.
For a single compartment model, the relationship between a decrease in plasma concentration of an intravenous bolus of a drug and time is a washout exponential.
A sine wave is the relationship between current and degrees or time from a mains power source.
A sigmoid curve represents the relationship between efficacy and log-dose of a pure agonist on mu receptors.
The pressure of a fixed mass of gas and its volume (Boyle’s law) at a fixed temperature are inversely proportional, resulting in a hyperbolic curve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman, presents to emergency department with an ischaemic left colon.
Multiple arteries arise from the aorta at the level of the L3 vertebrae, which is most likely to be involved in this pathology?Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery
Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The inferior mesenteric artery arises from the abdominal aorta at the level of the L3 vertebrae and supplies blood to the final third of the transverse colon, the descending colon, the sigmoid colon and the uppermost part of the rectum.
It is the artery most likely to affect the left colon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 5
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A 30-year old female was anaesthetically induced for an elective open cholecystectomy. Upon mask ventilation, patient's oxygen saturation level dropped to 90% despite maximal head extension, jaw thrust and two handed mask seal. Intubation was performed twice but failed. Use of bougie also failed to localize the trachea. Oxygen levels continued to drop, but was maintained between 80 and 88% with mask ventilation.
Which of the following options is the best action to take for this patient?Your Answer: Insert a supraglottic airway
Explanation:A preplanned preinduction strategy includes the consideration of various interventions designed to facilitate intubation should a difficult airway occur. Non-invasive interventions intended to manage a difficult airway include, but are not limited to: (1) awake intubation, (2) video-assisted laryngoscopy, (3) intubating stylets or tube-changers, (4) SGA for ventilation (e.g., LMA, laryngeal tube), (5) SGA for intubation (e.g., ILMA), (6) rigid laryngoscopic blades of varying design and size, (7) fibreoptic-guided intubation, and (8) lighted stylets or light wands.
Most supraglottic airway devices (SADs) are designed for use during routine anaesthesia, but there are other roles such as airway rescue after failed tracheal intubation, use as a conduit to facilitate tracheal intubation and use by primary responders at cardiac arrest or other out-of-hospital emergencies. Supraglottic airway devices are intrinsically more invasive than use of a facemask for anaesthesia, but less invasive than tracheal intubation. Supraglottic airway devices can usefully be classified as first and second generation SADs and also according to whether they are specifically designed to facilitate tracheal intubation. First generation devices are simply ‘airway tubes’, whereas second generation devices incorporate specific design features to improve safety by protecting against regurgitation and aspiration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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With regards to devices for temperature management, all of these are used EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Platinum resistance thermometers use the principle that resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature
Correct Answer: Thermistors use the resistance of a semiconductor bead which increases exponentially as the temperature increases
Explanation:There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:
Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially
Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)
Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature
Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output
Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 7
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Given the following values:
Expired tidal volume = 800 ml
Plateau pressure = 50 cmH2O
PEEP = 10 cmH2O
Compute for the static pulmonary compliance.Your Answer: 20 ml/cmH2O
Explanation:Compliance of the respiratory system describes the expandability of the lungs and chest wall. There are two types of compliance: dynamic and static.
Dynamic compliance describes the compliance measured during breathing, which involves a combination of lung compliance and airway resistance. Defined as the change in lung volume per unit change in pressure in the presence of flow.
Static compliance describes pulmonary compliance when there is no airflow, like an inspiratory pause. Defined as the change in lung volume per unit change in pressure in the absence of flow.
For example, if a person was to fill the lung with pressure and then not move it, the pressure would eventually decrease; this is the static compliance measurement. Dynamic compliance is measured by dividing the tidal volume, the average volume of air in one breath cycle, by the difference between the pressure of the lungs at full inspiration and full expiration. Static compliance is always a higher value than dynamic
Static compliance can be computed using the formula:
Cstat = Tidal volume/Plateau pressure – PEEP
Substituting the values given,
Cstat = 800/50-10
Cstat = 20 ml/cmH2O -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 8
Correct
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Of the following, which option best describes the muscle type that has the fastest twitch response to stimulation?
Your Answer: Type IIb skeletal muscle
Explanation:Human skeletal muscle is composed of a heterogeneous collection of muscle fibre types which differ histologically, biochemically and physiologically.
It can be biochemically classified into 2 groups. This is based on muscle fibre myosin ATPase histochemistry. These are:
Type 1 (slow twitch): Muscle fibres depend upon aerobic glycolytic metabolism and aerobic oxidative metabolism. They are rich in mitochondria, have a good blood supply, rich in myoglobin and are resistant to fatigue.
Type II (fast twitch): Muscle fibres are sub-divided into:
Type IIa – relies on aerobic/oxidative metabolism
Type IIb – relies on anaerobic/glycolytic metabolism.Fast twitch muscle fibres produce short bursts of power but are more easily fatigued.
Cardiac and smooth muscle twitches are relatively slow compared with skeletal muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 9
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An individual who recently moved his residence from the plains to the mountains will experience immediately which physiologic response to high altitude and hypoxia?
Your Answer: Increased cardiac output
Explanation:A person remaining at high altitudes for days, weeks, or years becomes more and more acclimatized to the low PO2, so it causes fewer deleterious effects on the body.
After acclimatization, it becomes possible for the person to work harder without hypoxic effects or to ascend to still higher altitudes. The principal means by which acclimatization comes about are (1) a great increase in pulmonary ventilation, (2) increased numbers of red blood cells, (3) diffusing capacity of the lungs, (4) increased vascularity of the peripheral tissues, and (5) increased ability of the tissue cells to use oxygen despite low PO2.
The cardiac output often increases as much as 30% immediately after a person ascends to high altitude but then decreases back toward normal over a period of weeks as the blood haematocrit increases, so the amount of oxygen transported to the peripheral body tissues remains about normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 10
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A 53-year old female with a diagnosis of anaplastic thyroid carcinoma is admitted in the surgery department for an elective total thyroidectomy with radical neck dissection. The operation is expected to last for 10 hours.
Which of the following is the most suitable humidifier to use in an anaesthetic circuit for this case?Your Answer: Heat and moisture exchanger (HME)
Explanation:Adequate humidification is vital to maintain homeostasis of the airway. Heat and moisture exchangers conserve some of the exhaled water, heat and return them to inspired gases. Many heat and moisture exchangers also perform bacterial/viral filtration and prevent inhalation of small particles. Heat and moisture exchangers are also called condenser humidifier, artificial nose, etc. Most of them are disposable devices with exchanging medium enclosed in a plastic housing. For adult and paediatric age group different dead space types are available. Heat and moisture exchangers are helpful during anaesthesia and ventilatory breathing system. To reduce the damage of the upper respiratory tract through cooling and dehydration inspiratory air can be heated and humidified, thus preventing the serious complications. Moreover, they are the most appropriate humidification devices used for routine anaesthesia.
Gases can be bubbled through water to increase humidity. Passing gas through water at room temperature causes the gas to cool due to latent heat of vaporisation. The water bath can be heated. This improves the efficiency of the device and also reduces the incidence of bacterial colonisation.
Nebulisers use a venturi system which employs the Bernoulli effect. A gas at high flow passes through a constriction causing the gas to accelerate, reducing its potential energy allowing other gases or liquids to be entrained. This can include medications or in the case of humidification, water vapour. The size of the water droplet produced by nebulisation determines where in the airway it is deposited. Standard nebulisers produced droplets of 4 microns in diameter and these are deposited in the upper airway and trachea. Efficacy can be improved by passing the droplets over an anvil which further reduces particle size. The most efficient form of nebuliser is the ultrasonic nebuliser. Here a transducer immersed in water and vibrated at a frequency of 3MHz produces1-2micron droplets. These particles easily reach the bronchioles and provide excellent humidification.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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