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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which features may suggest malignant changes in a melanocytic naevi?
Your Answer: Increase in pigmentation
Correct Answer: Decrease in size
Explanation:Melanocytic naevi are skin tumours produced by melanocytes. They usually present in childhood but increase during puberty. The mnemonic A-B-C-D, is used by institutions to assess for suspicion of malignancy. The letters stand for asymmetry, border, colour, and diameter. If a mole starts changing in size, colour, shape or, especially, if the border of a mole develops ragged edges or becomes larger than a pencil eraser, it would be an appropriate time to consult with a physician. Other warning signs include if it begins to crust over, bleed, itch, or become inflamed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old male was brought in unconscious state with high fever, swollen nasal mucosa and constricted pupils. Which of the following substances can cause this presentation?
Your Answer: Heroin
Correct Answer: Cocaine
Explanation:This presentation is suggestive of cocaine toxicity. The major effects of cocaine poisoning include CNS effects such as agitation, seizures and psychosis, and cardiovascular effects such as dysrhythmias, myocardial infarction and cardiovascular collapse. The common route for cocaine ingestion is through the nose, hence the irritated swollen septum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency & Critical Care
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male presented with acute ST elevation myocardial infarction and thrombolysis was planned. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for thrombolysis?
Your Answer: Heartburn
Correct Answer: Intracerebral Haemorrhage
Explanation:Absolute contraindications for fibrinolytic use in STEMI
Prior intracranial haemorrhage (ICH)
Known structural cerebral vascular lesion
Known malignant intracranial neoplasm
Ischemic stroke within 3 months
Suspected aortic dissection
Active bleeding or bleeding diathesis (excluding menses)
Significant closed head trauma or facial trauma within 3 months
Intracranial or intraspinal surgery within 2 months
Severe uncontrolled hypertension (unresponsive to emergency therapy)
For streptokinase, prior treatment within the previous 6 months -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 4
Correct
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A 64-year-old woman with ankylosing spondylitis presents with cough, weight loss and tiredness. Her chest x-ray shows longstanding upper lobe fibrosis. Three sputum tests stain positive for acid fast bacilli (AFB) but are consistently negative for Mycobacterium tuberculosis on culture.
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Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?Your Answer: Mycobacterium avium intracellular complex
Explanation:Pulmonary mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) infection in immunocompetent hosts generally manifests as cough, sputum production, weight loss, fever, lethargy, and night sweats. The onset of symptoms is insidious.
In patients who may have pulmonary infection with MAC, diagnostic testing includes acid-fast bacillus (AFB) staining and culture of sputum specimens.The ATS/IDSA guidelines include clinical, radiographic, and bacteriologic criteria to establish a diagnosis of nontuberculous mycobacterial lung disease.
Clinical criteria are as follows:
Pulmonary signs and symptoms such as cough, fatigue, weight loss; less commonly, fever and weight loss; dyspnoea
Appropriate exclusion of other diseases (e.g., carcinoma, tuberculosis).
At least 3 sputum specimens, preferably early-morning samples taken on different days, should be collected for AFB staining and culture. Sputum AFB stains are positive for MAC in most patients with pulmonary MAC infection. Mycobacterial cultures grow MAC in about 1-2 weeks, depending on the culture technique and bacterial burden.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 5
Correct
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A 40-year-old man presents with recurrent headaches, 2-3 times a day, associated with sweating and palpitations.
His blood pressure during the attacks is around 220/120 mmHg.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the next appropriate investigation?Your Answer: 24 hour urinary collection of metanephrines
Explanation:Classically, pheochromocytoma manifests with the following 4 characteristics:
– Headaches
– Palpitations
– Sweating
– Severe hypertensionThe Endocrine Society, the American Association for Clinical Chemistry, and the European Society of Endocrinology have released clinical practice guidelines for the diagnosis and management of pheochromocytoma.
Biochemical testing via measurement of plasma free metanephrines or urinary fractionated metanephrines should be performed in patients suspected of having pheochromocytoma.Catecholamines produced by pheochromocytomas are metabolized within chromaffin cells. Norepinephrine is metabolized to normetanephrine and epinephrine is metabolized to metanephrine. Because this process occurs within the tumour, independently of catecholamine release, pheochromocytomas are best diagnosed by measurement of these metabolites rather than by measurement of the parent catecholamines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 70-year old man presents with difficulty speaking and has a history of weakness in his facial muscles, as well as in his right arm and leg. What is the most appropriate prophylactic regimen in this case?
Your Answer: Aspirin 300mg for 2 weeks followed by aspirin 75mg
Correct Answer: Aspirin 300mg for 2 weeks followed by aspirin 75mg and dipyridamole 200mg
Explanation:Left-sided hemiparesis along with slurred speech are strong indications of stroke in the right cerebral hemisphere. This occurs due to poor blood flow to the brain from the heart. Aspirin 300mg has analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory properties that can address the acute symptoms of stroke like migraine and neuralgic pain. With a reduced dose of 75mg of Aspirin, its anti-platelet effect can inhibit further thrombus formation and prevent another stroke. Dipyridamole 200mg is an anti-coagulant preventing clot formation in the blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency & Critical Care
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Question 7
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman comes for the advice regarding contraceptives. Her mother passed away due to cervical cancer and she worries about cervical cancer. Which of the following is the most suitable contraceptive method for her?
Your Answer: Barrier method
Explanation:Cervical cancer results from genital infection with HPV. PV infections can be transmitted via nonsexual routes, but the result from sexual contact. So the best contraceptive method in relation to prevention of cervical cancer is the barrier method. But it will not prevent cervical cancer a 100%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Women's Health
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Question 8
Correct
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A young man presents to the clinic with recurrent episodes of breathlessness. Past medical history reveals recurrent episodes of colicky abdominal pain for the past three years.
On examination, he has a productive cough with foul smelling sputum.
Investigations show: Sputum culture with Heavy growth of Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Haemophilus influenzae.
Chest x-ray: Tramline and ring shadows.
What is his diagnosis?Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a multisystemic, autosomal recessive disorder that predominantly affects infants, children, and young adults. CF is the most common life-limiting genetic disorder in whites, with an incidence of 1 case per 3200-3300 new-borns in the United States.
People with CF can have a variety of symptoms, including:
Very salty-tasting skin
Persistent coughing, at times with phlegm
Frequent lung infections including pneumonia or bronchitis
Wheezing or shortness of breath
Poor growth or weight gain in spite of a good appetite
Frequent greasy, bulky stools or difficulty with bowel movements
Male infertilitySigns of bronchiectasis include the tubular shadows; tram tracks, or horizontally oriented bronchi; and the signet-ring sign, which is a vertically oriented bronchus with a luminal airway diameter that is 1.5 times the diameter of the adjacent pulmonary arterial branch.
Bronchiectasis is characterized by parallel, thick, line markings radiating from hila (line tracks) in cylindrical bronchiectasis. Ring shadows represent dilated thick-wall bronchi seen in longitudinal section or on-end or dilated bronchi in varicose bronchiectasis.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the key bacterial agent of cystic fibrosis (CF) lung infections, and the most important pathogen in progressive and severe CF lung disease. This opportunistic pathogen can grow and proliferate in patients, and exposure can occur in hospitals and other healthcare settings.
Haemophilus influenzae is regularly involved in chronic lung infections and acute exacerbations of CF patients
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 9
Correct
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A 26-year-old student has been brought to the emergency department in a confused state. His friends report that he has been complaining of headaches for the past few weeks. He has a low-grade fever and on examination is noted to have abnormally pink mucosa. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Carbon monoxide poisoning
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency & Critical Care
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Question 10
Correct
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A 45-year-old female presented in the OPD with complaints of tiredness and lethargy. On examination, her BP was 160/100 mmHg. On lab examination her Na+=142 mmol/L, K+=3.0mmol/L. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Conn's syndrome
Explanation:In Conn’s syndrome hypokalaemia and hypertension are present due to high levels of aldosterone with normal to high sodium levels. In this disease, the patient presents with hypertension and feelings of tiredness or fatigue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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