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  • Question 1 - You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal...

    Correct

    • You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal delivery. You note a laceration that extends through the vaginal mucosa into the perineal muscle and fascia. The external anal sphincter appears to be in tact. How would you classify this tear?

      Your Answer: 2nd

      Explanation:

      If the external anal sphincter is in tact then this is a 1st or 2nd degree tear. As the perineal muscles are involved this is 2nd degree tear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 66-year-old lady comes to your clinic complaining of a brownish vaginal discharge...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old lady comes to your clinic complaining of a brownish vaginal discharge that has been bothering her for the previous three months. Atrophic vagina is seen on inspection.

      Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?

      Your Answer: Vaginal atrophy

      Explanation:

      Endometrial cancer should always be the first diagnosis to rule out in a 65-year-old lady with brownish vaginal discharge. The inquiry focuses on the most likely source of the symptoms, rather than the most significant diagnosis to explore.
      Blood typically causes the dark hue of vaginal discharge. The uterine cavity or the vagina can both be the source of bleeding. Only 5-10% of postmenopausal women with vaginal bleeding were found to have endometrial cancer. Around 60% of the women had atrophic vaginitis.

      Urogenital atrophy is caused by oestrogen insufficiency in postmenopausal women. Urogenital atrophy can cause the following symptoms:
      – Dry vaginal skin
      – Vaginal inflammation or burning
      – Vaginal lubrication is reduced during sexual activity.
      – Vulvar or vaginal pain, as well as dyspareunia (at the introitus or within the vagina)
      – Vaginal or vulvar bleeding (e.g. postcoital bleeding. fissures)
      – Vaginal discharge from the cervix (leukorrhea or yellow and malodorous)
      – A vaginal bulge or pelvic pressure
      – Symptoms of the urinary tract (e.g. urinary frequency, dysuria, urethral discomfort, haematuria).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - From what does the blastocyst hatch? ...

    Correct

    • From what does the blastocyst hatch?

      Your Answer: Zona Pellucida

      Explanation:

      The blastocyst hatchs from the Zona Pellucida

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What percentage of haemoglobin is HbF by 6 months of age? ...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of haemoglobin is HbF by 6 months of age?

      Your Answer: <2%

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      HB gower 1 is the predominant embryonic haemoglobin when the foetus is 6 week old and is replaced by adult haemoglobin by the age of 5 months post natally. Only 2% of the haemoglobin is HbF.

      Embryonic Haemoglobin:
      Haemoglobin Gower 1 (HbE Gower-1)
      Haemoglobin Gower 2 (HbE Gower-2)
      Haemoglobin Portland I (HbE Portland-1)
      Haemoglobin Portland II (HbE Portland-2)

      Fetal Haemoglobin (haemoglobin F, HbF)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A patient in a high-risk pregnancy clinic has a past obstetrical history of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in a high-risk pregnancy clinic has a past obstetrical history of placenta previa and caesarean section has a breech presentation at 36 weeks gestation.

      Which of the following is considered a risk factor in increasing the chance of term breech presentation?

      Your Answer: Nulliparity

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Breech presentation refers to the foetus in the longitudinal lie with the buttocks or lower extremity entering the pelvis first.

      Clinical conditions associated with breech presentation include those that may increase or decrease fetal motility, or affect the vertical polarity of the uterine cavity. Prematurity, multiple gestations, aneuploidies, congenital anomalies, Mullerian anomalies, uterine leiomyoma, and placental polarity as in placenta previa are most commonly associated with a breech presentation. Also, a previous history of breech presentation at term increases the risk of repeat breech presentation at term in subsequent pregnancies.

      Conditions that change the vertical polarity or the uterine cavity, or affect the ease or ability of the foetus to turn into the vertex presentation in the third trimester include:
      – Mullerian anomalies
      – Placentation
      – Uterine leiomyoma
      – Prematurity
      – Aneuploidies and fetal neuromuscular disorders
      – Congenital anomalies
      – Polyhydramnios and oligohydramnios
      – Laxity of the maternal abdominal wall.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Turner's syndrome is characterised by : ...

    Incorrect

    • Turner's syndrome is characterised by :

      Your Answer: The ovaries are multicystic

      Correct Answer: Streak ovaries

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome, a condition that affects only females, results when one of the X chromosomes (sex chromosomes) is missing or partially missing. Turner syndrome can cause a variety of medical and developmental problems, including short height, failure of the ovaries to develop and heart defects. Streak ovaries are a form of ovarian dysgenesis and are associated with Turner syndrome. Occasionally they may be functional and secondary sexual characteristics may develop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Bishop scoring is used for: ...

    Incorrect

    • Bishop scoring is used for:

      Your Answer: The state of the foetus at the time of delivery

      Correct Answer: The success rate of induction of the labour

      Explanation:

      The Bishop score is a system used by medical professionals to decide how likely it is that you will go into labour soon. They use it to determine whether they should recommend induction, and how likely it is that an induction will result in a vaginal birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - When does Oocytogenesis complete? ...

    Incorrect

    • When does Oocytogenesis complete?

      Your Answer: 18 weeks gestation

      Correct Answer: Birth

      Explanation:

      During the early fetal life, oogonia proliferate by mitosis. They enlarge to form primary oocyte before birth. No primary oocyte is form after birth. The primary oocyte is dormant is the ovarian follicles until puberty. As the follicle matures, the primary oocyte completes its first meiotic division and gives rise to secondary oocyte. During ovulation the secondary oocytes starts the second meiotic division but is only completed if a sperm penetrates it. This 1st and 2nd meiotic division is known as ootidogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 29 year old patient who is 22 weeks pregnant seeks your advice...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old patient who is 22 weeks pregnant seeks your advice as she was recently exposed to chickenpox. Regarding fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) which of the following statements is correct regarding maternal varicella infection?

      Your Answer: FVS may result if there is maternal varicella infection within the 1st 6 weeks gestation

      Correct Answer: FVS may result if there is maternal varicella infection within the 1st 20 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      (13-20 weeks). If a mother has chickenpox in late pregnancy (5 days prior to delivery) then there is risk of neonatal varicella infection which may be severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 38 year old woman has had amenorrhea for a year now. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 38 year old woman has had amenorrhea for a year now. She admits she stopped her COCP treatment 18 months ago. Her blood exams reveal the following: FSH=8, LH=7, Prolactin=400, Oestradiol=500. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prolactinoma

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamic amenorrhea

      Explanation:

      Functional Hypothalamic Amenorrhea (FHA) is a form of chronic anovulation, due to non-identifiable organic causes and often associated with stress, weight loss, excessive exercise, or a combination thereof. Investigations should include assessment of systemic and endocrinologic aetiologies, as FHA is a diagnosis of exclusion. A multidisciplinary treatment approach is necessary, including medical, dietary, and mental health support. Medical complications include, among others, bone density loss and infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 38-year-old woman presents to the gynaecologic clinic with a complaint of headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to the gynaecologic clinic with a complaint of headache, irritability, insomnia, abdominal bloating, anxiety, and breast tenderness around 4 to 5 days before menstruation for the last 8 months. There's also a limitation on daily activities and she has to take a week off from work. The patient's symptoms are relieved with the onset of menstruation. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. There is no other significant past medical history.

      Which of the following is the best treatment?

      Your Answer: Oral contraceptive pills

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      The signs and symptoms of premenstrual dysmorphic disorder are well-known in this patient. Fluoxetine is the greatest therapeutic option among the available options.
      For severe symptoms, clomipramine and danazol can be used interchangeably.
      Bromocriptine, like oral contraceptives and evening primrose, has no scientific evidence to support its use in this syndrome.
      NSAIDs are helpful for painful symptoms, but they only address a limited number of them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 20-year-old female university student, who has never been sexually active, requests advice...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female university student, who has never been sexually active, requests advice regarding contraception in view of wanting to start being sexually active.

      Which contraceptive option would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer: The combined oestrogen progestogen contraceptive pill (OCP).

      Correct Answer: The OCP and a condom.

      Explanation:

      This patient should be advised to use both an OCP and a condom. The combined oestrogen/progestogen contraceptive pill (COCP) has been found to be very effective. However, she should be made aware that it would not provide any protection from any sexually transmitted diseases so she might still be at risk of developing a STD, depending on her sexual partner preferences. To ensure protection from STDs, she should be advised to use both condoms as well as the combined OCP. An IUCD (intrauterine contraceptive device) would not be preferable if she has multiple sexual partners (high risk of STDs). If she has been screened for STDs, does not actively have an STD and has only one sexual partner then IUCD is a possible option. Some issues that may arise with spermicide use could be related to compliance. This also applies to using condoms alone. These two options are less reliable as compared to COCP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the definition of hypertension in pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of hypertension in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: A blood pressure above 120/80 mmHg

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The NICE guidelines on Hypertension in pregnancy define blood pressure in pregnancy as follows:
      Mild hypertension: DBP=90-99 mmHg, SBP=140-149 mmHg. Moderate hypertension: DBP=100-109 mmHg, SBP=150-159 mmHg.
      Severe hypertension: DBP=110 mmHg or greater, SBP=160 mmHg or greater.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following statements regarding prolactin is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding prolactin is true?

      Your Answer: Prolactin levels decrease shortly after sleep

      Correct Answer: Prolactin levels increase during stress

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hyperprolactinemia: Prolactinomas, Medication (phenothiazines, metoclopramide, risperidone, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, oestrogens, verapamil), Stress, Pregnancy, Hypothyroidism, Kidney disease, Chest trauma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      42
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You see a 23 year old women in clinic with cervicitis. Which gram...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 23 year old women in clinic with cervicitis. Which gram negative intracellular organism is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      Chlamydia trachomatis (D-K subtypes) is the most common cause in this age group and fits the descriptors given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      63.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You review a 58 year old patient in clinic. She asks what the...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 58 year old patient in clinic. She asks what the results of her recent DEXA scan are. You note her hip BMD hip T-score is -1.4. You note she has a history of olecranon fracture 4 years ago. What is her classification according to WHO criteria?

      Your Answer: Osteoporosis

      Correct Answer: Osteopenia

      Explanation:

      Her T-score puts her in the osteopenic range. The presence of fragility fractures is more important in the osteoporotic patient. Olecranon fracture is not a typical fragility fracture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 27-year-old woman comes to you during her first trimester seeking antenatal advice...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman comes to you during her first trimester seeking antenatal advice as she have a history of pre-eclampsia and obesity.

      On examination her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg and BMI is 38.

      Administration of which among the following can reduce her risk of pre-eclampsia during this pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Folic acid 0.5mg daily

      Correct Answer: Calcium 1000mg daily

      Explanation:

      This patient with a previous history of pre-eclampsia and obesity is at high risk for developing pre-eclampsia.

      A daily intake of 1000mg of calcium is observed to be helpful in reducing the incidence of any hypertensive disorders and preterm labour.

      Vitamin A should always be avoided during pregnancy as it is fetotoxic.

      All other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in a sexually active 19-year-old...

    Correct

    • The most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in a sexually active 19-year-old female is:

      Your Answer: Mixed vaginal flora

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis is the most common cause of acute vaginitis, accounting for up to 50% of cases in some populations. It is usually caused by a shift in normal vaginal flora- Mixed vaginal flora is considerably more common as a cause of vaginal discharge than – albicans and T. vaginalis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      38.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - An HIV positive woman who is 18 weeks pregnant complains of frothy yellow...

    Incorrect

    • An HIV positive woman who is 18 weeks pregnant complains of frothy yellow vaginal discharge and vaginal soreness. A wet mount and microscopy confirms a Trichomonas vaginalis infection. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment regime?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole 400mg BD 5 days

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole 500mg BD 7 days

      Explanation:

      Trichomoniasis is considered a sexually transmitted infection found both in men and women caused by the flagellate protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis. The organism is mainly found in the vagina and the urethra. Though many infected women can be asymptomatic, they can also present with yellow frothy vaginal discharge, itching and vaginitis, dysuria or an offensive odour. For the diagnosis of t. vaginalis in women, a swab is taken from the posterior fornix during speculum examination and the flagellates are detected under light-field microscopy. The recommended treatment for t. vaginalis for a HIV positive woman who is pregnant is 500mg of metronidazole twice daily for 7 days. High dose metronidazole as a 2g single dose tablet is not advised during pregnancy. All sexual partners should also be treated, and screening for other STIs should be carried out.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 33-year-old 'grand multiparous' woman, who has previously delivered seven children by normal...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old 'grand multiparous' woman, who has previously delivered seven children by normal vaginal delivery, spontaneously delivers a live baby weighing 4750gm one hour ago after a three-hour long labour period. Shortly after, an uncomplicated third stage of labour, she goes into shock (pulse 140/min, BP 80/50 mmHg). At the time of delivery, total blood loss was noted at 500mL, and has not been excessive since then. What is the most probable diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer: Amniotic fluid embolism.

      Correct Answer: Uterine rupture.

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely suffered a uterine rupture. It occurs most often in multiparous women and is less often associated with external haemorrhage. Shock develops shortly after rupture due to the extent of concealed bleeding.

      Uterine inversion rarely occurs when after a spontaneous and normal third stage of labour. Although it can lead to shock, it is usually associated with a history of controlled cord traction or Dublin method of placenta delivery before the uterus has contracted. This diagnosis is also strongly considered when shock is out of proportion to the amount of blood loss.

      An overwhelming infection is unlikely in this case when labour occurred for a short period of time. Uterine atony and amniotic fluid embolism are more associated with excessive vaginal bleeding, which is not evident in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Placental production of hPL, hCG, Oestrogen and Progesterone are examples of which type...

    Incorrect

    • Placental production of hPL, hCG, Oestrogen and Progesterone are examples of which type of mechanism

      Your Answer: Autocrine

      Correct Answer: Endocrine

      Explanation:

      Endocrine hormones are released from their site of origin and travel through the blood to act on other distant target organs. Autocrine hormones act within the same cell and exocrine glands secrete their products into ducts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - In a patient who undergoes a medical abortion at 10 weeks gestation, what...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient who undergoes a medical abortion at 10 weeks gestation, what advice would you give regarding Rhesus Anti-D Immunoglobulin?

      Your Answer: Not required

      Correct Answer: All RhD-negative women who are not alloimmunized should receive Anti-D IgG

      Explanation:

      The Rhesus status of a mother is important in pregnancy and abortion. The exposure of an Rh-negative mother to Rh antigens from a positive foetus, will influence the development of anti-Rh antibodies. This may cause problems in subsequent pregnancies leading to haemolysis in the newborn. Rh Anti RhD- globulin is therefore given to non-sensitised Rh-negative mothers to prevent the formation of anti-Rh antibodies within 72 hours following abortion. Anti RhD globulin is not useful for already sensitized, or RhD positive mothers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Premature menopause is defined as cessation of menses before the age of: ...

    Correct

    • Premature menopause is defined as cessation of menses before the age of:

      Your Answer: 40

      Explanation:

      Premature menopause occurs if menopause happens before the age of 40. It effects 1% of women under the age of 40 and 0.1% under 30.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - In relation to ovulation, when does the LH surge occur? ...

    Incorrect

    • In relation to ovulation, when does the LH surge occur?

      Your Answer: 4-6 hours before ovulation

      Correct Answer: 24-36 hours before ovulation

      Explanation:

      Ovulation usually occurs on day 14 in a typical 28-day cycle. Luteinizing hormone levels spike as a result of increased oestrogen levels secreted from maturing follicles. This LH spike occurs about 24-36 hours before the release of the oocyte from the mature follicle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What epithelium cell type lines the endometrium? ...

    Correct

    • What epithelium cell type lines the endometrium?

      Your Answer: Columnar

      Explanation:

      The endometrium is lined by columnar epithelium

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 31-year-old woman's blood results after having secondary amenorrhoea that lasted for 6...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman's blood results after having secondary amenorrhoea that lasted for 6 months are: Testosterone = 3.4 nmol/L (<1.6), Oestradiol = 144 pmol/L (100-500), LH = 12 U/L and FSH = 4 U/L. What sign or symptom is she likely to have?

      Your Answer: Pelvic mass

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Biochemical features suggest that this patient has polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). It is associated with signs and symptoms of hyperandrogenism (oligomenorrhea, irregular menstruation, hirsutism, hair loss, and acne) and elevated testosterone. PCOS patients are often overweight or obese, have insulin resistance (treated with Metformin) and an adverse risk profile for cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Oxytocin binds to what receptor type? ...

    Incorrect

    • Oxytocin binds to what receptor type?

      Your Answer: GABA B receptors

      Correct Answer: G-protein-coupled receptors

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin binds to the G protein coupled receptors that triggers the IP3 mechanism leading to an elevated intracellular calcium ion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      46.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining she is “urinating all the...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining she is “urinating all the time. It started initially as some leakage of urine with sneezing or coughing, but now she leaks while walking to the bathroom. She voids frequently during the day and several times each night, also sometimes patient feels an intense urge to urinate but passes only a small amount when she tries to void.  She now wears a pad every day and plans her social outings based on bathroom access. Patient had no history of dysuria or hematuria and had 2 vaginal deliveries in her 20s. She drinks alcohol socially, takes 2 or 3 cups of coffee each morning, and “drinks lots of water throughout the day.”  When asked about which urinary symptoms are the most troublesome, the patient is unsure. 

      Among the following which is the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Voiding diary

      Explanation:

      This patient experiences a stress based mixed urinary incontinence presented as leakage of urine while sneezing or coughing and urgency which is an intense urge to urinate with small voiding volume as her symptoms. Urinary incontinence is common and may cause significant distress in some, as seen in this patient who wears a pad every day.  Initial evaluation of mixed incontinence includes maintaining a voiding diary, which helps to classify the predominant type of urinary incontinence and thereby to determine an optimal treatment by tracking the fluid intake, urine output and leaking episodes.

      All patients with mixed incontinence generally require bladder training along with lifestyle changes like weight loss, smoking cessation, decreased alcohol and caffeine intake and practicing pelvic floor muscle exercises like Kegels. Depending on the predominant type, patients who have limited or incomplete symptom relief with bladder training may benefit from pharmacotherapy or surgery.

      In patients with urgency-predominant incontinence, timed voiding practice like urinating on a fixed schedule rather than based on a sense of urgency along with oral antimuscarinics are found to be useful.

      Surgery with a mid-urethral sling is performed in patients with stress-predominant incontinence which is due to a weakened pelvic floor muscles as in cystocele.

      In patients with a suspected urethral diverticulum or vesicovaginal fistula, a cystoscopy is usually indicated but is not used in initial evaluation of urinary incontinence due to its cost and invasiveness.

      Urodynamic testing involves measurement of bladder filling and emptying called as cystometry, urine flow, and pressure (eg, urethral leak point).  This testing is typically reserved for those patients with complicated urinary incontinence, who will not respond to treatment or to those who are considering surgical intervention.

      Initial evaluation of mixed urinary incontinence is done by maintaining a voiding diary, which helps to classify predominant type of urinary incontinence into stress predominant or urgency predominant and thereby to determine the optimal treatment required like bladder training, surgical intervention, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      92.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 38-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 0 aborta 3, at 35 weeks of...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 0 aborta 3, at 35 weeks of gestation comes to the hospital due to intense, constant lower abdominal pain. The patient got conceived via in-vitro fertilization and her prenatal course has been uncomplicated. Over the past 10 years, the patient has had 3 spontaneous abortions, all attributed to uterine leiomyoma. Two years ago, she had an abdominal myomectomy during which the uterine cavity was entered. 

      On examination her temperature is 36.7 C (98 F), blood pressure is 132/84 mm Hg, and pulse is 100/min. The fetal heart rate tracing shows a baseline rate in the 140s with moderate variability and persistent variable decelerations to the 90s.  Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes and last for 45 seconds, her cervix is 4 cm dilated and 100% effaced. 

      Which among the following is the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Subcutaneous administration of terbutaline

      Correct Answer: Laparotomy and cesarean delivery

      Explanation:

      Uterine surgical history & scope of vaginal birth are as follows:
      – In case of low transverse cesarean delivery with horizontal incision: trial of labor is not contraindicated.
      – Classical cesarean delivery with vertical incision: trial of labor is contraindicated
      – Abdominal myomectomy with uterine cavity entry: trial of labor is contraindicated
      – Abdominal myomectomy without uterine cavity entry: trial of labor is not contraindicated.

      In laboring patients with prior uterine surgical histories like a prior classical (vertical) cesarean delivery or a prior myomectomy that was extensive or has entered the uterine cavity like during removal of intramural or submucosal fibroids are at a higher risk for uterine rupture. Given this patient’s history of previous myomectomy, her intense and constant abdominal pain with an abnormal fetal heart rate tracing, like persistent variable decelerations, are pointing to uterine rupture. vaginal bleeding, abdominally palpable fetal parts, loss of fetal station and any change in contraction pattern are the other possible manifestations of uterine rupture. Based on the extent and exact location of the rupture and the presence or absence of regional anesthesia, presentation of a uterine rupture will change.

      Vaginal delivery is safe after a low transverse (horizontal uterine incision) cesarean delivery. Patients with a history of either classical cesarean delivery or an extensive myomectomy are delivered via cesarean delivery at 36-37 weeks gestation, so urgent laparotomy and cesarean delivery are required if these patients present in labor. Further management is determined by other intraoperative findings like, whether uterine rupture has occurred, if occured then delivery is done through the rupture site, followed by a uterine repair; If the uterus is unruptured, a hysterotomy (ie, cesarean delivery) is performed. In patients with prior classical cesarean delivery or extensive myomectomy, an expectant management for a vaginal delivery is contraindicated.

      Amnioinfusion is the technique of placing an intrauterine pressure catheter to decrease umbilical cord compression by doing an intrauterine infusion and this thereby helps to resolve variable decelerations. In patients with a history of uterine surgery Amnioinfusion is contraindicated.

      In cases with abnormal fetal heart rate tracings, if the patient is completely (10cm) dilated, an operative vaginal delivery can be performed to expedite a vaginal delivery.

      Terbutaline is a tocolytic, which is administered to relax the uterus in conditions with contractile abnormalities, such as tachysystole which presents with >5 contractions in 10 minutes or tetanic contractions were contractions last for >2 minutes, which results in fetal heart rate abnormalities. In the given case, the patient’s contractions are normal, which occurs in every 2-3 minutes and lasts for 45 seconds, causing pain and cervical dilation.

      After a classical cesarean delivery or an extensive myomectomy, labor and vaginal delivery are contraindicated due to its significant risk of uterine rupture. Laparotomy and cesarean delivery are preferred in laboring a patients at high risk of uterine rupture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The arterial blood supply to the bladder is via branches of which artery?...

    Incorrect

    • The arterial blood supply to the bladder is via branches of which artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal Iliac

      Explanation:

      The bladder is supplied by branches of the internal iliac artery, including the superior vesical artery, branches of the gluteal and obturator arteries and the inferior vesical artery in males and the vaginal and the uterine arteries in females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology (4/6) 67%
Embryology (3/3) 100%
Physiology (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (2/6) 33%
Microbiology (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (2/4) 50%
Clinical Management (3/4) 75%
Pathology (1/1) 100%
Passmed