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  • Question 1 - A patient presents to ED complaining of a purulent discharge, urethral discomfort and...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents to ED complaining of a purulent discharge, urethral discomfort and dysuria. You suspect gonorrhoea. Which of the following cell components produced by Neisseria gonorrhoeae is responsible for attachment to host cells:

      Your Answer: IgA protease

      Correct Answer: Pili

      Explanation:

      Infection of the genital mucosa by Neisseria gonorrhoeae involves attachment to and invasion of epithelial cells. Initial adherence of gonococci to columnar epithelial cells is mediated by type IV pili assembled from pilin subunit PilE proteins and pilus tip-associated PilC proteins, it then invades the epithelial layer, triggering a local acute inflammatory response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      961.6
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - Fusidic acid is primarily indicated for infections caused by which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Fusidic acid is primarily indicated for infections caused by which of the following microorganisms:

      Your Answer: Gonococcal infections

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcal infections

      Explanation:

      Fusidic acid is a narrow spectrum antibiotic used for staphylococcal infections, primarily topically for minor staphylococcal skin (impetigo) or eye infection. It is sometimes used orally for penicillin-resistant staphylococcal infection, including osteomyelitis or endocarditis, in combination with other antibacterials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      17.4
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - During her pregnancy, a 28-year-old lady was given an antibiotic. The neonate is...

    Correct

    • During her pregnancy, a 28-year-old lady was given an antibiotic. The neonate is born with bilateral deafness as a result of this.

      From the  following antibiotics, which one is most likely to cause this side effect?

      Your Answer: Gentamicin

      Explanation:

      Aminoglycosides cross the placenta and are linked to poisoning of the 8th cranial nerve in the foetus, as well as permanent bilateral deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      16.1
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - Which of the following is NOT a function of bile: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a function of bile:

      Your Answer: Bactericidal action of microbes in food

      Correct Answer: Digestion of fats into monoglycerides and fatty acids.

      Explanation:

      Bile functions to eliminate endogenous and exogenous substances from the liver (including bilirubin), to neutralise gastric acid in the small intestine, and to emulsify fats in the small intestine and facilitate their digestion and absorption. Bile salts also act as bactericides, destroying many of the microbes that may be present in the food. Bile doesn’t contain digestive enzymes for digestion of lipids into monoglycerides and fatty acids; this is performed mainly by pancreatic lipase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      14.6
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - A 17-year-old male presenting in the department has a history of C3 deficiency.

    C3...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old male presenting in the department has a history of C3 deficiency.

      C3 deficiency is associated with all of the following EXCEPT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hereditary angioedema

      Explanation:

      C1-inhibitor deficiency is the cause of hereditary angioedema not C3 deficiency,

      All the other statements are correct

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - Which of the following statements is correct with regards to insulin receptors? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct with regards to insulin receptors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insulin has its intracellular effects via activation of tyrosine kinase.

      Explanation:

      Most cells have insulin receptors present on them which can be sequestered into the cell to inactivate them. These receptors consist of two extracellular alpha subunits which contain the insulin-binding site and two transmembrane beta subunits. Because insulin is a polypeptide hormone, it must act via cell surface receptors as it is unable to readily cross the cell membrane. On binding to the receptor, the beta subunit of insulin autophosphorylation, which activates tyrosine kinase. As a result, there is an intracellular cascade of phosphorylation, causing a translocation of the glucose transporter GLUT4 and GLUT-1 to the plasma membrane of the affected cell. This facilitates glucose entry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - A 41-year-old female patient presents with jaundice. She tells you that she is...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old female patient presents with jaundice. She tells you that she is known to have a chronic hepatitis B infection.
      Which of the following hepatitis B serology results is consistent with a patient that is chronically infected? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HBsAg positive, anti-HBc positive, IgM anti-HBc negative

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is a protein on the surface of the hepatitis B virus, that is the first serologic marker to appear in a new acute infection.It can be detected as early as 1 week and as late as 9 weeks. It can be detected in high levels in serum during acute or chronic hepatitis B virus infection. The presence of HBsAg indicates that the person is infectious. The body normally produces antibodies to HBsAg as part of the normal immune response to infection. HBsAg is the antigen used to make hepatitis B vaccine.
      Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs) indicates recovery and immunity from the hepatitis B virus infection. Anti-HBs also develops in a person who has been successfully vaccinated against hepatitis B.
      Total hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBc): Appears at the onset of symptoms in acute hepatitis B and persists for life. The presence of anti-HBc indicates previous or ongoing infection with hepatitis B virus in an undefined time frame. It is not present following hepatitis B vaccination.
      IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen (IgM anti-HBc) indicates recent infection with hepatitis B virus (<6 months). Its presence indicates acute infection.
      The following table summarises the presence of hepatitis B markers according to each situation:
      Susceptible to infection:
      HBsAg = Negative
      Anti-HBc = Negative
      Anti-HBs = Negative

      Immune due to natural infection:
      HBsAg = Negative
      Anti-HBc = Positive
      Anti-HBs = Positive

      Immune due to vaccination:
      HBsAg = Negative
      Anti-HBc = Negative
      Anti-HBs = Positive

      Acute infection:
      HBsAg = Positive
      Anti-HBc = Positive
      Anti-HBs = Negative
      IgM anti-HBc = Positive

      Chronic infection:
      HBsAg = Positive
      Anti-HBc = Positive
      Anti-HBs = Negative
      IgM anti-HBc = Negative

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Regarding bicarbonate handling by the proximal tubule, which of the following statements is...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding bicarbonate handling by the proximal tubule, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: For each H + secreted into the lumen, one Na + and one HCO 3 - is reabsorbed into the plasma.

      Explanation:

      About 80% of bicarbonate is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. HCO3-is not transported directly, tubular HCO3-associates with H+secreted by epithelial Na+/H+antiporters to form carbonic acid (H2CO3) which readily dissociates to form carbon dioxide and water in the presence of carbonic anhydrase. CO2and water diffuse into the tubular cells, where they recombine to form carbonic acid which dissociates to H+and HCO3-. This HCO3-is transported into the interstitium largely by Na+/HCO3-symporters on the basolateral membrane (and H+is secreted back into the lumen). For each H+secreted into the lumen, one Na+and one HCO3-are reabsorbed into the plasma. H+is recycled so there is little net secretion of H+at this stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - What is the direct mechanism of action of digoxin as a positive inotrope:...

    Incorrect

    • What is the direct mechanism of action of digoxin as a positive inotrope:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of Na+/K+ ATPase pump

      Explanation:

      Digoxin directly inhibits membrane Na+/K+ ATPase, which is responsible for Na+/K+ exchange across the myocyte cell membrane. This increases intracellular Na+ and produces a secondary increase in intracellular Ca2+ that increases the force of myocardial contraction. The increase in intracellular Ca2+ occurs because the decreased Na+ gradient across the membrane reduces the extrusion of Ca2+ by the Na+/Ca2+ exchanger that normally occurs during diastole. Digoxin and K+ ions compete for the receptor on the outside of the muscle cell membrane, and so the effects of digoxin may be dangerously increased in hypokalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - Gastrin release from antral G-cells is stimulated by all but which one of...

    Incorrect

    • Gastrin release from antral G-cells is stimulated by all but which one of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secretin

      Explanation:

      Gastrin secretion is stimulated by:
      The presence of small peptides and amino acids in chyme
      Gastric distension
      Vagal stimulation directly via acetylcholine and indirectly via gastrin-releasing peptide (GRP)
      Raised gastric pH

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - The causative organism for an infection in a patient you are reviewing...

    Incorrect

    • The causative organism for an infection in a patient you are reviewing is a facultative anaerobe.

      Which of these is a facultative anaerobic organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Facultative anaerobic bacteria make energy in the form of ATP by aerobic respiration in an oxygen rich environment and can switch to fermentation in an oxygen poor environment.

      Examples of facultative anaerobes are:
      Staphylococcus spp.
      Listeria spp.
      Streptococcus spp.
      Escherichia coli

      Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are obligate aerobe. They require oxygen to grow

      Campylobacter jejuni and Clostridium spp are obligate anaerobes.
      They live and grow in the absence of oxygen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - Which of the following blood groups is the universal donor: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following blood groups is the universal donor:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: O

      Explanation:

      Blood group O has no antigens, but both anti-A and anti-B antibodies and thus is the universal donor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - The renal corpuscle, consisting of the Bowman's capsule and the glomerulus is found...

    Incorrect

    • The renal corpuscle, consisting of the Bowman's capsule and the glomerulus is found where in the kidney:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The cortex

      Explanation:

      All nephrons have their renal corpuscles in the renal cortex. Cortical nephrons have their renal corpuscles in the outer part of the cortex and relatively short loops of Henle. Juxtamedullary nephrons have their corpuscles in the inner third of the cortex, close to the corticomedullary junction, with long loops of Henle extending into the renal medulla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - A patent has weakness of humeral flexion and extension. A CT scan reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A patent has weakness of humeral flexion and extension. A CT scan reveals that he has suffered damage to the nerve that innervates pectoralis major.
      Pectoralis major receives its innervation from which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lateral and medial pectoral nerves

      Explanation:

      Pectoralis major is a thick, fan-shaped muscle situated in the chest. It makes up the bulk of the chest musculature in the male and lies underneath the breast in the female. It overlies the thinner pectoralis minor muscle.
      Superficial muscles of the chest and arm showing pectoralis major (from Gray’s Anatomy)
      Pectoralis major has two heads; the clavicular head and the sternocostal head. The clavicular head originates from the anterior border and medial half of the clavicle. The sternocostal head originates from the anterior surface of the sternum, the superior six costal cartilages and the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle. It inserts into the lateral lip of the bicipital groove of the humerus.
      Pectoralis major receives dual innervation from the medial pectoral nerve and the lateral pectoral nerve.
      Its main actions are as follows:
      Flexes humerus (clavicular head)
      Extends humerus (sternocostal head)
      Adducts and medially rotates the humerus
      Draws scapula anteriorly and inferiorly

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - A paediatric patient comes to the emergency room with complaints of right lower...

    Incorrect

    • A paediatric patient comes to the emergency room with complaints of right lower quadrant pain. The attending physician is considering appendicitis. Inside the operating room, the surgeon asks the medical student to locate the McBurney's point prior to the first incision.

      Which of the following is the surface anatomy of the McBurney's point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: One-third of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus

      Explanation:

      Inflammation of the appendix is a significant public health problem with a lifetime incidence of 8.6% in men and 6.7% in women, with the highest incidence occurring in the second and third decade of life. While the rate of appendectomy in developed countries has decreased over the last several decades, it remains one of the most frequent emergent abdominal operations. Appendicitis can often result in anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and fever.

      McBurney’s point, which is found one-third of the distance between the anterior superior iliac spine and the umbilicus, is often the point of maximal tenderness in a patient with an anatomically normal appendix. A McBurney’s incision is chiefly used for cecostomy and appendectomy. It gives a limited exposure only, and should any doubt arise about the diagnosis, an infraumbilical right paramedian incision should be used instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - A 26-year-old man is involved in a motorcycle accident that results in an...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man is involved in a motorcycle accident that results in an open fracture of his tibia and fibula. The nerve that innervates peroneus tertius is damaged as a consequence of his injuries.
      Peroneus tertius receives its innervation from which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deep peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Peroneus brevis is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve.
      Peroneus longus is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve.
      Peroneus tertius is innervated by the deep peroneal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - A critically ill 48-year-old individual appears with symptoms and signs of an anaphylactic...

    Incorrect

    • A critically ill 48-year-old individual appears with symptoms and signs of an anaphylactic reaction.

      In an allergic reaction, which of the following is an absolute contraindication to the injection of adrenaline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: None of the other options

      Explanation:

      Even if the following relevant contraindications exist, adrenaline can be given in life-threatening anaphylactic reactions:
      Coronary artery disease (CAD) 
      Coronary artery disease (CAD)  Second stage of labour
      Hypertension that is uncontrolled
      Severe Ventricular arrhythmias

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - Which of the following is a clinical effect of hyperkalaemia: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a clinical effect of hyperkalaemia:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Muscle weakness

      Explanation:

      Clinical features of hyperkalaemia may include:
      paraesthesia, muscle weakness or paralysis, cardiac conduction abnormalities and dysrhythmias.

      Clinical features of hypokalaemia may include:
      muscle weakness, muscle cramps, rhabdomyolysis and myoglobinuria, ascending paralysis resulting in respiratory failure, constipation, gut ileus with distension, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, impaired ADH action with polyuria and polydipsia, ECG changes and cardiac arrhythmias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - A 32 year old woman presents with episodes of flushing, headaches and palpitations....

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old woman presents with episodes of flushing, headaches and palpitations. On examination her blood pressure is significantly elevated. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pheochromocytoma

      Explanation:

      Phaeochromocytomas are catecholamine-secreting tumours which occur in about 0.1% of patients with hypertension. In about 90% of cases they arise from the adrenal medulla. The remaining 10%, which arise from extra-adrenal chromaffin tissue, are termed paragangliomas. Common presenting symptoms include one or more of headache, sweating, pallor and palpitations. Less commonly, patients describe anxiety, panic attacks and pyrexia. Hypertension, whether sustained or episodic, is present in at least 90% of patients. Left untreated phaeochromocytoma can occasionally lead to hypertensive crisis, encephalopathy, hyperglycaemia, pulmonary oedema, cardiac arrhythmias, or even death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - Which of the following occurs at the transverse thoracic plane: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following occurs at the transverse thoracic plane:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bifurcation of the trachea

      Explanation:

      A way to help remember the structures transected by the transverse thoracic plane is CLAPTRAP:
      C: cardiac plexus
      L: ligamentum arteriosum
      A: aortic arch (inner concavity)
      P: pulmonary trunk
      T: tracheal bifurcation (carina)
      R: right-to-left movement of the thoracic duct (posterior to the oesophagus)
      A: azygos vein drains into superior vena cava
      P: pre-vertebral fascia and pre-tracheal fascia end

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of chest pain pointing to angina. A dose of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) was administered, rapidly resolving her symptoms. Unfortunately, she develops a side-effect of the drug.

      Which one of the following is the side effect she is most likely to have developed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flushing

      Explanation:

      Angina pectoris is the most common symptom of ischemic heart disease and presents with chest pain relieved by rest and nitro-glycerine.

      Nitrates are the first-line treatment to relieve chest pain caused by angina. The commonly used nitrates are:
      1. Glyceryl trinitrate
      2. Isosorbide dinitrate

      Side effects to nitrate therapy are common especially
      The most common side effects are:
      1. Headaches
      2. Feeling dizzy, weak, or tired
      3. Nausea
      4. Flushing

      The serious but less likely to occur side effects are:
      1. Methemoglobinemia (rare)
      2. Syncope
      3. Prolonged bleeding time
      4. Exfoliative dermatitis
      5. Unstable angina
      6. Rebound hypertension
      7. Thrombocytopenia

      Dry eyes, bradycardia, and metabolic acidosis have not been reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - The parasympathetic supply to the rectum is from which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • The parasympathetic supply to the rectum is from which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvic splanchnic nerves

      Explanation:

      Parasympathetic supply is from the pelvic splanchnic nerves (S2 – S4) and inferior hypogastric plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - You are about to perform a blood test on a patient suspected of...

    Incorrect

    • You are about to perform a blood test on a patient suspected of having systemic lupus erythematosus. Which antibodies will indicate a positive result of systemic lupus erythematosus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-nuclear antibodies

      Explanation:

      Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) are autoantibodies to the cells’ nucleus.

      The ANA test is the most sensitive diagnostic test for verifying the disease’s diagnosis.

      Other autoantibodies that may be found in SLE patients include rheumatoid factor, antiphospholipid antibodies, and antimitochondrial antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - Where in the nephron is most K+reabsorbed: ...

    Incorrect

    • Where in the nephron is most K+reabsorbed:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Proximal tubule

      Explanation:

      Approximately 65 – 70% of filtered K+is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. Potassium reabsorption is tightly linked to that of sodium and water. The reabsorption of sodium drives that of water, which may carry some potassium with it. The potassium gradient resulting from the reabsorption of water from the tubular lumen drives the paracellular reabsorption of potassium and may be enhanced by the removal of potassium from the paracellular space via the Na+/K+ATPase pump. In the later proximal tubule, the positive potential in the lumen also drives the potassium reabsorption through the paracellular route.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - A 59-year-old man is complaining of pain in his perineal area, a recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man is complaining of pain in his perineal area, a recent onset of urinary frequency and urgency, fever, chills, and muscle aches. He has a long history of nocturia and terminal dribbling. On rectal examination you find an exquisitely tender prostate.

      Which of these antibacterial agents would be most appropriate in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin for 14 days

      Explanation:

      An acute focal or diffuse suppurative inflammation of the prostate gland is called acute bacterial prostatitis.

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), acute prostatitis should be suspected in a man presenting with:
      A feverish illness of sudden onset which may be associated with rigors, arthralgia, or myalgia; Irritative urinary voiding symptoms; acute urinary retention; perineal or suprapubic pain and an exquisitely tender prostate on rectal examination.

      Treatment of acute prostatitis as recommended by NICE and the BNFare:
      Ciprofloxacin or ofloxacin for 14 days
      Alternatively, trimethoprim can be used. Duration of treatment is still 14 days

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - Regarding the human cell, which of the following cell organelles is responsible for...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the human cell, which of the following cell organelles is responsible for the production of ATP:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitochondria

      Explanation:

      Mitochondria are membrane-bound organelles that are responsible for the production of the cell’s supply of chemical energy. This is achieved by using molecular oxygen to utilise sugar and small fatty acid molecules to generate adenosine triphosphate (ATP). This process is known as oxidative phosphorylation and requires an enzyme called ATP synthase. ATP acts as an energy-carrying molecule and releases the energy in situations when it is required to fuel cellular processes. Mitochondria are also involved in other cellular processes, including Ca2+homeostasis and signalling. Mitochondria contain a small amount of maternal DNA.
      Mitochondria have two phospholipid bilayers, an outer membrane and an inner membrane. The inner membrane is intricately folded inwards to form numerous layers called cristae. The cristae contain specialised membrane proteins that enable the mitochondria to synthesise ATP. Between the two membranes lies the intermembrane space, which stores large proteins that are required for cellular respiration. Within the inner membrane is the perimitochondrial space, which contains a jelly-like matrix. This matrix contains a large quantity of ATP synthase.
      Mitochondrial disease, or mitochondrial disorder, refers to a group of disorders that affect the mitochondria. When the number or function of mitochondria in the cell are disrupted, less energy is produced and organ dysfunction results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - Carbamazepine is contraindicated in which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Carbamazepine is contraindicated in which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular block

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine is contraindicated in:
      – People with known hypersensitivity to carbamazepine or structurally related drugs
      – People with atrioventricular block (may suppress AV conduction and ventricular automaticity)
      – People with a history of bone marrow depression (risk of agranulocytosis and aplastic anaemia)
      – People with a history of acute porphyrias
      – People taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (risk of serotonin syndrome)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - Oculomotor (CN III) palsy with sparing of the pupillary reflex is most likely...

    Incorrect

    • Oculomotor (CN III) palsy with sparing of the pupillary reflex is most likely caused by which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Compressive causes of CN III palsy cause early pupillary dilatation because the parasympathetic fibres run peripherally in the nerve and are easily compressed. In diabetes mellitus the lesions are ischaemic rather than compressive and therefore typically affect the central fibres resulting in pupillary sparing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - One of your patients has been infected by an obligate pathogen and presents...

    Incorrect

    • One of your patients has been infected by an obligate pathogen and presents with features of this condition.

      Which of these is an example of an obligate pathogen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trepenoma pallidum

      Explanation:

      Treponema pallidum is an obligate pathogen. Obligate pathogens are almost always associated with disease and usually cannot survive outside of the body for long periods of time. Examples include and HIV.

      Staphylococcus aureus and Bacteroides fragilis are conditional pathogens. These are pathogens that usually cause disease only if certain conditions are met.

      Pneumocystis jiroveci and Pseudomonas aeruginosa, are opportunistic pathogens. These are pathogens that can only cause disease in an immunocompromised host or under unusual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - When a child has mumps, how long should he or she be off...

    Incorrect

    • When a child has mumps, how long should he or she be off from school?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5 days from onset of swelling

      Explanation:

      To avoid the spread of infection, infected patients should be isolated. Patients should avoid going to school, childcare, or job for five days after the swelling has occurred.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Pathogens (0/1) 0%
Infections (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Gastrointestinal (0/1) 0%
Physiology (0/1) 0%
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